A&P 7: 206 Bones Flashcards

1
Q

Skeleton (skeletal system)

A

composed of bones, cartilages, joints, and ligaments; accounts for about 20% of body mass; bones make up most of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Axial skeleton

A

structured from 80 bones segregated into 3 major regions: the skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage; forms the longitudinal axis of the body, supports the head, neck, and trunk, & protects the brain, spinal cord, and the organs in the thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Skull

A

body’s most complex bony structure; formed by cranial and facial bones, 22 in all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cranium

A

cranial bones; enclose and protect the fragile brain and furnish attachment sites for head and neck muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sutures

A

except for the mandible, all bones of the adult skull are firmly united by these interlocking joints, the lines of which have a saw-toothed/serrated appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cranial vault

A

AKA the calvaria; forms the superior, lateral, and posterior aspects of the skull, as well as the forehead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cranial base

A

forms the skull’s inferior aspects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Frontal bone

A

shell-shaped; forms the anterior cranium; articulates posteriorly with the paired parietal bones via the prominent coronal suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Supraorbital margins

A

the frontal squamous region ends inferiorly at these thickened superior margins of the orbits that lie under the eyebrows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Anterior cranial fossa

A

the frontal bone extends posteriorly from the supraorbital margins, forming the superior wall of the orbits and most of this, which supports the frontal lobes of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Supraorbital foramen (notch)

A

each supraorbital margin is pierced by this, which allows the supraorbital artery and nerve to pass to the forehead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Glabella

A

smooth portion of the frontal bone between the orbits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Frontal sinuses

A

the areas lateral to the glabella are riddled internally with these spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Parietal bones

A

2 large, curved rectangular bones that form most of the superior and lateral aspects of the skull, hence forming the bulk of the cranial vault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Coronal suture

A

where the parietal bones meet the frontal bone anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Sagittal suture

A

where the parietal bones meet superiorly at the cranial midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lambdoid suture

A

where the parietal bones meet the occipital bone posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Squamous suture

A

one on each side, where a parietal and temporal bone meet on the lateral aspect of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Occipital bone

A

forms most of the skull’s posterior wall and base; articulates anteriorly with the paired parietal and temporal bones via the lambdoid and occipitomastoid sutures; the basilar part of this bone also joins with the sphenoid bone in the cranial base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Posterior cranial fossa

A

internally, the occipital bone forms the walls of this depression, which supports the cerebellum of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Foramen magnum

A

in the base of the occipital bone is this large hole though which the inferior part of the brain connects with the spinal cord; flanked laterally by 2 occipital condyles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Occipital condyles

A

rockerlike; articulate with the 1st vertebra of the spinal column in a way that permits a nodding (“yes”) motion of the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hypoglossal canal

A

hidden medially and superiorly to each occipital condyle is this canal through which a cranial nerve (XII) passes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

External occipital protuberance

A

just superior to the foramen magnum is this median protrusion; you can feel this knoblike projection just below the most bulging part of your posterior skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Temporal bones

A

2 bones that lie inferior to the parietal bones and meet them at the squamous sutures; form the inferolateral apsects of the skull and parts of the cranial base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Squamous part

A

flaring part of the temporal bone that abuts the squamous suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Zygomatic process

A

barlike part of the temporal bone that meets the zygomatic bone of the face anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Zygomatic arch

A

squamous part of the temporal bone + zygomatic process, which you can feel as the projection of your cheek; AKA cheekbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Mandibular fossa

A

small, oval depression on the inferior surface of the zygomatic process that receives the condylar process of the mandible, forming the freely movable temporomandibular joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Tympanic part

A

part of the temporal bone surrounding the external acoustic meatus (external ear canal), through which sound enters the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Petrous part

A

thick part of the temporal bone that houses the middle and internal ear cavities, which contain sensory receptors for hearing and balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Middle cranial fossa

A

together, the sphenoid bone and the petrous portions of the temporal bones construct this depression, which supports the temporal lobes of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Jugular foramen

A

opening at the junction of the occipital and petrous temporal bones that allows passage of the internal jugular vein and 3 cranial nerves (IX, X, & XI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cranial canal

A

just anterior to the jugular foramen; transmits the internal carotid artery into the cranial cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Foramen lacerum

A

jagged opening between the petrous temporal bone and the sphenoid bone; almost completely covered by cartilage in a living person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Internal acoustic meatus

A

positioned superolateral to the jugular foramen; transmits cranial nerves VII & VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Mastoid process

A

conspicuous feature of the petrous part of the temporal bone; acts as an anchoring site for some neck muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Styloid process

A

needle-like attachment point for several tongue and neck muscles and for a ligament that secures the hyoid bone of the neck to the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Stylomastoid foramen

A

between the styloid and mastoid processes, allows cranial nerve VII (the facial nerve) to leave the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Mastoid air cells

