Glossary Flashcards

1
Q

Polychromatophil

A

Bluish cells that correlate with aggregate reticulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Metarubricyte

A

Late normoblast, nucleated RBCs (most mature form)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Howell-Jolly body

A

Nuclear remnants seen within mature erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Doehle body

A

Blue RNA aggregate in neutrophil from accelerated granulopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Reticulocyte (and what are the two types)

A

Immature RBC in the marrow once nucleus is extruded. Can be aggregate or punctate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hypochromasia

A

Low MCHC (low haemoglobin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Anisocytosis

A

Variability in cell size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Macrocytosis

A

High MCV, very large cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Polychromasia

A

Presence of polychromatophils, lots of blue staining reticulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Spherocytes

A

an RBC with part of its membrane removed by a macrophage, spherical rather than biconcave, secondary to IMHA, no central pallor, smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Left shift

A

Presence of circulating band (immature) neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Myelophthesis

A

Bone marrow replaced by abnormal tissue leading to decreased production of blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Heinz body

A

Hb precipitate attached to red cell membrane due to oxidative damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

APTT

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

OSPT

A

One stage prothrombin time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Codocyte/target cell

A

Increased ratio of plasma membrane to haemoglobin (due to low haemoglobin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Microcytosis

A

Decreased MCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Polycythemia/Erythrocytosis

A

Increased RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Rubriblast

A

earliest erythrocyte, an early normoblast, erythroid precursor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Rubricytosis

A

nRBCs present in the circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Normoblast

A

Immature RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Poikilocytosis

A

Variation in RBC shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Erythroleukaemia

A

Proliferation of immature RBCs and WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Melaena

A

Black, GI bleed faeces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Haematochezia

A

Fresh blood in faeces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Rouleaux

A

Stacks or aggregations of RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Acanthocytes

A

RBCs with irregular rounded membrane projections associated with mechanical damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Schistocytes

A

Fragments of RBCs associated with mechanical damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Echinocyte

A

Crenated cells from excess EDTA or uraemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Eccentrocyte

A

Haemoglobin displaced to one side leaving a pale area caused by cell membrane damage from oxidative injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pancytopaenia

A

Deficiency of RBC, WBC and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Myelofibrosis

A

Replacement of bone marrow with fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Osmolality

A

Number of osmoles of a solute in each kg of a solvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Osmolarity

A

Number of osmoles per litre of solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Tenesmus

A

Recurrent urge to evacuate bowels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dyschezia

A

Unable to pass stools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ACT

A

Activated clotting time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Band neutrophil

A

Neutrophil where nucleus is not lobulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Basophilia

A

Increased basophils OR bluer cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Basophilic stippling

A

Blue speckles in RBCs as part of regenerative response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

BMBT

A

Buccal mucosal bleeding time, to assess clotting response

42
Q

D-dimer

A

Formed from cross linked fibrin (after clotting)

43
Q

Degenerative changes

A

Occur in tissue by bacterial toxins. Morphological changes within neutrophil

44
Q

Effusion

A

Fluid within a body cavity

45
Q

Extramedullary harmatopoiesis

A

RBCs produced outside bone marrow, usually spleen

46
Q

Evans syndrome

A

IMHA and IMTP in the same animal at the same time

47
Q

Exudate

A

Fluid with high numbers of cells

48
Q

Ghost cell

A

Pale erythrocyte with mostly membrane and little haemoglobin, secondary to IMHA

49
Q

Granulocytes

A

Neutrophils and eosinophils and basophils

50
Q

Granulocytic hyperplasia

A

Increased granulocytic precursors in bone marrow

51
Q

Haemarthrosis

A

Bleeding into a joint

52
Q

Haematoidin

A

Yellow rhomboid crystals - breakdown of haemoglobin in an anaerobic environment

53
Q

Haemoglobinaemia

A

Increased free haemoglobin not within an RBC

54
Q

Haemosiderin

A

Breakdown product of haemoglobin which appears blue black on cytology

55
Q

Heterophil

A

Avian and reptile neutrophil

56
Q

Histiocyte

A

Tissue macrophage/dendritic cell

57
Q

Hyperchromasia

A

High MCHC, usually artefactual

58
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophil

A

More than 5 nuclear lobes

59
Q

Leptocytes

A

Like codocytes

60
Q

Leukaemoid response

A

Markedly elevated WBCs (usually neutrophil)

