70.6 Officer Safety Flashcards

1
Q

The legal standard used to determine the lawfulness of a use of force is the __________ Amendment to the Constitution of the United States.

A

Fourth Amendment (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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2
Q

The Department examines all uses of force from a/an __________ standard.

A

Objective (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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3
Q

Force designed and primarily utilized so as to incapacitate a subject, allowing the officer to gain physical control while minimizing fatalities and permanent injury is known as ____________.

A

Less-Lethal Force (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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4
Q

True or False: an officer’s demeanor is considered a force option.

A

False (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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5
Q

How many use of force options are there?

A

Seven (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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6
Q

What are the two key principles that uniformed employees must be guided by in understanding and application of the use of force policy?

A

1) Sound professional judgment 2) Use of only that force reasonable for the situation (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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7
Q

Force used to take physical control of a person through use of techniques designed to prevent or restrict movement or resistance is known as ____________.

A

Control holds (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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8
Q

Use of force reports are documented on a _____________.

A

CHP 275, Use of Force Report (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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9
Q

Use of force policy shall be reviewed quarterly by all uniformed employees at the rank of ____________.

A

Sergeant and below (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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10
Q

Case law articulated in _____________ states, in part, that the use of force must be judged from the perspective of a reasonable officer on scene, rather than the 20/20 vision of hindsight.

A

Graham v. Connor (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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11
Q

Force that creates a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily injury is known as ___________.

A

Deadly force (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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12
Q

Per Penal Code Section 243(f)(4), “serious bodily injury” includes what types of injuries?

A

1) Loss of consciousness 2) Bone fracture 3) Protracted loss or impairment of function of any bodily member or organ 4) Wound requiring extensive suturing (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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13
Q

“Objectively reasonable” force may be used by officers to do what?

A

1) Defend themselves 2) Defend others 3) Effect an arrest or detention 4) Prevent escape 5) Overcome resistance (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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14
Q

Deadly force is authorized under what circumstances?

A

1) Defend self or others from imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury 2) Apprehend felony suspect (involving violent/atrocious felony) 3) Apprehend ADW suspect when great bodily injury or death has occurred (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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15
Q

True or False: an officer may use any tool, method, or weapon of opportunity that is objectively reasonable to accomplish a legitimate law enforcement purpose.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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16
Q

What is at the center of the use of force wheel diagram?

A

Subject behavior (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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17
Q

Name the seven force options.

A

1) Control holds 2) Pepper spray (OC) 3) Baton 4) ECD 5) Less-lethal shotgun 6) Personal weapons 7) Deadly force (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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18
Q

What form is used to document potential civil litigation from a use of force incident?

A

CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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19
Q

With respect to use of force, what circumstances require completion of the CHP 268?

A

Injury or complaint of injury from use of force or from handcuffs. (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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20
Q

True or False: a CHP 268 is required to be completed when high risk or felony procedures are used and the subject is later found to be an innocent party.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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21
Q

If an officer is involved or witnesses an incident of excessive force by any police officer, he or she shall immediately notify __________.

A

A CHP supervisor (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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22
Q

If an investigation of excessive force involves an allied agency, the investigation shall be coordinated with __________.

A

Appropriate CHP Division (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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23
Q

True or False: an officer is required to intervene if he or she witnesses an incident involving excessive use of force by any peace officer.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 1)

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24
Q

Uniformed employees should not place their finger on the trigger of any firearm during a tactical situation except under what circumstances?

A

1) Actually firing the firearm 2) When the firearm is pointed at an identified target and the use of deadly force is justified. (HPM 70.6, Chapter 2)

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25
Q

True or False: it is appropriate for an officer to place his/her finger on the trigger of a firearm when a known or suspected felon refuses to show his/her hands or follow instructions during felony stop procedures.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 2)

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26
Q

True or False: it is appropriate for an officer to place his/her finger on the trigger of a firearm when it is believed the use of deadly force is imminent and when conducting a building search a suspect is located but refuses to come out from concealment or follow instructions.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 2)

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27
Q

True or False: it is appropriate for an officer to place his/her finger on the trigger of a firearm when it is believed the use of deadly force is imminent and when confronted with a suspect who advances toward the officer, ignoring all orders and/or commands, and is armed with a weapon capable of causing serious injury or death.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 2)

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28
Q

True or False: it is appropriate for an officer to place his/her finger on the trigger of a firearm during a foot pursuit.

