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0

When discussing the different zones that will be found at hazardous materials incidents, a study group made the following statements. Which one needs to be corrected?

A) All personnel entering the exclusion zone must wear appropriate personal protection.

B) All decontamination activities occur in the Contamination Reduction Zone.

C) People, equipment and apparatus leaving the Exclusion Zone must be decontaminated before leaving the scene.

D) The contamination control line is the boundary between the Contamination Reduction Zone and the Exclusion Zone.

D) The contamination control line is the boundary between the Contamination Reduction Zone and the Exclusion Zone. (Incorrect)

(ERP 4.3.4)

*Contamination control line = boundary between the Contamination Reduction Zone and the SUPPORT ZONE.

1

E-275 and L-133 respond to an observed biological release in South Jamaica. In an effort to ensure initial scene safety these companies performed several actions. Which action performed needs to be corrected?

A) Establish an initial exclusion zone at least 300' in all directions from the source or point of release.

B) If release is indoors, evacuate the immediate area and seal off the area by closing doors/windows and using plastic to cover openings.

C) Avoid entry to the site for a minimum time of 15 minutes to allow the biological agent to settle to reduce exposure of inhalation hazard.

D) A biological agent released at dawn, dusk, or during the night will have a greater impact.

C) Avoid entry to the site for a minimum time of 15 minutes to allow the biological agent to settle to reduce exposure of the inhalation hazard. (Incorrect)

(ERP ADD 1, section 5.2.2)

*Avoid entry to site for a minimum of 30 MINUTES TO 1 HOUR

*Other important times:

Secondary devices = 20 min
Radiation fallout = 15 min

2

E-303 arrived 1st due at a reported chemical attack in the subway and performed the following actions. In regard to the actions taken by E-303, which did not correctly follow FDNY procedure?

A) Inform 1st arriving ladder and IC if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the gross decon area.

B) When staging apparatus, positioned near the location of the access/egress points of first arriving ladder company performing assessment.

C) Provide emergency gross decon for ambulatory victims in accordance with decon procedures.

D) Provide estimate of number of victims to the IC.

A) Inform 1st arriving ladder and IC if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the gross decon area. (Incorrect)

(ERP ADD 2 7.1)

*Inform 2nd ARRIVING LADDER COMPANY AND IC.

3

ERP Haz-Mat outlines general responsibilities for response to a Haz-Mat incident. The 1st arriving Ladder company is responsible for hazard assessment. The 2nd arriving Ladder company is responsible for site access control. ERP further breaks down specific responsibilities for these companies. All of the responsibilities are correctly listed except which?

A) 2nd arriving ladder team 1: Information Resources

B) 2nd arriving ladder team 2: Initial Exclusion Zone

C) 1st arriving ladder team 1: Apparatus Placement

D) 1st arriving ladder team 2: Information Resources

C) 1st arriving ladder team 1: Apparatus Placement (Incorrect)

(ERP 12.1.5)

*1st arriving ladder team 1: HAZARD IDENTIFICATION
*LCC: Apparatus Placement

4

Which statement about the handling of improvised devices is correctly stated?

A) It is easy to discern the difference between improvised explosive devices and improvised incendiary devices.

B) Members shall only move an IED when lives are believed to be in imminent danger.

C) Members shall not handle any type of device thought to be explosive or incendiary.

D) Members may move only an improvised incendiary device using a long handled shovel and when absolutely necessary.

C) Members shall not handle any type of device thought to be explosive or incendiary.

(ERP ADD 3, 4.1)

A - There is no reliable method to determine the difference between an IED and a IID.

B - Members shall not handle any type of device thought to be explosive or incendiary.

D - This is how a former bulletin read (be aware of recent changes)

5

While using the RadAlert 50 at a breached package on the side of the highway, your meter begins to alarm. You would know which of the following actions to be correct to take?

A) The hotline was established at a rate of 1mR/hr and marked with red "hazardous materials" barrier tape.

B) Hotline was established at rate of 1mR/hr and marked with yellow "hazardous materials" barrier tape.