A

the mastoid process is full of these air cavities; their position adjacent to the middle ear cavity puts them at risk for infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Sphenoid bone

A

bat-shaped bone that spans the width of the middle cranial fossa; considered the keystone of the cranium because it forms a central wedge that articulates with all other cranial bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Body (of the sphenoid)

A

contains the paired sphenoidal sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Sphenoidal sinuses

A

paired cavities within the body of the sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Sella turcica

A

“Turk’s saddle”; superior surface of the body of the sphenoid bears this saddle-shaped prominence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hypophyseal fossa

A

the seat of the sella turcica; forms a snug enclosure for the pituitary gland (hypophysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Greater wings

A

project laterally from the sphenoid body, forming parts of (1) the middle cranial fossa, (2) the posterior walls of the orbits, & (3) the external wall of the skull, where they are seen as flag-shaped, bony areas medial to the zygomatic arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Lesser wings

A

hornlike parts of the sphenoid the form part of the floor of the anterior cranial fossa and part of the medial walls of the orbits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Pterygoid processes

A

trough-shaped parts of the sphenoid that project inferiorly from the junction of the body and the greater wings; anchor the pterygoid muscles, which are important in chewing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Optic canals

A

openings lying anterior to the sella turcica; allow the optic nerves (cranial nerves II) to pass to the eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Superior orbital fissure

A

long slit between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid; allows cranial nerves that control eye movements (III, IV, VI) to enter the orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Foramen rotundum

A

provides passageway for branch of cranial nerve V (the maxillary nerve) to reach the face; medial part of the greater wing and is usually oval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Foramen ovale

A

provides passageway for branch of cranial nerve V (the mandibular nerve) to reach the face; large, oval opening posterior to the foramen rotundum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Foramen spinosum

A

posterolateral to the foramen ovale is this small opening which transmits the middle meningeal artery, which serves the internal faces of some cranial bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ethmoid bones

A

delicate bone with a complex shape; lies between the sphenoid and the nasal bones of the face; it is the most deeply situated bone of the skull; forms most of the bony area between the nasal cavity and the orbits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Cribriform plates

A

superior surface of the ethmoid is formed by these paired horizontal plates, which help form the roof of the nasal cavities and the floor of the anterior cranial fossa; the plates are punctured by tiny holes that allow the filaments of the olfactory nerves to pass from the smell receptors in the nasal cavities to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Crista galli

A

projecting superiorly between the cribriform plates is this triangular process that looks like a “rooster’s comb”; the outermost covering of the brain (dura mater) attaches to this and helps secure the brain in the cranial cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Perpendicular plate

A

part of the ethmoid bone that projects inferiorly in the median plane and forms the superior part of the nasal septum, which divides the nasal cavity into right and left halves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Lateral mass

A

flanking the perpendicular plate on each side is this, which is riddled with sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Ethmoidal air cells

A

sinuses of the lateral mass; flanks the perpendicular plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Superior & middle nasal conchae

A

extending medially from the lateral masses, these delicately coiled parts are named after conch shells; they protrude into the nasal avity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Orbital plates

A

the lateral surfaces of the ethmoid’s lateral masses are called this because they contribute to the medial walls of the orbits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Sutural bones

A

tiny, irregularly shaped bones or bone clusters that occur within sutures, most often in the lambdoid suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Mandible

A

u-shaped lower jawbone; largest, strongest bone of the face; has a body (chin) and 2 upright rami (branches); each ramus meets the body posteriorly at a mandibular angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Mandibular angle

A

each ramus of the mandible meets the body posteriorly here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Mandibular notch

A

at the superior margin of each ramus are 2 processes separated by this u-shaped cut-out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Coronoid process

A

an anterior part of the mandible which serves as an insertion point for the large temporalis muscle that elevates the lower jaw during chewing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Condylar process

A

a posterior part of the mandible that articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone, forming the temporomandibular joint of the same side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Body (mandible)

A

part of the mandible that anchors the lower teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Alveolar processes (mandible)

A

superior border of the mandibular body containing the sockets in which the teeth are embedded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Mandibular symphysis

A

in the midline of the mandibular body is this slight ridge, indicating where the 2 mandibular bones fused during infancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Mandibular foramina

A

large opening on the medial surface of each ramus of the mandible that permits the nerves responsible for tooth sensation to pass to the teeth in the lower jaw; dentists inject lidocaine here to prevent pain while working on the lower teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Mental foramina

A

openings on the lateral aspects of the mandibular body; allow blood vessels and nerves to pass to the skin of the chin and lower lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Maxillary bones (maxillae)

A

bones fused medially that form the upper jaw and the central portion of the facial skeleton; all bones except the mandible articulate with these bones, hence they are considered the keystone bones of the facial skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Alveolar processes (maxillae)

A

parts of the maxillae that carry the upper teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Anterior nasal spine

A

just inferior to the nose, the maxillae meet medially, forming this pointed part at their junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Palatine processes

