Extra Practice Flashcards Preview

CISSP + Exams > Extra Practice > Flashcards

Flashcards in Extra Practice Deck (284)
Loading flashcards...
1

In a discretionary mode, which of the following entities is authorized to grant information access to other people?
A. Manager
B. Group leader
C. Security manager
D. User

Answer: D
Explanation: Discretionary control is the most common type of access control mechanism implemented in computer systems today. The basis of this kind of security is that an individual user, or program operating on the user's behalf, is allowed to specify explicitly the types of access other users (or programs executing on their behalf) may have to information under the user's control. Discretionary security differs from mandatory security in that it implements the access control decisions of the user. Mandatory controls are driven by the results of a comparison between the user's trust level or clearance and the sensitivity designation of the information.

2

Which DES mode of operation is best suited for database encryption?
A. Cipher Block Chaining (CBC) mode
B. Cycling Redundancy Checking (CRC) mode
C. Electronic Code Book (ECB) mode
D. Cipher Feedback (CFB) mode

Answer: C
Explanation: The DES algorithm in Electronic Codebook (ECB) mode is used for DEK and MIC encryption when symmetric key management is employed. The character string "DES-ECB" within an encapsulated PEM header field indicates use of this algorithm/mode combination. A compliant PEM implementation supporting symmetric key management shall support this algorithm/mode combination. This mode of DES encryption is the best suited for database encryption because of its low overhead. ECB Mode has some weakness, here they are: 1. ECB Mode encrypts a 64-bit block independently of all other 64-bit blocks 2. Given the same key, identical plaintext will encrypt the same way 3. Data compression prior to ECB can help (as with any mode) 4. Fixed block size of 64 bits therefore incomplete block must be padded

3

Within the realm of IT security, which of the following combinations best defines risk?
A. Threat coupled with a breach.
B. Threat coupled with a vulnerability.
C. Vulnerability coupled with an attack.
D. Threat coupled with a breach of security.

Answer: B
Explanation: This is the main concept, when we talk about a possible risk we always have a possible vulnerability in the system attacked. This vulnerability can make a threat to be successful. We can say that the level of risk can be measures through the level of vulnerabilities in our current systems and the ability of the attackers to exploit them to make a threat successful.

4

Which of the following would be the best reason for separating the test and development environments?
A. To restrict access to systems under test.
B. To control the stability of the test environment.
C. To segregate user and development staff.
D. To secure access to systems under development.


Answer: B
Explanation: This is the right answer, with a separation of the two environments (Test and development), we can get a more stable and more “in control” environment, Since we are making tests in the development environment, we don’t want our production processes there, we don’t want to experiment things in our production processes. With a separation of the environments we can get a more risk free production environment and more control and flexibility over the test environment for the developers.

5

Which of the following statements pertaining to dealing with the media after a disaster occurred and disturbed the organizations activities is incorrect?
A. The CEO should always be the spokesperson for the company during a disaster.
B. The disaster recover plan must include how the media is to be handled during the disaster.
C. The organization’s spokesperson should report bad news before the press gets a hold of it through another channel.
D. An emergency press conference site should be planned ahead.

Answer: A
Explanation: This is not a good practice, we cannot involves the CEO of the company to deal with the media in every case we have a disaster, depending on the severity of the disaster we can make the CEO talk, but the best practice in the real world is to have a well-known person with that role, with special speaking capabilities and knowledge about press methods. In general, the CEO always gets news of what happened, and he decides the company politics, then another designed employee (Usually from the disaster recovery team) deals with the media.

6

Which Orange book security rating introduces security labels?
A. C2
B. B1
C. B2
D. B3

Answer: B
Explanation Class (B1) or “Labeled Security Protection” systems require all the features required for class (C2). In addition, an informal statement of the security policy model, data labeling, and mandatory access control over named subjects and objects must be present. The capability must exist for accurately labeling exported information. Any flaws identified by testing must be removed.