C) Hotline established at rate of 2mR/hr and marked with yellow "hazardous materials" barrier tape.

D) Hotline was established at 2mR/hr and marked with red "hazardous materials" barrier tape.

D) Hotline was established at 2mR/hr and marked with red "hazardous materials" barrier tape.

(ERP 4A RadAlert 50 section 2.6)

6

You are working in E-287 on the day of the NY Mets victory parade and are ordered to set up an emergency mass decon along with E-289 and L-136, an aerial ladder. You would know that improper procedure is shown in which choice?

A) You directed the positioning of the 2 pumpers parallel to each other approximately 25' apart with control panels facing the outside.

B) You directed the placement of a turbo master fog nozzle on each pumper on the selected inside discharge gate.

C) You ensured that the operating pressure was monitored to ensure the stream was operated at the recommended operating pressure of 50-80 psi.

D) The Aerial Ladder with a ladder pipe and aqua stream fog nozzle was positioned at the edge of the water spray formed from the pumpers.

B) You directed the placement of a turbomaster fog nozzle on each pumper on the selected inside discharge gate. (Incorrect)

*Turbomaster is for use on Tower Ladders. AQUASTREAM FOG NOZZLES on pumpers.

(Haz-Mat 7 Decontamination Procedures 2.4.4 B)

7

What type of radiation is the Ultraradiac capable to detect?

A) Gamma and X-ray

B) Alpha and Beta

C) Beta and Gamma

D) Neutron and X-ray

A) Gamma and X-ray.

(ERP ADD 4D section 1.2)

*The UltraRadiac has the capability to detect Gamma and X-ray radiation. To detect and measure other types of radiation (Alpha, Beta, Neutron) additional instrumentation is required.

8

While working a day tour in L-116 you respond to a factory for a drum leaking liquid. You arrive and determine this to be a Haz-Mat incident with an immediate danger of explosion. Which of the following actions taken next is correct?

A) Since there is an immediate danger of explosion you ordered an evacuation of the surrounding area.

B) Since the potential for discharge is great, you ordered the surrounding area to shelter in place.

C) When it was determined that the chemical has a low to moderate toxicity you ordered an evacuation of the surrounding area.

D) Since it was determined that the release can be rapidly controlled at the source you ordered an evacuation of the surrounding area.

A) Since there is an immediate danger of explosion you ordered an evacuation of the surrounding area.

(ERP section 10.5.2)

*Evacuation is best considered when there is an immediate danger of fire or explosion.

B - Evacuation

C+D - Shelter in Place

9

While participating in a decon drill at Yankee Stadium, members of L-14 were directed to establish the Contamination Reduction Zone. What color barrier tape should L-14 use for perimeter identification of this zone?

A) Red

B) Yellow

C) Green

D) Blue

B) Yellow

(ERP section 3.3.5)

*Yellow barrier tape should be used for per tier identification of the contamination reduction zone.

10

Members drilling on the UltraRadiac radiological monitoring instrument would know that the low rate alarm for this instrument is set at?

A) 2mR/hr

B) 5R

C) 50mR/hr

D) 12r

A) 2mR/hr

(ERP ADD 4D section 7)

2mR/hr - low rate

5R - low dose

50R/hr - high rate

12R - high dose

11

Which statement about an improvised explosive device is correct?

A) The effectiveness of the device will not be limited by the attackers ability to obtain large quantities of the necessary ingredients.

B) An IED can be as lethal as conventional military explosives.

C) The greatest harm caused by an IED would be chemical, biological or radiological material.

D) IED's are always made of homemade explosives.

B) An IED can be as lethal as conventional military explosives.

(ERP ADD 3 2.2)

A - May be limited

C - The greatest harm is the explosive itself

D - IED's come from many sources

12

Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding the UltraRadiac radiological monitoring instrument?

A) Fire officers will be required to wear and have their designated UltraRadiacs turned on whenever they are out of quarters for emergencies and non emergency operations.

B) Officers shall ensure that their designated UltraRadiacs are turned off when in quarters.

C) Officers shall ensure that their designated UltraRadiacs are tested and the accumulated doses are cleared at the start of each tour.