A

parts of the maxillae that project posteriorly from the alveolar processes and fuse medially at the intermaxillary suture, forming the anterior 2/3 of the hard palate (bony roof of the mouth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Incisive fossa

A

just posterior to the teeth is a midline foramen called this, which serves as a passageway for blood vessels and nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Frontal processes

A

extend superiorly to the frontal bone, forming part of the lateral aspects of the bridge of the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Maxillary sinuses

A

the regions that flank the nasal cavity laterally contain these cavities, the largest of the paranasal sinuses; extend from the orbits to the roots of the upper teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Zygomatic processes

A

laterally, the maxillae articulate with the zygomatic bones via these parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Inferior orbital fissure

A

located deep within the orbit at the junction of the maxilla with the greater wing of the sphenoid; permits the zygomatic nerve, the maxillary nerve (a branch of cranial nerve V), and blood vessels to pass to the face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Infraorbital foramen

A

just below the eye socket on each side is this opening that allows the infraorbital nerve (a continuation of the maxillary nerve) and artery to reach the face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Zygomatic bones

A

irregularly shaped bones commonly called the cheekbones; articulate with the zygomatic processes of the temporal bones posteriorly, the zygomatic processes of the frontal bone superiorly, and with the zygomatic processes of the maxillae anteriorly; form the prominence of the cheeks and part of the inferolateral margins of the orbits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Nasal bones

A

thin, basically rectangular bones fused medially, forming the bridge of the nose; articulate with the frontal bone superiorly, the maxillary bones laterally, and the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone posteriorly; inferiorly they attach to the cartilages that form most of the skeleton of the external nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Lacrimal bones

A

delicate, fingernail-shaped bones that contribute to the medial walls of each orbit; articulate with the frontal bone superiorly, the ethmoid bone posteriorly, and the maxillae anteriorly; each one contains a deep groove the helps form a lacrimal fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Lacrimal fossa

A

depression/groove in the lacrimal bones that houses the lacrimal sac, part of the passageway that allows tears to drain from the eye surface into the nasal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Palatine bone

A

each L-shaped bone is fashioned from 2 bony plates, the horizontal and the perpendicular; has 3 important articular processes - the pyramidal, sphenoidal, and orbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Horizontal plates

A

joined at the medial palatine suture, complete the posterior portion of the hard palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Perpendicular (vertical) plates

A

superiorly projecting plates that form part of the posterolateral walls of the nasal cavity and a small part of the orbits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Vomer

A

slender, plow-shaped bone that lies in the nasal cavity where it forms part of the nasal septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Inferior nasal conchae

A

paried, thin, curved bones in the nasal cavity; project medially from the lateral walls of the nasal cavity, just inferior to the middle nasal conchae of the ethmoid bone; largest of the 3 pairs of conchae; form part of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Orbits

A

cone-shaped bony cavities in which the eyes are firmly encased and cushioned by fatty tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Nasal cavity

A

constructed of bone and hyaline cartilage; roof formed by the cribriform plates of the ethmoid; lateral walls are largely shaped by the superior and middle conchae of the ethmoid bone, the perpendicular plates of the palatine bones, and the inferior nasal conchae; depressions under cover of the conchae on the lateral walls = meatuses (=passage; superior, middle, and inferior); floor formed by the palatine processes of the maxillae and the palatine bones; divided into left and right parts by the nasal septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Paranasal sinuses

A

sinuses of 5 of the skull bones (frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and paired maxillary); lined with mucosa, filled with air; cluster around the nasal cavity; lighten the skull and enhance the resonance of the voice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Hyoid bone

A

lies just inferior to the mandible in the anterior neck; unique bone - only bone in the body that does not articulate directly with any other bone; anchored by the narrow stylohyoid ligaments to the styloid processes of the temporal bones; horseshoe shaped, with a body and 2 pairs of horns (cornua), this bone acts as a movable base for the tongue; body and greater horns are attachment points for neck muscles that raise and lower the larynx during swallowing and speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Vertebral column

A

spine; spinal column; consists of 26 irregular bones connected in such a way that a flexible, curved structure results; serves as the axial support of the trunk; extends from the skull to the pelvis, where it transmits the weight of the trunk to the lower limbs; surrounds and protects the delicate spinal cord and provides attachment points for the ribs and for the muscles of the back and neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Vertebrae

A

in the fetus and infant, the vertebral column consists of 33 separate bones called this; inferiorly, 9 of these eventually fuse to form 2 composite bones, the sacrum and the tiny coccyx; remaining 24 persist as individual ____ separated by intervertebral discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Cervical vertebrae

A

7 vertebrae of the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Thoracic vertebrae

A

12 bones of the thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Lumbar vertebrae

A

5 supporting bones of the lower back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Sacrum

A

inferior to the lumbar vertebrae is this bone, which articulates with the hip bones of the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Coccyx

A

terminus of the vertebral column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Cervical and lumbar curvatures