7

A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) does not:
A. Recommend the appropriate recovery solution.
B. Determine critical and necessary business functions and their resource dependencies.
C. Identify critical computer applications and the associated outage tolerance.
D. Estimate the financial impact of a disruption.

Answer: A
Explanation: Remember that when we talk about a BIA (Business Impact Analysis), we are analyzing and identifying possible issues about our infrastructure, in this kind of analysis we don’t make suggestions about what to do to recover from them. This is not an action plan, It’s an analysis about the business, the process that it relays on, the level of the systems and a estimative of the financial impact, or in other words, how much many we loose with our systems down.

8

Which access control model enables the owner of the resource to specify what subjects can access specific resources?
A. Discretionary Access Control
B. Mandatory Access Control
C. Sensitive Access Control
D. Role-based Access Control

Answer: A
Explanation: Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is used to control access by restricting a subject's access to an object. It is generally used to limit a user's access to a file. In this type of access control it is the owner of the file who controls other users' accesses to the file. Using a DAC mechanism allows users control over access rights to their files. When these rights are managed correctly, only those users specified by the owner may have some combination of read, write, execute, etc. permissions to the file.

9

What type of cable is used with 100Base-TX Fast Ethernet?
A. Fiber-optic cable
B. Four pairs of Category 3, 4 or 5 unshielded twisted-par (UTP) wires.
C. Two pairs of Category 5 unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) or Category 1 shielded twisted-pair (STP) wires.
D. RG.58 cable.

Answer: C
Explanation: 100BaseTX is a 100-Mbps baseband Fast Ethernet specification using two pairs of either UTP or STP wiring. The first pair of wires is used to receive data; the second is used to transmit. To guarantee proper signal timing, a 100BaseTX segment cannot exceed 100 meters in length. This specification of Ethernet is based on the IEEE 802.3 standard

10

Which of the following best describes the Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) protocol?
A. Originated by VISA and MasterCard as an Internet credit card protocol.
B. Originated by VISA and MasterCard as an Internet credit card protocol using digital signatures.
C. Originated by VISA and MasterCard as an Internet credit card protocol using the transport layer.
D. Originated by VISA and MasterCard as an Internet credit card protocol using SSL.

Answer: B
Explanation: This protocol was created by VISA and MasterCard as a common effort to make the buying process over the Internet secure through the distribution line of those companies. It is located in layer 7 of the OSI model. SET uses a system of locks and keys along with certified account IDs for both consumers and merchants. Then, through a unique process of "encrypting" or scrambling the information exchanged between the shopper and the online store, SET ensures a payment process that is convenient, private and most of all secure. Specifically, SET: The SET process relies strongly on the use of certificates and digital signatures for the process of authentication and integrity of the information.

11

At which of the following phases of a software development life cycle are security and access controls normally designed?
A. Coding
B. Product design
C. Software plans and requirements
D. Detailed design

Answer: D
Explanation: Security controls and access controls are normally designed in the “Detailed” phase of design. In this phase you have the design of many of the security features of your development like authentication, confidentiality functionality, non repudiation capabilities. In this phase you can also define what is going to be the access control method for the software, we can make it discretionary (less restrictive), mandatory (more restrictive), role based and others.

12

Which type of control would password management classify as?
A. Compensating control
B. Detective control
C. Preventive control
D. Technical control

Answer: C
Explanation: Preventive technical controls are used to prevent unauthorized personnel or programs from gaining remote access to computing resources. Examples of these controls include:
• Access control software. • Antivirus software. • Library control systems. • Passwords and Password management. • Smart cards. • Encryption. • Dial-up access control and callback systems.
About Passwords: Passwords are used to verify that the user of an ID is the owner of the ID. The ID-password combination is unique to each user and therefore provides a means of holding users accountable for their activity on the system. Fixed passwords that are used for a defined period of time are often easy for hackers to compromise; therefore, great care must be exercised to ensure that these passwords do not appear in any dictionary. Fixed passwords are often used to control access to specific data bases. In this use, however, all persons who have authorized access to the data base use the same password; therefore, no accountability can be achieved. Currently, dynamic or one-time passwords, which are different for each log-on, are preferred over fixed passwords. Dynamic passwords are created by a token that is programmed to generate passwords randomly. The management of those passwords is part of Preventive control.