D) Officer's UltraRadiacs can be secured to the bunker coat by the UltraRadiac case.

D) Officer's UltraRadiacs can be secured to the bunker coat by the UltraRadiac case. (Incorrect)

(ERP ADD 4 11.2)

*An UltraRadiac designated for use by an Officer shall be continuously secured to the Officer's handie-talkie case by use of the UltraRadiac retention strap.

*One designated to a firefighter can be secured to either handie-talkie case or bunker coat.

13

At what level does the RadAlert 50 radiological monitor begin to alarm?

A) 1.000 mR/hr

B) 2.000 mR/hr

C) 5.000 mR/hr

D) 50.000 mR/hr

A) 1.000 mR/hr

(ERP ADD 4 RadAlert 50 section 2.6)

*1.000mR/hr is also our action level.

*2mR/hr is our Hotline (this defined our hot zone and it's marked with red tape)

*Know the operational difference between 1mR/hr and 2mR/hr.

14

All uniformed members of the FDNY receive entry level hazardous materials training in their respective academies and refresher courses. This training provides every member wit he knowledge and clues to recognize signs of a hazardous materials incident. Firefighters are trained to which level at a minimum?

A) Awareness level

B) Operations level

C) Technician level 1

D) Technician level 2

B) Operations level

(ERP 3.2)

Awareness level = EMS
Operations level = Firefighters
Technician level 1 = SOC Support Trucks
Technician level 2 = Squad / Rescue / Hazmat Tech
Specialist = HazMat

15

Members of E-100 and L-99 were drilling on the topic of control zones at hazardous materials incidents. Which point made at the drill concerning the hot (exclusion) zone is incorrect?

A) The hotline may be readjusted based on additional observation and/or measurements. Yellow barrier tape should be used to identify the exclusion zone.

B) The exclusion zone or hot zone is the innermost area of the scene and is considered contaminated or hot.

C) The hotline, the boundary of the exclusion zone, should be established initially based on the type of released. Arterial and the initial instrument readings.

D) People, equipment, and apparatus leaving the exclusion zone should be considered contaminated and must be decontaminated before leaving the scene.

A) The hotline may be readjusted based on additional observation and/or measurements. Yellow barrier tape should be used to identify the exclusion zone. (Incorrect)

(ERP 4.2)

*RED BARRIER TAPE identifies the exclusion zone.

16

Members were drilling on Support and Contamimation Reduction Zones. Which is the only correct statement made concerning the cold and warm zones?

A) The Support zone is the outermost area of the site and is considered to be uncontaminated. This zone is not designated a controlled area however no contaminated persons, equipment, or apparatus are permitted in the cold zone.

B) All decontamination activities occur in the contamination reduction zone. Red or orange barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the contamination reduction zone.

C) The contamination reduction zone is an area provided to prevent or reduce the transfer of contaminants that may have been picked up by personnel and equipment exiting the exclusion zone.

D) Moving further away from the exclusion zone does not allow for personnel to operate in a decreased level of personal protective equipment.

C) The contamination reduction zone is an area provided to prevent or reduce the transfer of contaminants that may have been picked up by personnel and equipment exiting the exclusion zone.

(ERP 4.3)

A - Support zone is considered a CONTROLLED ZONE.

B - Contamination reduction zone = YELLOW barrier tape

D - Moving away from exclusion zone MAY ALLOW personnel to operate in a decreased level of PPE.

17

Decontamination is the process of reducing levels of toxic or otherwise harmful substances from personnel, equipment and apparatus. This process is one of the most important steps in ensuring personal safety at a hazardous materials incident. Which point(s) listed below is/are incorrect?

A) Emergency decontamination may be necessary in potentially life threatening situations to remove victims as expeditiously as possible and always involves the formal establishment of a decontamination system.

B) The thoroughness and extent of decontamination operations required at an incident depends on the safety and health hazards of the contaminant(s).

C) Gross decontamination can be either emergency decontamination or non emergency decontamination. Two common methods of gross decon used in emergencies are wet and dry decontamination.