A

concave posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Thoracic and sacral curvatures

A

convex posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Anterior & posterior longitudinal ligaments

A

major supporting ligaments of the spine; run as continuous bands down the front and back surfaces of the vertebrae from the neck to the sacrum; broad one prevents hyperextension of the spine (strongly attached to both the bony vertebrae and the discs); narrow, weak one prevents hyperflexion of the spine (attaches only to the discs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Ligamentum flavum

A

connects adjacent vertebrae, contains elastic connective tissue and is especially strong; stretches as we bend forward and then recoils when we resume an erect posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Intervertebral disc

A

cushionlike pad composed of 2 parts - inner, gelantinous nucleus pulposus & the anulus fibrosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Nucleus pulposus

A

inner gelatinous part of an intervertebral disc; acts like a rubber ball, giving the disc its elasticity and compressibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Anulus fibrosus

A

surrounds the nucleus pulposus; strong collar composed of collagen fibers superficially and fibrocartilage internally; limits the expansion of the nucleus pulposus when the spine is compressed; also binds successive vertebrae together, withstands twisting forces, and resists tension in the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Herniated (prolapsed) disc

A

“slipped disc”; usually involves rupture of the anulus fibrosus followed by protusion of the spongy nucleus pulposus through the anulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Body (centrum)

A

anterior part of a vertebra; weight-bearing region

112
Q

Vertebral arch

A

posterior part of a vertebra

113
Q

Vertebral foramen

A

together, the body and vertebral arch enclose this opening

114
Q

Vertebral canal

A

successive vertebral foramina of the articulated vertebrae form this canal through which the spinal cord passes

115
Q

Pedicles

A

short, bony pillars projecting posteriorly from the vertebral body; form the sides of the vertebral arch

116
Q

Laminae

A

flattened plates that fuse in the median plane & complete the vertebral arch posteriorly

117
Q

Intervertebral foramina

A

the pedicles have notches on their superior and inferior borders, providing these lateral openings between adjacent vertebrae; spinal nerves issuing from the spinal cord pass through these foramina

118
Q

Spinous process

A

1 of 7 processes that project from the vertebral arch; a median posterior projection arising at the junction of the 2 laminae

119
Q

Transverse process

A

2 of 7 processes that project from the vertebral arch; extends laterally from each side of the vetebral arch

120
Q

Superior & Inferior articular processes

A

4 of 7 processes that project from the vertebral arch; paired processes that protrude superiorly and inferiorly from the pedicle-lamina junctions; smooth joint surfaces of these processes = facets, which are covered in hyaline cartilage

121
Q

Transverse foramen

A

each transverse process contains this opening through which the vertebral arteries pass to service the brain

122
Q

Vertebra prominens

A

because its spinous process is palpable through the skin, C7 can be used as a landmark for counting the vertebrae and is called this

123
Q

Atlas

A

C1; has no body and no spinous process; essentially a ring of bone consisting of anterior and posterior arches and a lateral mass on each side; each lateral mass has articular facets on both its superior and inferior surfaces; superior articular facets receive the occipital condyles of the skull and thus carry it; joint that allows you to nod “yes”

124
Q

Axis

A

C2; has a body and other typical vertebral processes, but not as specialized as the atlas; only unusual feature is the knoblike dens

125
Q

Dens

A

knoblike feature of the axis, projecting superiorly from its body; actually the “missing” part of the atlas, which fuses with the axis during embryonic development; acts as a pivot for the rotation of the atlas; joint that allows you to indicate “no”

126
Q

Superior articular processes of the sacrum

A

articulates superiorly with L5 and inferiorly with the coccyx

127
Q

Auricular surfaces

A

laterally, the sacrum articulates via these surfaces with the 2 hip bones

128
Q

Sacroiliac joints

A

laterally, the sacrum articulates via its auricular surfaces with the 2 hip bones to form these joints of the pelvis

129
Q

Sacral promontory

A

“high point of the sea”; anterosuperior margin of the 1st sacral vertebra, bulges anteriorly into the pelvic cavity; body’s center of gravity lies about 1cm posterior to this landmark

130
Q

Transverse ridges

A

4 ridges cross the anterior aspect of the sacrum, marking the lines of fusion of the sacral vertebrae

131
Q

Anterior sacral foramina

A

lie at the lateral ends of the transverse ridges and transmit blood vessels and anterior rami of the sacral spinal nerves

132
Q

Alae

A

regions lateral to the anterior sacral foramina expand superiorly as these winglike parts

133
Q

Median sacral crest

A

in its posterior midline, the sacral surface is roughened by these fused spinous processes of the sacral vertebrae

134
Q

Posterior sacral foramina

A

median sacral crest is flanked laterally by these openings, which transmit the posterior rami of the sacral nerves and then the lateral sacral crests