13

Due is not related to:
A. Good faith
B. Prudent man
C. Profit
D. Best interest

Answer: C
Explanation: This is obviously a term not related to Profit, a “due” is not going to give us profit, its going to give us the opposite. Its always a good practice to pay your due. This can be learned in the real life. A Prudent man always pays its due, also a Good faith men pays them. This term is not related to profit.

14

Which of the following is not an Orange Book-defined life cycle assurance requirement?
A. Security testing
B. Design specification and testing
C. Trusted distribution
D. System integrity

Answer: D
Explanation: Life cycle assurance is more than configuration management. Reference: “Operational assurance focuses on the basic features and architecture of a system that lend themselves to supporting security. There are five requirements or elements of operation assurance:
System architecture
System integrity
Covert channel analysis
Trusted facility management
Trusted Recovery
ISC CISSP Exam
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 550
Life cycle assurance focuses on the controls and standards that are necessary for designing, building, and maintaining a system. The following are the four requirements or elements of life cycle assurance:
Security testing
Design specification and testing
Configuration Management
Trusted distribution”
Pg 398 Tittel

15

What is another name for the Orange Book?
A. The Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC)
B. The Trusted Computing Base (TCB)
C. The Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC)
D. The Common Criteria

Answer: A
Explanation: The Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) is a collection of criteria used to grade or rate the security offered by a computer system product. The TCSEC is sometimes referred to as "the Orange Book" because of its orange cover. The current version is dated 1985 (DOD 5200.28-STD, Library No.S225,711) The TCSEC, its interpretations and guidelines all have different color covers, and are sometimes known as the "Rainbow Series".

16

A password that is the same for each log-on session is called a?
A. “one-time password”
B. “two-time password”
C. static password
D. dynamic password

Answer: C
Explanation: A Static password is one that remains the same until its changed. Its like the password that we use in the operating systems, you set it, and then you always use the same password to logon to the system for the time of the session. This password will give us access to the system and will be the vehicle to create our access token in a successful way to get our privileges. A one-time password is only valid for one use, dynamic ones change every certain condition is met, and two-time passwords can only be used two times. We can provide certain times of access with this kind of passwords.

17

Which of the following backup methods is most appropriate for off-site archiving?
A. Incremental backup method.
B. Off-site backup method.
C. Full backup method.
D. Differential backup method.

Answer: C
Explanation: Since we want to maintain the backups offsite, its always better to send FULLBackups because they contain a consistent base of the system. We perform the beginning of a restore through a full backup. Remember that the backups stored offsite are in most cases in a secure place, full backup in there are a best practice for any network administrator. With incremental or differential backups we don’t have all we need to restore a system to a consistent state. We need to start from the full backup. “Offsite Backup” is not a valid backup method.

18

Which of the following is not a weakness of symmetric cryptography?
A. Limited security
B. Key distribution
C. Speed
D. Scalability

Answer: C
Explanation: In secret key cryptography, a single key is used for both encryption and decryption. The sender uses the key (or some set of rules) to encrypt the plaintext and sends the cipher text to the receiver. The receiver applies the same key (or rule set) to decrypt the message and recover the plaintext. Because a single key is used for both functions, secret key cryptography is also called symmetric encryption. With this form of cryptography, it is obvious that the key must be known to both the sender and the receiver; that, in fact, is the secret. The biggest difficulty with this approach, of course, is the distribution of the key. Symmetric encryption is around 1000 times faster than Asymmetric encryption, the second is commonly used just to encrypt the keys for Symmetric Cryptography.