D) Technical decontamination, which may involve the use of special solution or equipment, is a more thorough decon process and takes place before gross decon.

E) Separate decon areas should be established for emergency personnel unless time and equipment do not allow for this. In such case the decon area will be shared by patients and responders with priority going to the patients.

B & C are correct

(ERP 4.3.9)

A - Emergency decon MAY OR MAY NOT involve the formal establishment of a decon system.

D - Technical decon takes place AFTER gross decon.

E - Separate decon areas should ALWAYS be established for responders.

18

Which level of chemical protective clothing would encompass the use of full face air purifying respirators and powered air purifying respirators?

A) Level A

B) Level B

C) Level C

D) Level D

E) None of the above

C) Level C

(ERP 5.6)

Level A - SCBA / Vapor tight suit

Level B - SCBA / Splash suit

Level C - Air purifying respirators

Level D - Nuisance contamination only

*Bunker gear is NOT CPC

19

Which level of CPC will provide the highest level of respiratory protection and offers vapor tight chemical clothing?

A) Level A

B) Level B

C) Level C

D) Level D

E) None of the above

A) Level A

(ERP 5.6.1)

Level A - SCBA / Vapor tight suit

Level B - SCBA / Splash suit

Level C - Air purifying respirators

Level D - Nuisance contamination only

*Bunker gear is NOT CPC

20

Which level of CPC offers thermal protection in case of fire and can be used for protection from all hazardous materials in an emergency?

A) Level A

B) Level B

C) Level C

D) Level D

E) None of the above

E) None of the above

(ERP 5.4)

*No level of special protection can protect you from every hazardous material.

21

First responders should avoid leaks, spills, and obvious sources of hazards as well as direct and indirect contact with potentially contaminated areas and victims. Full firefighting gear and SCBA shall be used as a minimum of protection against exposure. Structural firefighter protective clothing i.e. Bunker gear is classified as level D protective clothing? Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

A) Agree

B) Disagree

B) Disagree

(ERP 5.3, 5.7)

*Bunker gear does not classify as CPC

22

At all incidents where the Haz Mat Battalion responds, whether it's a small incident or a large incident the Haz Mat battalion will operate at the command post with the IC in an advisory role. Do you agree or disagree with this statement?

A) Agree

B) Disagree

B) Disagree

(ERP 8.2)

Small incidents = HM Battalion reports to IC
Larger incidents = IC will have an advisory role to HM battalion

23

A group of 5 lieutenants were discussing the different units with Haz Mat training and their functions at Haz Mat incidents. Each of the lieutenants made a statement. Which statements below are incorrect?

1. Haz Mat Company 1 members are trained to the specialist level and can identify materials, control spills, neutralize a released material, and coordinate with other city agency personnel.

2. Haz Mat Tech Units (HMTU) are trained to the Tech 1 level. These units are trained in air monitoring instruments and carry all levels of CPC clothing on their second piece.

3. Rescue companies are trained to the Tech 2 level and carry CPC and some metering devices as well as mitigation equipment. Rescue companies can be used for assessment, search and rescue.

4. SOC support ladders are trained to Tech 1 level and are trained in CPC, monitoring instruments, and decontamination procedures. SOC support ladder companies can perform mitigation activities if necessary.

5. The primary objective of CPC ladder companies is to perform rescue operations of non ambulatory victims in the contaminated area or the exclusion zone.

A) 1,3,5 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,5 D) 2,4,5

B) 2,3,4 are INCORRECT

(ERP 8.5 - 8.9)

2 - HMTU are trained to the TECH 2 level.

3 - Rescue companies LACK MITIGATION EQUIPMENT.

4 - SOC support ladders DO NOT DO MITIGATION.

24

A 10-80 no code is used for an incident that can be controlled by the on scene unit or units and requires no additional resources. All of the following are guidelines for transmitting the signal 10-80 no code except which one?

A) Release is of a small quantity

B) The material has been identified but it's hazards are unknown.

C) Firefighter PPE provides adequate protection against the hazards.

D) Special equipment and specialized training are not needed.