135
Q

Lateral sacral crests

A

remnants of the transverse processes of S1-S5

136
Q

Sacral canal

A

the vertebral canal continues inside the sacrum as this

137
Q

Sacral hiatus

A

enlarged external opening at the inferior end of the sacral canal due to the lamnae of the 5th and sometimes 4th sacral vertebrae failing to fuse medially

138
Q

Thoracic cage

A

AKA bony thorax; thorax = chest; its bony underpinnings are called this

139
Q

Sternum

A

breastbone; lies in the anterior midline of the thorax; vaguely resembles a dagger; flat bone approximately 6 inches long (15cm), resulting from the fusion of 3 bones - manubrium, body, & xiphoid process

140
Q

Clavicular notches

A

manubrium articulates via these with the clavicle bones laterally (as wells as the 1st 2 pairs of ribs)

141
Q

Jugular (suprasternal) notch

A

easily palpated, central indentation in the superior border of the manubrium

142
Q

Sternal angle

A

felt as a horizontal ridge across the front of the sternum, where the manubrium joins the sternal body; this cartilaginous joint acts like a hinge, allowing the sternal body to swing anteriorly when we inhale; handy reference point for finding the 2nd rib & thus for counting the ribs during a physical exam and for listening to sounds made by specific heart valves

143
Q

Xiphisternal joint

A

point where the sternal body and xiphoid process fuse; lies at the level of the 9th thoracic vertebra

144
Q

Ribs

A

12 pairs of these form the flaring sides of the thoracic cage; all of these attach posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae (bodies and transverse processes) & curve inferiorly toward the anterior body surface

145
Q

True (vertebrosternal) ribs

A

superior 7 rib pairs, attach directly to the sternum by individual costal cartilages (bars of hyaline cartilage)

146
Q

False ribs

A

remaining 5 pairs of ribs; either attach indirectly to the sternum or lack a sternal attachment

147
Q

Vertebrochondral ribs

A

rib pairs 8-10, which attach to the sternum indirectly, each joining the costal cartilage immediately above it

148
Q

Costal margin

A

inferior margin of the rib cage, formed by the costal cartilages of ribs 7-10

149
Q

Vertebral (floating) ribs

A

rib pairs 11 & 12; have no anterior attachments; their costal cartilages lie embedded in the muscles of the lateral body wall

150
Q

Appendicular skeleton

A

bones of the limbs and their girdles; appended to the axial skeleton that forms the longitudinal axis of the body

151
Q

Pectoral (shoulder) girdle

A

consists of the clavicle anteriorly and the scapula posteriorly; paired ones of these and their associated muscles form your shoulders; attach the upper limbs to the axial skeleton and provide attachment points for many of the muscles that move the upper limbs

152
Q

Clavicles

A

“little keys”; collarbones; slender, S-shaped bones that can be felt along their entire course as they extend horizontally across the superior thorax

153
Q

Sternal end

A

each clavicle is cone shaped at its medial ___ ___, which attaches to the sternal manubrium

154
Q

Acromial end

A

each clavicle is flattened at its lateral end, called this; articulates with the scapula

155
Q

Scapulae

A

shoulder blades; thin, triangular flat bones; name is derived from a word meaning “spade” or “shovel”, for ancient cultures made spades from the shoulder blades of animals

156
Q

Glenoid cavity

A

the thick lateral (axillary) border of the scapula abuts the armpit and ends superiorly in this small, shallow fossa; articulates with the humerus, forming the shoulder joint

157
Q

Spine (of the scapula)

A

posterior surface of the scapula bears a prominent ____ that is easily felt through the skin; ends laterally in an enlarged, roughened triangular projection (acromion)

158
Q

Acromion

A

spine of the scapula ends laterally in this enlarged, roughened, triangular projection; articulates with the acromial end of the clavicle, forming the acromioclavicular joint

159
Q

Acromioclavicular joint

A

acromion of the scapula articulates with the acromial end of the clavicle, forming this joint

160
Q

Coracoid process

A

projects anteriorly from the superior scapular border; looks like a bent finger or beak; helps anchor the biceps muscles of the arm

161
Q

Suprascapular notch

A

coracoid process is bounded by this nerve passage medially

162
Q

Humerus

A

sole bone of the arm; typical long bone; largest, longest bone of the upper limb; articulates with the scapula at the shoulder and with the radius and ulna (forearm bones) at the elbow

163
Q

Head (humerus)

A

at the proximal end of the humerus is its smooth, hemispherical ___, which fits into the glenoid cavity of the scapula in a manner that allows the arm to hang freely at one’s side

164
Q

Anatomical neck

A

immediately inferior to the head of the humerus is this slight constriction

165
Q

Greater tubercle

A

inferior to the anatomical neck of the humerus; 1 of 2 sites of attachment of the rotator cuff muscles

166
Q

Lesser tubercle

A

inferior to the anatomical neck of the humerus, more medial than the greater tubercle; 1 of 2 sites of attachment of the rotator cuff muscles