A

False (HPM 70.6, Chapter 2)

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29
Q

True or False: it is always appropriate for an officer to place his/her finger on the trigger of a firearm while conducting a building search.

A

False (HPM 70.6, Chapter 2)

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30
Q

True or False: it is appropriate for an officer to place his/her finger on the trigger of a firearm during felony arrest handcuffing techniques with a compliant subject.

A

False (HPM 70.6, Chapter 2)

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31
Q

True or False: discharge of a firearm is authorized when directed at wrong-way, high-speed, or reckless drivers or vehicles solely on the assumption that other persons may be injured or killed unless the driving act is terminated.

A

False (HPM 70.6, Chapter 2)

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32
Q

Warning shots shall not be fired except under what circumstances?

A

The same circumstances under which deadly force is authorized. (HPM 70.6, Chapter 2)

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33
Q

Firearms used by officers during the course of their employment are considered ___________ (offensive/defensive) weapons.

A

Defensive (HPM 70.6, Chapter 2)

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34
Q

True or False: the rights of an officer to shoot in self defense against an assault are the same as those of private citizens.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 2)

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35
Q

Supervisor’s approval to destroy an animal ___________ (should/shall) be obtained.

A

Should (HPM 70.6, Chapter 2)

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36
Q

True or False: when attempting to destroy a rabid animal, attempts should be made to preserve the brain; therefore, the animal should not be destroyed by use of a head shot.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 2)

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37
Q

True or False: the discharge of any firearm (including accidental) while performing duties directly related to service in the US Armed Forces requires departmental notification.

A

False (HPM 70.6, Chapter 2)

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38
Q

What is the desired minimum distance between a patrol vehicle and the violator’s vehicle when on a traffic stop?

A

Ten feet (HPM 70.6, Chapter 3)

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39
Q

An officer ____________ (should/shall) turn off emergency lights that are no longer needed prior to exiting a patrol vehicle on a traffic stop.

A

Should (HPM 70.6, Chapter 3)

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40
Q

Prior to exiting the patrol vehicle while on a traffic stop, the officer __________ (should/shall) turn the steering wheel to the left to provide additional cover.

A

Should (HPM 70.6, Chapter 3)

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41
Q

What direction should an officer face while contacting the violator during a right-side approach traffic stop?

A

Facing towards the rear of the violator vehicle or directly facing the right side of the violator’s vehicle. (HPM 70.6, Chapter 3)

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42
Q

An officer ___________ (should/shall) not use the hood or top of the patrol vehicle for a writing surface.

A

Should not (HPM 70.6, Chapter 3)

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43
Q

An officer ___________ (should/shall) not stand between the patrol vehicle and violator’s vehicle.

A

Shall not (HPM 70.6, Chapter 3)

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44
Q

A patrol car’s white spot lights and high beams may be used intermittently to gain a violator’s attention. Under what circumstances may they be continuously used to illuminate a violator’s vehicle?

A

When the actions of the occupant(s) indicate a threat to officer safety. (HPM 70.6, Chapter 3)

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45
Q

In a two-officer unit, both officers __________ (should/shall) exit the patrol vehicle at the time of the initial stop/contact.

A

Shall (HPM 70.6, Chapter 3)

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46
Q

An officer shall not sit in the patrol vehicle during a traffic stop unless ______________.

A

… unusual circumstances necessitate such action for reasons of safety. (HPM 70.6, Chapter 3)

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47
Q

The location where FSTs are administered is dictated by what factors?

A

1) Location of the stop 2) Number of occupants 3) Surrounding terrain (HPM 70.6, Chapter 3)

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48
Q

The use of emergency warning lights should be limited to instances where __________ conditions exist.

A

Unusual or hazardous (HPM 70.6, Chapter 3)

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49
Q

The first _____ seconds are crucial in an officer’s contact with the violator. During this time, the officer may gain or lose support for the Department or place themselves in a life-threatening position.

A

60 seconds (HPM 70.6, Chapter 4)

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50
Q

Officers ___________ (should/shall) not apologize for taking an appropriate enforcement action.

A

Should (HPM 70.6, Chapter 4)

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51
Q

In the absence of reasonable suspicion or probable cause, the enforcement stop shall not be extended beyond the time necessary to ____________.