B) The material has been identified but it's hazards are unknown. (Incorrect)

(ERP 9.1, 9.2)

"SIPS"

Small quantity
Identified material or hazard
PPE adequate
Special equipment not needed

25

Evacuation involves moving threatened persons to a shelter in another area. Evacuation is clearly safer than sheltering in place with respect to the hazards but has certain limitations. Evacuation is best considered in all of the following situations except which one?

A) There is a possibility of fire or explosion.

B) The potential for discharge is great, it has not taken place, and there is time to relocate people.

C) The discharge has taken place but people are sufficiently protected to permit time for evacuation.

D) People not yet in the path of a release will be threatened by changing conditions.

A) There is a possibility of fire or explosion. (INCORRECT)

(ERP 10.5.2)

*Evacuation is best considered when there is an IMMEDIATE DANGER OF FIRE OR AN EXPLOSION.

26

Sheltering in place is the preferred alternative when pre planning has identified options for problem areas such as hospitals, jails, nursing homes, and public assemblies. When deciding to shelter in place the hazardous material should display which one of the following characteristics?

A) Low to high toxicity

B) Partially released and dissipating

C) A migrating vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside.

D) Small to moderate solid or liquid leak.

C) A migrating vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside.

(ERP 10.5.5)

A - Low to MODERATE toxicity

B - TOTALLY RELEASED and dissipating

D - SMALL solid or liquid leak.

27

Which general consideration of the first arriving unit is the most correct when there is a known life hazard but there are no HazMat resources on scene with CPC?

A) Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able bodied (ambulatory) persons from immediate danger. Involvement in complicated rescue situations should not be attempted.

B) An attempt to identify the material and it's hazards should become a top priority. Use CPC as a minimum to be protected from unnecessary exposure to contaminants.

C) When the probability is high that the victim is not viable, rescue or recovery should not be attempted if it will place the rescuer at unnecessary risk.

D) Given the limited capability of units arriving first at the scene of a hazardous materials incident, premature commitment of companies and personnel to unknown, potentially hazardous situations/locations should be carefully evaluated before being attempted.

C) When the probability is high that the victim is not viable, rescue or recovery should not be attempted if it will place the rescuer at unnecessary risk.

(ERP 11)

A - Involvement in complicated rescue situations SHOULD BE CAREFULLY EVALUATED.

B - Use PPE PERSONAL PROTECTIVE CLOTHING as a minimum

D - Commitment if companies to hazardous situations MUST BE carefully evaluated.

28

Lt. Kurt arrives at a subway chemical attack where 750 people need to be decontaminated as quickly as possible. Lt. Kurt should transmit a 10-80 Code ____ and should call how many mass decon task forces?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4 and special call 2 additional mass decon task forces

D) 4 and special call 3 additional mass decon task forces

D) 4 and special call 3 additional mass decon task forces

(ERP 9.5)

*For every 250 people contaminated call an ADDITIONAL MDTF

29

You are a Captain working a day tour in E-29 and going to the Rock for training. Prior to the start of the scenario you are told it involves some type of terrorism related incident. Which two statements made were incorrect?

A) If the incident involves any type of biological agent, symptoms will not be apparent for hours, days or longer.

B) If the incident involves a chemical attack the results will be immediate.

C) The FDNY does not have any devices that can detect the presence of a biological agent instantaneously.

D) The presence of biological agents cannot be confirmed without laboratory tests.

E) Victims exposed to the same biological agent will have fairly consistent signs and symptoms.

A) If the incident involves any type of biological agent, symptoms will not be apparent for hours, days or longer. (INCORRECT)

E) Victims exposed to the same biological agent will have fairly consistent signs and symptoms. (INCORRECT)

(ERP ADD 1, 2.1.1)

A - MOST TYPES of biological agents will not show symptoms for hours, days or longer. (Ricin and mycotoxins are exceptions to the delayed effects of biological agents as they WILL show immediate symptoms)

E - Biological = victims will have different signs and symptoms
when exposed to the same agent.

Chemical = victims will relatively have the same signs and
symptoms when exposed to the same agent.