19

Which of the following is not a defined layer in the TCP/IP protocol model?
A. Application layer
B. Session layer
C. Internet layer
D. Network access layer

Answer: B
Explanation: The TCP/IP reference model is the network model used in the current Internet architecture. It has its origins back in the 1960's with the grandfather of the Internet, the ARPANET. This was a research network sponsored by the Department of Defense in the United States. The reference model was named after two of its main protocols, TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and IP (Internet Protocol). They choose to build a packet-switched network based on a connectionless internet layer. Here is a representation of it:

20

Rewritable and erasable (CDR/W) optical disk are sometimes used for backups that require short time storage for changeable data, but require?
A. Faster file access than tape.
B. Slower file access than tape.
C. Slower file access than drive.
D. Slower file access than scale.

Answer: A
Explanation: This is true, when we use optical media like CD´s to make our backups we need a constant throughput on the file access and data transfer inside the disk because of the risk to get a buffer overrun error in the CD writer. If the buffer user by the CD burner is empty and the Hard disk does not provide data for that time, the Backup will be unsuccessful. This can be solved with a Technology known as “Burn Proof”.

21

Which one of the following is not a primary component or aspect of firewall systems?
A. Protocol filtering
B. Packet switching
C. Rule enforcement engine
D. Extended logging capability

Answer: B
Explanation: This is not a main function of a firewall, packet switching is a main feature of a Switch (working only in the layer 2 of the OSI model). Firewall are network security devices that can function through layer 2 to layer 7 of the OSI model. They usually include rule engine that enforce the enterprise security policy of the company. They provide protocol filtering to enforce our requirements through the forwarded or deny of traffic. They also provide logging capabilities so we can analyze what is happening in a very low level in our network.

22

What are database views used for?
A. To ensure referential integrity.
B. To allow easier access to data in a database.
C. To restrict user access to data in a database.
D. To provide audit trails.

Answer: C
Explanation: Through the use of a view we can provide security for the organization restricting users access to certain data or to the real tables containing the information in our database. For example, we can create a view that brings data from 3 tables, only showing 2 of the 4 columns in each. Instead of giving access to the tables that contain the information, we give access to the view, so the user can access this fixed information but does not have privileges over the tables containing it. This provides security.

23

Which of the following Common Data Network Services is used to send and receive email internally or externally through an email gateway device?
A. File services
B. Mail services
C. Print services
D. Client/Server services

Answer: B
Explanation: This functionality is provided through mail services, this service permits collaboration between users in an internal and external level. We usually use two protocols, “SMTP” in port TCP 25 to send the emails and “POP3” in port TCP 110 to receive them. Currently there is another protocol that is gaining popularity, it is “IMAP4”. Print services are used for printing documents and file services are used to share and access files and folders inside the infrastructure.

24

Intrusion detection has which of the following sets of characteristics.
A. It is adaptive rather than preventive.
B. It is administrative rather than preventive.
C. It is disruptive rather than preventative.
D. It is detective rather than preventative.

Answer: D
Explanation: This is one of the features of intrusion detections, instead of being pro-active, it has a reactive behavior. When we set an IDS system inside of our network or hosts, the IDS agent is constantly monitoring in real time what activities are being performed in the infrastructure. If the IDS founds a malicious activity taking place it can take actions against it like disabling interfaces, alerting the administrators or sending network attacks to the source to put it out of service. As a difference to the detective behavior of IDS, we can also increase the security with practices like hardening our systems ,this is considered a preventive practice.

25

Which type of password provides maximum security because a new password is required for each now log-on is defined to as?
A. One-time or dynamic password
B. Cognitive password
C. Static password
D. Pass phrase

Answer: A
Explanation: “One-time” or “dynamic” password technology concept is having your remote host already know a password that is not going to go over insecure channels and when you connect, you get a challenge. You take the challenge information and password and plug it into an algorithm which generates the response that should get the same answer if the password is the same on the both sides. Therefore the password never goes over the network, nor is the same challenge used twice. Unlike SecurID or SNK, with S/key you do not share a secret with the host. Other one time password technology is card systems where each user gets a card that generates numbers that allow access to their account. Without the card, it is improbable to guess the numbers.