A

… complete the enforcement action. (HPM 70.6, Chapter 4)

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52
Q

True or False: officer shall not make statements regarding the amount of fines or dispositions of citations.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 4)

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53
Q

While on duty, officers _________ (should/shall) have their departmentally-issued ID cards in their immediate possession.

A

Shall (HPM 70.6, Chapter 4)

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54
Q

True or False: if a violator refuses to sign the CHP 215, Notice to Appear, the officer should immediately place the violator under arrest.

A

False (call another officer or supervisor first) (HPM 70.6, Chapter 4)

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55
Q

Certification for an officer’s ability to demonstrate proficiency with radio head operation occurs how often?

A

Annually (HPM 70.6, Chapter 6)

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56
Q

True or False: an estimated speed, based on the officer’s judgment, is admissible in court.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 7)

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57
Q

True or False: the best method of pacing a vehicle is to allow the violator to pull away.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 7)

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58
Q

____________ is a simple means of determining the relative change in distance at a known speed between the patrol vehicle and the violator’s vehicle.

A

Odometer pacing (HPM 70.6, Chapter 7)

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59
Q

A minimum of _______ odometer paces must be made on a violator for the check to be valid.

A

Two (HPM 70.6, Chapter 7)

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60
Q

True or False: airspeed is usually an accurate representation of ground speed.

A

False (HPM 70.6, Chapter 7)

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61
Q

During radar speed enforcement, the doppler radar devices give the officer a digital representation of violator speed accurate to within ______ mph.

A

One (HPM 70.6, Chapter 7)

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62
Q

The speed obtained using a radar is only used to verify ____________.

A

… the officer’s visual estimation (HPM 70.6, Chapter 7)

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63
Q

Officers must complete _______ hours of Academy specialized training and _______ hours of field training before they are certified to operate radar equipment for enforcement purposes.

A

24; 30 (HPM 70.6, Chapter 7)

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64
Q

Each radar device is required to be calibrated and certified by ___________.

A

… an independent laboratory (HPM 70.6, Chapter 7)

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65
Q

Officers utilizing radar for enforcement are required to calibrate and test each radar unit how often?

A

At the beginning and end of each shift (HPM 70.6, Chapter 7)

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66
Q

True or False: officers are prohibited from deploying radar/lidar from a freeway onramp.

A

False (HPM 70.6, Chapter 7)

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67
Q

All uniformed personnel __________ (should/shall) record information concerning speed enforcement traffic stops on the back of the officer’s (green) copy of the citation.

A

Shall (HPM 70.6, Chapter 7)

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68
Q

A ______________ is the stopping of a vehicle under circumstances that give the officer reasonable cause to believe that any attempt to stop the vehicle will create an extraordinary safety risk.

A

High-risk stop (HPM 70.6, Chapter 8)

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69
Q

Departmental firearms _________ (should/shall) be displayed in a low-ready position during high-risk stops.

A

Should (HPM 70.6, Chapter 8)

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70
Q

What condition are shotguns and rifles maintained in during high-risk enforcement contacts?

A

With a round chambered, safety on, finger off the trigger (HPM 70.6, Chapter 8)

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71
Q

During high-risk stops, primary and secondary units should communicate on a common frequency on what channel?

A

“S” Channel (HPM 70.6, Chapter 8)

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72
Q

The supervisor or OIC __________ (should/shall) respond to the scene of a high-risk stop.

A

Should (HPM 70.6, Chapter 8)

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73
Q

What is the primary difference between a high-risk and felony stop?

A

Officers display firearms at low-ready position on high-risk stops. (HPM 70.6, Chapter 8)

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74
Q

A ____________ is the stopping of a vehicle when the officer has advanced knowledge or reasonable cause to believe the vehicle contains a felony suspect.

A

Felony stop (HPM 70.6, Chapter 8)

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75
Q

How are departmental firearms displayed during a felony stop?

A

In ready position, pointed at the suspect, finger off the trigger. (HPM 70.6, Chapter 8)

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76
Q

During a felony stop, the patrol vehicle should be positioned approximately _______ feet behind the suspect vehicle.

A

30 feet (HPM 70.6, Chapter 8)

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77
Q

A minimum of ________ uniformed employees should be used during a felony stop.