167
Q

Intertubercular sulcus

A

AKA bicipital groove; separates the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus

168
Q

Surgical neck

A

just distal to the tubercles of the humerus; named because it is the most frequently fractured part of the humerus

169
Q

Deltoid tuberosity

A

about midway down the shaft on its lateral side is this V-shaped, roughened attachment site for the deltoid muscle of the shoulder

170
Q

Radial groove

A

runs obliquely down the posterior aspect of the shaft of the humerus, marking the course of the radial nerve, and important nerve of the upper limb

171
Q

Trochlea

A

1 of 2 condyles at the distal end of the humerus, which looks like an hourglass tipped on its side; articulates with the ulna

172
Q

Capitulum

A

1 of 2 condyles at the distal end of the humerus; lateral, ball-like; articulates with the radius

173
Q

Medial & Lateral Epicondyles

A

trochlea and capitulum are flanked by these muscle attachment sites

174
Q

Medial & Lateral Supracondylar ridges

A

directly above the medial/lateral epicondyles; ulnar nerve (runs behind the medial epicondyle) is responsible for the tingling in your “funny bone”

175
Q

Coronoid fossa

A

superior to the trochlea on the anterior surface; with the olecranon fossa, allow the ulna to move freely when the elbow is flexed and extended

176
Q

Olecranon fossa

A

posterior surface of the trochlea; with the coronoid fossa, allow the ulna to move freely when the elbow is flexed and extended

177
Q

Radial fossa

A

small, lateral to the coronoid fossa; receives the head of the radius when the elbow is flexed

178
Q

Radioulnar joints

A

the radius and ulna articulate with each other both proximally and distally at these small joints

179
Q

Interosseous membrane

A

radius and ulna are connected along their entire length by this flat, flexible ligament

180
Q

Ulna

A

“elbow”; slightly longer than the radius; main responsibility = forming the elbow joint with the humerus

181
Q

Olecranon & coronoid processes

A

2 prominent processes of the ulna that grip the trochlea of the humerus, forming a hinge joint that allows the forearm to be bent upon the arm (flexed), then straightened again (extended)

182
Q

Trochlear notch

A

separates the olecarnon and coronoid processes of the ulna

183
Q

Radial notch

A

on the lateral side of the coronoid process is this small depression, where the ulna articulates with the head of the radius

184
Q

Head (ulna)

A

distally, the ulnar shaft narrows and ends in this knoblike part

185
Q

Ulnar styloid process

A

medial to the head of the ulna, from which a ligament runs to the wrist

186
Q

Radius

A

“rod”; bone that is thin at its proximal end and wide distally (opposite of ulna)

187
Q

Head (radius)

A

shaped somewhat like the head of a nail; superior surface is concave; articulates with the capitulum of the humerus; medially, this part articulates with the radial notch of the ulna

188
Q

Radial tuberosity

A

just inferior to the head of the radius; anchors the biceps muscle of the arm

189
Q

Ulnar notch

A

distally, where the radius is expanded, it has a medial ___ ____, which articulates with the ulna

190
Q

Radial styloid process

A

anchoring site for ligaments that run to the wrist

191
Q

Carpals

A

8, marble-size short bones, closely united by ligaments; gliding movements occur between these bones - makes carpus as a whole quite flexible

192
Q

Scaphoid

A

“boat-shaped” carpal in the proximal row (lateral to medial)

193
Q

Lunate

A

“moon-like” carpal in the proximal row (lateral to medial)

194
Q

Triquetrum

A

“triangular” carpal in the proximal row (lateral to medial)

195
Q

Pisoform

A

“pea-shaped” carpal in the proximal row (lateral to medial); does not participate in forming the wrist joint

196
Q

Trapezium

A

“little table” carpal in the distal row (lateral to medial)

197
Q

Trapezoid

A

“four-sided” carpal in the distal row (lateral to medial)

198
Q

Capitate

A

“head-shaped” carpal in the distal row (lateral to medial)

199
Q

Hamate

A

“hooked” carpal in the distal row (lateral to medial)

200
Q

Metacarpals

A

5 of these bones radiate from the wrist like spokes to form the metacarpus (palm of the hand)

201
Q

Bases (of the metacarpals)

A

articulate with the carpals proximally and with each other medially and laterally

202
Q

Heads (of the metacarpals)

A

bulbous tops of the metacarpals that articulate with the proximal phalanges of the fingers; when you clench your fist, these = knuckles

203
Q

Fingers (digits)

A

numbered 1-5 beginning with the thumb

204
Q

Pollex

A

thumb

205
Q

Phalanges (of the hand)

A

finger bones; each hand contains 14 miniature long bones called this; 3 in each finger (distal, middle, and proximal) except the thumb, which has 2 (distal & proximal)

206
Q

Pelvic (hip) girdle

A

attaches the lower limbs to the axial skeleton; transmits the full weight of the upper body to the lower limbs; supports the visceral organs of the pelvis; secured to the axial skeleton by some of the strongest ligaments in the body