26

They in form of credit card-size memory cards or smart cards, or those resembling small calculators, are used to supply static and dynamic passwords are called?
A. Token Ring
B. Tokens
C. Token passing networks
D. Coupons

Answer: B
Explanation: Tokens are usually used to provide authentication through “What we have”, is most commonly implemented to provide two-factor authentication. For example, SecurID requires two pieces of information, a password and a token. The token is usually generated by the SecurID token – a small electronic device that users keep with them that display a new number every 60 seconds. Combining this number with the users password allows the SecurID server to determine whatever or not the user should be granted access.

27

Which of the following uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer to an object, or that a subject can take from another subject?
A. Take-Grant model
B. Access Matrix model
C. Biba model
D. Bell-Lapadula model

Answer: A
Explanation: The Take-Grant System is a model that helps in determining the protection rights (e.g., read or write) in a computer system. The Take-Grant system was introduced by Jones, Lipton, and Snyder to show that it is possible to decide on the safety of a computer system even when the number of subjects and objects are very large, or unbound. This can be accomplished in linear time based on the initial size of the system. The take-grant system models a protection system which consists of a set of states and state transitions. A directed graph shows the connections between the nodes of this system. These nodes are representative of the subjects or objects of the model. The directed edges between the nodes represent the rights that one node has over the linked node.

28

Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent software license violations?
A. Implementing a corporate policy on copyright infringements and software use.
B. Requiring that all PCs be diskless workstations.
C. Installing metering software on the LAN so applications can be accessed through the metered software.
D. Regularly scanning used PCs to ensure that unauthorized copies of software have not been loaded on the PC.

Answer: D
Explanation: Since its impossible to control all the efforts of the users to install software without the proper licenses in their PC´s (Specially downloaded from the Internet), the best way to prevent licenses violations is through regular audit to every single user PC to see what’s the installed programs are and what’s the nature of them (Shareware, freeware, licensed). We cant use LAN monitoring software because not all the applications are network enabled, also, there is usually a policy about software installation, but the users do not rely on them many times. It also a very nice practice to punish the users making software license violations.

29

Zip/Jaz drives, SyQuest, and Bemoulli boxes are very transportable and are often the standard for?
A. Data exchange in many businesses.
B. Data change in many businesses.
C. Data compression in many businesses.
D. Data interchange in many businesses.

Answer: A
Explanation: This is the primary use of this kind of devices, since they are very portable (a medium-size external box) and they provide standard interfaces to the PC, they are usually used in data exchange because of their high capacity in comparison to the 3.5 floppy diskettes. We can make changes in the media used by this devices, but is not their primary use. Compression is not the best feature of this devices, their usually depend on File system compression. Absolutely, the best use of this boxes is for data exchange.

30

What are two types of system assurance?
A. Operational Assurance and Architecture Assurance. B. Design Assurance and Implementation Assurance.
C. Architecture Assurance and Implementation Assurance.
D. Operational Assurance and Life-Cycle Assurance.

Answer: D
Explanation: Software Systems Quality Assurance (SQA) is defined as a planned and systematic approach to the evaluation of the quality of and adherence to software product standards, processes, and procedures. SQA includes the process of assuring that standards and procedures are established and are followed throughout the software acquisition life cycle. Compliance with agreed-upon standards and procedures is evaluated through process monitoring, product evaluation, and audits. Software development and control processes should include quality assurance approval points, where an SQA evaluation of the product may be done in relation to the applicable standards. The 2 types available are : Operational assurance (that specified that the operation compiles with the required) and Life-Cycle assurance (that specifies that the system has passed through all the Software life-cycle).