A

Three (HPM 70.6, Chapter 8)

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78
Q

During a felony stop, the cover officer __________ (should/shall) arm him/herself with a shotgun or tactical rifle.

A

Should (HPM 70.6, Chapter 8)

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79
Q

If the subject taken into custody utilizing felony stop procedures turns out to be innocent, the incident shall be documented on a ________ form.

A

CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report (HPM 70.6, Chapter 8)

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80
Q

Name the three types of hazards a subject exhibits or displays toward an officer during an enforcement stop.

A

1) Unknown risk 2) High risk 3) Felony (HPM 70.6, Chapter 9)

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81
Q

According to HPM 70.6, Chapter 9, ___________ can best be described as observation, information, actions, threats, or general circumstances that lead the officer to believe that his/her personal safety is threatened.

A

Aggressive behavior (HPM 70.6, Chapter 9)

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82
Q

When an officer advises that he or she is making a high risk stop, the supervisor should ensure at least ________ officers respond.

A

Three (HPM 70.6, Chapter 9)

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83
Q

True or False: an officer is discouraged from pursuing multiple suspects on foot.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 9)

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84
Q

True or False: a supervisor may order an officer to terminate a foot pursuit.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 9)

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85
Q

In the event of a hostage situation, a supervisor __________ (should/shall) transfer primary responsibility to an allied agency.

A

Should (HPM 70.6, Chapter 10)

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86
Q

When a hostage situation becomes mobile, officers should follow the same techniques as outlined in the ___________ procedure.

A

Felony stop (HPM 70.6, Chapter 10)

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87
Q

Under what circumstances should deadly force be used in a hostage situation?

A

Only as a last resort and when the hostage’s safety is not further jeopardized (HPM 70.6, Chapter 10)

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88
Q

Response to a crime in progress should be done in what manner?

A

Safely, quickly, and quietly (HPM 70.6, Chapter 11)

89
Q

When a crime in progress involves physical assault or when emergency assistance is the primary concern, which response should be utilized?

A

Code 3 (HPM 70.6, Chapter 11)

90
Q

When approaching the scene of a crime in progress, officer should take what actions to keep noise to a minimum?

A

1) Reduce speed 2) Lower windows 3) Turn down the radio (HPM 70.6, Chapter 11)

91
Q

What are the three basic fundamentals of handling a crime in progress?

A

1) Communication 2) Coordination 3) Containment & control (HPM 70.6, Chapter 11)

92
Q

What is the main tactical consideration for a robbery in progress or a burglary in progress?

A

Coordination of responding units (HPM 70.6, Chapter 11)

93
Q

The third and fourth officers to arrive at a burglary in progress call should assume the responsibility of the ______________.

A

Search team (HPM 70.6, Chapter 11)

94
Q

During a building search, what two techniques are used to look for potential threats?

A

1) Slicing the pie 2) Quick peek (HPM 70.6, Chapter 11)

95
Q

During a building search, what two techniques are used to move through a doorway?

A

1) Buttonhook 2) Crisscross (HPM 70.6, Chapter 11)

96
Q

Search teams (for a building search) are made up of how many officers?

A

Two (HPM 70.6, Chapter 11)

97
Q

A building search should be conducted in what manner?

A

Systematically and slowly (HPM 70.6, Chapter 11)

98
Q

A safe and effective building search requires what four elements?

A

1) Containment 2) Safe search techniques 3) One floor at a time 4) Securement of areas already searched (HPM 70.6, Chapter 11)

99
Q

An officer’s patrol speed will depend upon _____________.

A

The normal flow of traffic (HPM 70.6, Chapter 13)

100
Q

Officers should not exceed the speed limit except under what circumstances?

A

1) Apprehension of violators 2) Handling of emergencies (HPM 70.6, Chapter 13)

101
Q

True or False: pacing from the front is permitted.

A

False (HPM 70.6, Chapter 13)

102
Q

Is an officer permitted to accelerate above the maximum speed limit to try to determine the actual speed of a vehicle approaching from the rear?

A

No (HPM 70.6, Chapter 13)

103
Q

True or False: pacing is permitted from a frontage road.

A

False (HPM 70.6, Chapter 13)

104
Q

True or False: an officer is permitted to pull abreast of the violator’s vehicle.