61
Q

Lymphadenitis

A

Increased inflammatory cells within lymph nodes

62
Q

Lymphoid hypoplasia

A

Reduced lymphocyte production

63
Q

Lymphoglandular bodies

A

Fragments of cells within lymph nodes showing high turnover

64
Q

Macrokaryosis

A

Very large nucleus

65
Q

Macroplatelet

A

Larger than RBC

66
Q

Macronucleoli

A

Large nucleolus, over 1 RBC diameter

67
Q

Megakaryocyte

A

Platelet precursor

68
Q

Methaemoglobin

A

Oxidised haemoglobin, can’t carry oxygen

69
Q

Mott cell

A

Plasma cell containing Russell bodies (vacuoles containing Igs)

70
Q

Myeloid cells

A

Platelets, RBCs, all WBCs except lymphocytes

71
Q

Mucin clot test

A

Evaluates hyaluronic acid by adding acetic acids

72
Q

Pleocytosis

A

Increased nucleated cells in CSF

73
Q

Red cell distribution width

A

Measures anisocytosis of RBCs

74
Q

Right shift

A

Hypersegmented neutrophils

75
Q

TEG

A

Thromboelastography (to assess global haemostasis)

76
Q

Thrombocytopathia

A

Abnormal platelet function

77
Q

Thrombopoietin

A

Secreted by liver and kidney to stimulate platelet production

78
Q

Tingible body macrophage

A

Macrophage in lymph node that has phagocytosed lymphoglandular bodies and apoptotic cells

79
Q

Transudate

A

Fluid with low numbers of cells

80
Q

Toxic changes

A

Morphological neutrophil changes in peripheral blood associated with strong inflammatory response

81
Q

WBCT

A

Whole blood clotting time

82
Q

Windrowing

A

Lining up of red or white cells on smear showing presence of viscous fluid eg saliva or joint fluid

83
Q

Xanthochromic

A

Yellow colour, usually from chronic haemorrhage

84
Q

Toxic change

A

Maturational defects from accelerated granulopoiesis

85
Q

Lymphoglandular body

A

Fragments of lymphocytes

86
Q

Tingible body macrophage

A

Macrophage with ingested lymphocyte

87
Q

Why may small cell lymphoma may be hard to spot?

A

Low grade, cells normally small

88
Q

How much inflammatory evidence is there in small cell lymphoma?

A

None

89
Q

What shape are cells in small cell lymphoma?

A

“hand mirror”

90
Q

What is stage V lymphoma?

A

Circulating neoplastic cells with possible bone marrow involvement

91
Q

What do you call stage V lymphoma and why?

A

Hard to tell from leukaemia so call it “lymphoproliferative neoplasia”

92
Q

Why do you need histopath not just cytology for lymphoma?

A

Early disease has normal lymphocytes, small/mixed cells, concurrent inflammation, steroid/cytotoxic treatment before sampling

93
Q

What paraneoplastic syndrome do you see in B cell lymphoma?

A

Increased globulins

94
Q

What are two ways of determining cell type?

A

Immunohisto/cytochemistry or flow cytometry

95
Q

Which sample do you need for flow cytometry?

A

Fresh EDTA blood or aspirate from affected area

96
Q

When should you only use flow cytometry?

A

After you have a diagnosis

97
Q

Which kind of cells can have no cell markers which can confirm neoplasia?

A

Esp small cell T zone lymphoma

98
Q

What is PARR?

A

PCR for antigen receptor rearrangement

99
Q

Where can you get cells for PARR?

A

Blood, tissue, cytology etc

100
Q

What does a polyclonal output on PARR suggest?

A

Reactive

101
Q

What does a monclonal output on PARR suggest?

A

Neoplastic

102
Q

What can you not use PARR for?

A

Immunophenotyping