207
Q

Os coxae

A

hip bones; AKA coxal bone (hip); each hip bone unites with its partner anteriorly and with the sacrum posteriorly

208
Q

Acetabulum

A

at the point of fusion of the ilium, ischium, and pubis is this deep hemispherical socket

209
Q

Ilium

A

“flank”; a large flaring bone that forms the superior region of a coxal bone; consists of a body and a superior winglike portion called the ala

210
Q

Ala

A

superior winglike portion of the ilium

211
Q

Iliac crests

A

when you rest your hands on your hips, you are resting them on these thickened superior margins of the alae, to which many muscles attach

212
Q

Anterior superior iliac spine

A

each iliac crest ends anteriorly in this blunt part

213
Q

Posterior superior iliac spine

A

each iliac crest ends posteriorly in this sharp part

214
Q

Greater sciatic notch

A

just inferior to the posterior inferior iliac spine, the ilium indents deeply to form this notch, through which the thick cordlike sciatic nerve passes to enter the thigh

215
Q

Gluteal surface

A

the broad, posterolateral surface of the ilium; crossed by 3 ridges

216
Q

Posterior, anterior, and inferior gluteal lines

A

3 ridges on the ilium to which the gluteal muscles attach

217
Q

Iliac fossa

A

the medial surface of the iliac ala exhibits this concavity

218
Q

Auricular surface

A

posterior to the iliac fossa, this roughened, ear-shaped surface articulates with the same-named surface of the sacrum, forming the sacroiliac joint; weight of the body is transmitted from the spine to the pelvis through the sacroiliac joints

219
Q

Arcuate line

A

running inferiorly and anteriorly from the auricular surface is this robust ridge; helps define the pelvic brim, the superior margin of the true pelvis

220
Q

Ischium

A

forms the posteroinferior part of the hip bone; roughly L- or arc-shaped, it has a thicker, superior body adjoining the ilium, and a thinner, inferior ramus

221
Q

Ischial spine

A

part of the ischium projecting medially into the pelvic cavity; serves as a point of attachment of the sacrospinous ligament running from the sacrum

222
Q

Lesser sciatic notch

A

just inferior to the ischial spine; a number of nerves and blood vessels pass through this notch to supply the anogenital area

223
Q

Ischial tuberosity

A

the inferior surface of the ischial body is rough and grossly thickened as this tuberosity; when we site, our weight is borne entirely by these, which are the strongest parts of the hip bones

224
Q

Pubis

A

AKA pubic bone; forms the anterior portion of the hip bone; V-shaped with superior and inferior pubic rami issuing from its flattened medial body

225
Q

Pubic crest

A

the anterior border of the pubis is thickened to form this crest

226
Q

Pubic tubercle

A

at the lateral end of the pubic crest is this tubercle, one of the attachments for the inguinal ligament

227
Q

Obturator foramen

A

as the 2 rami of the pubis run laterally to join with the body and ramus of the ischium, they define this large opening in the hip bone, in which a few blood vessels and nerves pass

228
Q

Pubic symphysis

A

the bodies of the 2 pubic bones are joined by this fibrocartilage disc, forming the midline joint

229
Q

Pubic arch

A

AKA subpubic angle; inferior to the pubic symphysis, the inferior pubic rami angle laterally, forming this inverted, V-shaped arch/angle; the acuteness of this angle helps differentiate the male and female pelves

230
Q

Pelvis

A

the deep, basinlike structure formed by the hip bones, sacrum, and coccyx; AKA bony pelvis

231
Q

Pelvic brim

A

separates the false (greater) pelvis and the true (lesser) pelvis; a continuous oval ridge that runs from the pubic crest through the arcuate line and sacral promontory

232
Q

False pelvis

A

portion of the pelvis superior to the pelvic brim; bounded by the alae of the ilia laterally and the lumbar vertebrae posteriorly; really = part of the abdomen and helps support the abdominal viscera; does not restrict childbirth in any way

233
Q

True pelvis

A

region inferior to the pelvic brim that is almost entirely surrounded by bone; forms a deep bowl containing the pelvic organs; dimensions (particularly those of its inlet and outlet) are critical to the uncomplicated delivery of a baby and are carefully measured by an OB

234
Q

Pelvic inlet

A

AKA pelvic brim; widest dimension is from right to left along the frontal plane

235
Q

Pelvic outlet

A

inferior margin of the true pelvis; bounded anteriorly by the pubic arch, laterally by the ischia, and posteriorly by the sacrum and coccyx

236
Q

Femur

A

single bone of the thigh; largest, longest, strongest bone in the body; clothed in bulky muscles, prevents palpation

237
Q

Head (femur)

A

ball-like top of the femur; has a small central pit (fovea capitis)