A

True (if having difficulty gaining the violator’s attention) (HPM 70.6, Chapter 13)

105
Q

Which side should motorcycle officers use for mounting and dismounting a motorcycle?

A

Right side (HPM 70.6, Chapter 13)

106
Q

How should motorcycle officers park behind a violator during an enforcement stop?

A

In line (rather than side-by-side) (HPM 70.6, Chapter 13)

107
Q

Officers ____________ (should not/shall not) make speedometer checks for motorists.

A

Should not (HPM 70.6, Chapter 13)

108
Q

When vehicles involved in a traffic collision are all on the roadway shoulder, where should the patrol vehicles be parked?

A

In front of the involved vehicles (HPM 70.6, Chapter 14)

109
Q

When responding to an accident scene on a freeway, red light, siren, or rear flashing amber light ____________ (should/should not) be used.

A

Should not (HPM 70.6, Chapter 14)

110
Q

All officers actively engaged in the discharge of their duties __________ (should/shall) cooperate with a bona fide member of the media.

A

Shall (HPM 70.6, Chapter 14)

111
Q

_________ is the radio code used as notification of a newsworthy event.

A

Code 20 (HPM 70.6, Chapter 14)

112
Q

What are the two types of traffic congestion?

A

Recurrent and non-recurrent (HPM 70.6, Chapter 15)

113
Q

True or False: at the scene of freeway accidents/incidents, shoulders and center dividers should be used as lanes to relieve congestion when it is possible to do so without endangering persons or property.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 15)

114
Q

True or False: vehicles over embankments need not be removed during peak traffic hours, provided they are not otherwise creating a problem.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 15)

115
Q

True or False: officers may request assistance of passing trucks in the removal of disabled vehicles, as they often carry chains and other towing devices.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 15)

116
Q

Enforcement action should only be directed at what type of violations during peak traffic periods?

A

PCF violations (HPM 70.6, Chapter 15)

117
Q

What is the number one priority when dealing with spilled loads on a highway?

A

Determining whether hazardous materials are involved. (HPM 70.6, Chapter 15)

118
Q

What information must an officer have before employing a roadblock to apprehend a felony suspect?

A

Definite knowledge that the suspect is fleeing prosecution for a violent and atrocious felony. (HPM 70.6, Chapter 16)

119
Q

True or False: roadblocks shall be avoided when attempting to apprehend misdemeanor suspects.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 16)

120
Q

True or False: roadblocks should be used in the event of a disaster to seal off an area, expedite evacuation, and aid those who are injured.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 16)

121
Q

Appropriate warning devices should be placed in the approximate center of the roadway not less than ________ feet from the unit facing the traffic to be stopped at a roadblock.

A

300 feet. (HPM 70.6, Chapter 16)

122
Q

Flares or other regulatory devices (such as cones) should be placed in positions to funnel traffic into how many lanes?

A

One (HPM 70.6, Chapter 16)

123
Q

How many perimeters are there in a roadblock?

A

Two (outer and inner) (HPM 70.6, Chapter 16)

124
Q

_____________ are parts of the body which can be used for self-defense, counter-attack, and as a method of distraction.

A

Personal weapons (HPM 70.6, Chapter 19)

125
Q

The elbow, when used as a weapon, should remain in what position?

A

Fully flexed (HPM 70.6, Chapter 19)

126
Q

True or False: the knee can be used as a personal weapon.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 19)

127
Q

____________ are areas of the body that are particularly susceptible to strikes of pressure.

A

Vulnerable areas (HPM 70.6, Chapter 19)

128
Q

Penal Code Section 835(a) allows a peace officer to use reasonable force to accomplish what outcomes?

A

1) Effect an arrest 2) Prevent escape 3) Overcome resistance (HPM 70.6, Chapter 20)

129
Q

____________ are techniques utilized to take control of a person by preventing or restricting their movement or resistance.

A

Control holds (HPM 70.6, Chapter 20)

130
Q

How many types of departmentally-approved misdemeanor control holds are there?

A

Two (HPM 70.6, Chapter 20)

131
Q

Under what circumstances shall a use of control holds be documented?

A

1) Apparent injury 2) Complaint of injury 3) Claim of injury (HPM 70.6, Chapter 20)

132
Q

Documentation of an injury from the utilization of a departmentally-approved control hold (not involving the need to overcome physical resistance) shall be accomplished utilizing what form?

A

CHP 268, Potential Civil Liability Report (HPM 70.6, Chapter 20)

133
Q

Use of a departmentally-approved control hold to overcome resistance shall be documented on what form?

A

CHP 275, Use of Force Report (HPM 70.6, Chapter 20)

134
Q

All persons arrested on a charge requiring incarceration __________ (should/shall) be handcuffed.

A

Shall (HPM 70.6, Chapter 21)

135
Q

Handcuffs __________ (should/shall) be handcuffed to the rear.

A

Should (HPM 70.6, Chapter 21)

136
Q

_____________ may be used as a misdemeanor technique option to the standing twist-lock if the subject becomes resistive during handcuffing.

A

Kneeling techniques (HPM 70.6, Chapter 21)

137
Q

How high should an officer lift the suspect’s hand off the ground during a felony prone technique?

A

4-6 inches (HPM 70.6, Chapter 21)

138
Q

Officers _________ (should/shall) carry flex-cuffs as a part of their field equipment in addition to departmentally-approved handcuffs.

A

Should (HPM 70.6, Chapter 21)

139
Q

True or False: flex-cuffs may be used around the ankles of a combative prisoner.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 21)

140
Q

True or False: when searching purses, backpacks, or waistpacks, all contents should be emptied and inspected prior to handling.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 22)

141
Q

When searching arrestees of the opposite gender, officers should use the services of a/an _____________ if one is readily available.

A

Impartial witness (HPM 70.6, Chapter 22)

142
Q

Physical body cavity searches __________ be conducted by members of the CHP.

A

Shall not (HPM 70.6, Chapter 22)

143
Q

True or False: a strip search or visual body cavity search (or both) shall not be conducted without prior written authorization from the on-duty supervisor.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 22)

144
Q

Uniformed employees conducting a strip search or visual body cavity search shall not touch what parts of the body?

A

1) Breasts 2) Buttocks 3) Genitalia (HPM 70.6, Chapter 22)

145
Q

What shall an officer do if, during a strip search or visual cavity search, an officer becomes aware that the arrestee has an object hidden in the rectal or vaginal cavities or under breast or scrotum?

A

Notify the jail and defer to their procedures for removal of the object. (HPM 70.6, Chapter 22)

146
Q

During a strip search or visual cavity search, dentures should be removed by ________.

A

The arrestee (HPM 70.6, Chapter 22)

147
Q

The ________ form shall be completed prior to any strip search and/or visual body cavity search.

A

CHP 202DS, Strip and Visual Body Cavity Search (HPM 70.6, Chapter 22)

148
Q

Prisoners __________ (should/shall) be seat-belted when transported in departmental vehicles.

A

Shall (HPM 70.6, Chapter 24)

149
Q

When a passenger or prisoner is left unattended in a departmental vehicle, the ignition key _____________ (should/shall) be removed from the ignition lock.

A

Shall (HPM 70.6, Chapter 24)

150
Q

Prior to transportation of a female passenger, the communications center shall be advised of what information?

A

1) A female is being transported 2) Reason for transportation 3) Intended destination 4) Location of departure 5) Odometer reading (HPM 70.6, Chapter 24)

151
Q

True or False: The use of the prisoner securement device (red strap) shall be used on all prisoners being transported in enforcement vehicles equipped with eye bolts.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 24)

152
Q

When practical, how many officers should be used to carry one prisoner?

A

Three (HPM 70.6, Chapter 24)

153
Q

Officers ____________ (should/shall) notify a supervisor as soon as possible when they encounter a situation requiring the use of a spit sock.

A

Shall (HPM 70.6, Chapter 24)

154
Q

What elements are essential for the effective use of the side-handle baton?

A

Surprise, distraction, speed, and balance (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

155
Q

During the course of enforcement duties, uniformed employees at the rank of ___________ shall carry the side-handle baton, collapsible baton, or ASP baton.

A

Sergeant and below (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

156
Q

A ___________ is characterized by aggressive actions, a threat accompanied by a physical aggressive act, or general circumstances threatening officer safety.

A

Overt act (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

157
Q

True or False: clenching of the fist (as if to deliver a blow) is considered an overt act and justifies use of the baton.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

158
Q

True or False: the baton may be used if there is aggressive physical resistance or furtive movement by the subject during handcuffing.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

159
Q

True or False: the baton may be used to apprehend a suspect fleeing on foot.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

160
Q

When using a baton, potentially lethal strikes shall be avoided unless the officer is subjected to _____________.