238
Q

Fovea capitis

A

small central pit in the head of the femur

239
Q

Greater & lesser trochanters

A

at the junction of the shaft and neck of the femur are these lateral trochanters; attachment sites for thigh and buttock muscles

240
Q

Intertrochanteric line

A

connects the 2 trochanters of the femur anteriorly

241
Q

Intertrochanteric crest

A

connects the 2 trochanters of the femur posteriorly (prominent)

242
Q

Gluteal tuberosity

A

inferior to the intertrochanteric crest on the posterior shaft of the femur; blends into a long vertical ridge (linea aspera)

243
Q

Linea aspera

A

long vertical ridge on the femur

244
Q

Medial & lateral supracondylar lines

A

distally, the linear aspera diverges, forming these lines; sites of muscle attachment

245
Q

Lateral & medial condyles (femur)

A

articulate with the tibia

246
Q

Medial & lateral epicondyles (femur)

A

sites of muscle attachment which flank the condyles superiorly

247
Q

Adductor tubercle

A

on the superior part of the medial epicondyle is this bump

248
Q

Patellar surface

A

smooth surface between the condyles on the anterior femoral surface; articulates with the patella

249
Q

Intercondylar fossa

A

between the condyles on the posterior aspect of the femur is this deep, U-shaped fossa

250
Q

Patella

A

“small pan”; triangular sesamoid bone enclosed in the quadriceps tendon that secures the anterior thigh muscles to the tibia; protects the knee joint anteriorly and improves the leverage of thigh muscles acting across the knee

251
Q

Tibia

A

shinbone; receives the weight of the body from the femur; transmits it to the foot; second only to the femur in size and strength

252
Q

Medial & lateral condyles (tibia)

A

at the broad proximal end of the tibia are these concave condyles, which look like 2 huge checkers lying side by side

253
Q

Intercondylar eminence

A

irregular projections that separates the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia

254
Q

Tibial tuberosity

A

just inferior to the condyles, the tibia’s anterior surface displays this rough tuberosity, to which the patellar ligament attaches

255
Q

Anterior border (of the tibia)

A

sharp border of the tibia; not covered by muscles; can be felt just deep to the skin along their entire length

256
Q

Medial malleolus

A

“little hammer”; forms the medial bulge of the ankle

257
Q

Fibular notch

A

on the lateral surface of the tibia; participates in the inferior tibiofibular joint

258
Q

Fibula

A

“pin”; sticklike bone with slightly expanded ends; articulates proximally and distally with the lateral aspects of the tibia

259
Q

Head (fibula)

A

proximal end of the fibula

260
Q

Lateral malleolus

A

distal end of the fibula; forms the conspicuous lateral ankle bulge and articulates with the talus

261
Q

Tarsus

A

made up of 7 bones called tarsals that form the posterior half of the foot; corresponds to the carpus of the hand; body weight is carried primarily by the 2 largest, most posterior of these

262
Q

Talus

A

1 of the largest, most posterior tarsals; “ankle”; articulates with the tibia and fibula superiorly and the strong calcaneus

263
Q

Calcaneus

A

“heel bone”; carries the talus on its superior surface; Achilles (calcaneal) tendon of the calf muscles attaches to the posterior surface of this

264
Q

Calcaneal tuberosity

A

part of the calcaneus that touches the ground

265
Q

Sustentaculum tali

A

the shelflike projection of the calcaneus that supports part of the talus; AKA talar shelf

266
Q

Cuboid

A

lateral tarsal bone

267
Q

Navicular

A

medial tarsal bone

268
Q

Medial, intermediate, and lateral cuneiform bones

A

anterior tarsal bones

269
Q

Metatarsus

A

consists of 4 small, long bones called metatarsals; numbered I-V beginning on the medial (great toe) side of the foot

270
Q

Hallux

A

great toe; has only 2 phalanges (proximal and distal)

271
Q

Medial longitudinal arch

A

arch of the foot that curves well above the ground, leaves no print; talus is the keystone of this arch (originates at the calcaneus, rises toward the talus, and then descends to the 3 medial metatarsals)

272
Q

Lateral longitudinal arch

A

very low arch of the foot; elevates the lateral part of the foot just enough to redistribute some of the weight to the calcaneus and the head of the 5th metatarsal (to the ends of the arch); cuboid is the keystone bone of this arch

273
Q

Transverse arch

A

2 longitudinal arches serve as pillars for this arch, which runs obliquely from one side of the foot to the other, following the lines of the joints between the tarsals and metatarsals

274
Q

Fontanelles

A

unossified remants of fibrous membranes that make up the skull bones at birth; allow the infant’s head to be compressed slightly during birth and accommodate brain growth in the fetus and infant; “little fountain” in which a baby’s pulse can be felt; AKA soft spots

275
Q

Primary curvatures

A

thoracic and sacral curvatures; convex posteriorly; well-developed at birth

276
Q

Secondary curvatures

A

cervical and lumbar; convex anteriorly; associated with a child’s development