A

A life-threatening situation (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

161
Q

What are the primary lethal striking areas?

A

1) Head 2) Neck 3) Throat 4) Spine 5) Sternum 6) Groin (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

162
Q

A __________ is a forceful punch with the baton which is recovered immediately after impact.

A

Jab (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

163
Q

The baton __________ (should/shall) be carried on the opposite side of the firearm.

A

Should (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

164
Q

How many baton holding positions are there?

A

Four (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

165
Q

How many baton draws are there?

A

Five (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

166
Q

How many baton jab techniques are there?

A

Five (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

167
Q

How many baton blocking techniques are there?

A

Four (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

168
Q

How many baton retention techniques are there?

A

Three (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

169
Q

How many baton control holds are there?

A

Two (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

170
Q

The Monadnock PR-24 collapsible baton should be disassembled and inspected how often?

A

Every 30 days or after each exposure to adverse conditions (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

171
Q

All uniformed employees electing to carry the collapsible straight baton (ASP) shall receive ______ hours of initial training/certification.

A

8 hours (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

172
Q

The ASP baton strike _________ (should/shall) not be delivered in an overhead “tomahawk” or sideways manner.

A

Should (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

173
Q

The ASP baton shall be carried in a location on the duty belt that will not interfere with _________.

A

Drawing the firearm (HPM 70.6, Chapter 25)

174
Q

OC spray may incapacitate a subject for ________ minutes.

A

15 to 45 minutes (HPM 70.6, Chapter 26)

175
Q

Uniformed employees at the rank of _______ shall carry OC spray during enforcement duties.

A

Captain and below (HPM 70.6, Chapter 26)

176
Q

True or False: uniformed employees may carry OC spray while off-duty.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 26)

177
Q

Policy regarding OC spray shall be reviewed quarterly by uniformed employees at the rank of ___________.

A

Sergeant and below (HPM 70.6, Chapter 26)

178
Q

The OC spray nozzle should be aimed at the subject’s ________ in order to be most effective.

A

Face (HPM 70.6, Chapter 26)

179
Q

The total duration of the (OC) spray should be limited to ____________.

A

The amount necessary to effectively control the subject (HPM 70.6, Chapter 26)

180
Q

The OC projector should not be aimed directly at the subject’s eyes at a distance closer than _______.

A

Five feet (HPM 70.6, Chapter 26)

181
Q

OC spray shall not be used at a distance of less than ________, unless an extreme hazard exists.

A

Three feet (HPM 70.6, Chapter 26)

182
Q

OC canisters should be shaken how often?

A

Once a month (HPM 70.6, Chapter 26)

183
Q

True or False: OC spray can be used in and around open flames or sparks.

A

False (HPM 70.6, Chapter 26)

184
Q

An officer shall seek medical attention if symptoms of OC spray continue after what period of time?

A

45 minutes (HPM 70.6, Chapter 26)

185
Q

How often shall OC canisters be replaced?

A

Four years from the date of manufacture (during the employee’s annual equipment inspection) (HPM 70.6, Chapter 26)

186
Q

If use of OC spray results in an injury, complaint of injury, or claim of injury, a _______ form shall be completed.

A

CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report (HPM 70.6, Chapter 26)

187
Q

True or False: deadly force is automatically justified against a suspect who attacks an officer with OC spray or mace.

A

False (HPM 70.6, Chapter 26)

188
Q

True or False: Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) personal protective equipment (PPE) is effective in an environment where there is a potential of explosion or fire.

A

False (HPM 70.6, Chapter 27)

189
Q

True or False: WMD PPE interferes with the natural regulation of body temperature.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 27)

190
Q

True or False: air purifying respirators supply oxygen.

A

False (HPM 70.6, Chapter 27)

191
Q

WMD PPE should be inspected how often?

A

Quarterly (HPM 70.6, Chapter 27)

192
Q

WMD PPE coveralls shall be replaced within __________ years from the date of issuance.

A

Five years (HPM 70.6, Chapter 27)

193
Q

True or False: when donning the WMD PPE coveralls, all sharp objects shall be removed from the uniform, including the badge.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 27)

194
Q

The ___________ is an auxiliary firearm used as an extended range impact weapon.

A

Less-lethal shotgun (HPM 70.6, Chapter 28)

195
Q

What parts of the less-lethal shotgun are required to be orange?

A

1) Fore-end 2) Stock 3) Sling (HPM 70.6, Chapter 28)

196
Q

True or False: the less-lethal shotgun may be used to apprehend a subject resisting arrest by fleeing on foot.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 28)

197
Q

What parts of the body shall not be targeted with the less-lethal shotgun?

A

Head, neck, throat, and spine (HPM 70.6, Chapter 28)

198
Q

What is the optimal deployment range for the less-lethal shotgun?

A

5-60 feet (HPM 70.6, Chapter 28)

199
Q

When feasible and permitted by the tactical situation, what phrase shall be loudly announced to all persons on scene?

A

“Less-lethal” (HPM 70.6, Chapter 28)

200
Q

What is the minimum number of cover officers that should provide lethal cover for an officer electing to deploy the less-lethal shotgun?

A

One (HPM 70.6, Chapter 28)

201
Q

All uniformed employees shall undergo ______ hours of Academy-certified electronic control device (ECD) training.

A

Eight (HPM 70.6, Chapter 29)

202
Q

Uniformed employees at the rank of ________ shall recertify annually in the use of the ECD.

A

Sergeant and below (HPM 70.6, Chapter 29)

203
Q

During the course of enforcement duties, all officers and sergeants who are certified _________ (should/shall) carry an ECD, if available.

A

Shall (HPM 70.6, Chapter 29)

204
Q

True or False: uniformed members of the Department may carry personally-owned ECDs while on duty.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 29)

205
Q

Departmental policy related to the ECD shall be reviewed quarterly by uniformed members at what rank?

A

Commissioner and below (all uniformed employees) (HPM 70.6, Chapter 29)

206
Q

ECDs shall be stored in what manner?

A

Unloaded in a secured storage area (HPM 70.6, Chapter 29)

207
Q

What is the dart spread rate for the ECD?

A

1 foot spread for very 9 feet of travel (HPM 70.6, Chapter 29)

208
Q

Uniformed employees shall avoid intentionally targeting what six locations on the body?

A

1) Head 2) Face 3) Neck 4) Throat 5) Groin 6) Spine (HPM 70.6, Chapter 29)

209
Q

True or False: in the case of armed subjects, an ECD should not be used without the cover of lethal force.

A

True (HPM 70.6, Chapter 29)

210
Q

Uniformed employees at the rank of sergeant and below are required to participate in ______ hours of officer safety training per year.

A

8 hours

(HPM 70.6, Chapter 17)

211
Q

In addition to the OST training day, uniformed employees at the rank of sergeant and below are required to participate in ______ hours of Arrest & Control training every _______ year(s).

A

4 hours; two years

(HPM 70.6, Chapter 17)

212
Q

The Officer Safety Training Trainer (OSTT) course consists of ______ hours of training.

A

80 hours

(HPM 70.6, Chapter 17)

213
Q

The _______ form is used to document certification and proficiency with officer safety techniques.

A

CHP 199, Officer Safety Certification

(HPM 70.6, Chapter 17)

214
Q

All uniformed personnel at the rank of sergeant and below shall demonstrate proficiency in what five areas/skill categories?

A

1) Arrest and control techniques
2) Searching techniques
3) Transportation techniques
4) Impact weapons
5) Use of force aftercare

(HPM 70.6, Chapter 17)

215
Q

Uniformed employees unable to demonstrate an acceptable level of skill (related to OST techniques) shall be provided refresher training for a period of time not to exceed _______ days after the annual certification is due.

A

30 calendar days

(HPM 70.6, Chapter 17)

216
Q

True or False: uniformed employees who fail to meet the required level of certification (in OST techniques) will be permitted to return to enforcement duties.

A

False

(HPM 70.6, Chapter 17)

217
Q

Failure to meet minimum proficiency standards (in OST techniques) following refresher training will result in ________.

A

Interim reporting

(HPM 70.6, Chapter 17)

218
Q

The CHP 199, Officer Safety Certification form is retained in the employee’s training file for a period of _______ year(s).

A

One year

(HPM 70.6, Chapter 17)