Mod 3 Heart and Respiratory CH 6 and 7 Flashcards

1
Q

A child has a systemic HTN, a murmur, and a weak pulses. Which cardiac defect is most likely associated?

a. Coarctation of the aorta
b. pulmonic stenosis
c. TOF
d. VSD

A

a. Coarctation of the aorta

Can go undetected in childhood and adult hood
key signs: systemic HTN with systemic murmur AND upper extremity pulses stronger than lower extremeity

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2
Q

Low calcium levels can result in EKG changes that include:

a. St segment elevation
b. ST segment depression
c. prolonged QT interval
d. Q waves

A

c. prolonged QT interval (asymptomatic or cause rapid heart rate, palpitations, dizzy, fainting)

certain medication (thiazides) can inc renal absorption and cause EKG changes 
 Hypercalcemia = ventrical changes
Hypocalcemia = prolonged qt

also high calcium can damage vessels = vascular calcification and turbulent blood flow

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3
Q

Patient is questioning the appropriate use of getting an US for a suspected Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA). How can the clinician reassure the patient that the US is necessary to diagnose an AAA?

a. Let the patient know that when used for suspected AAA it can decrease mortality
b. tell patient that it its the least invasive test and most accurate
c. Quickly change the subject
d. Ignore the question

A

a. Let the patient know that when used for suspected AAA it can decrease mortality

AAA- ballooning of the aortic wall predisposed to rupturing, need US to diagnosis

most commonly caused by atherosclerosis

**found by palpated mass on abdomen during exam, can be found to have a strong bounding pulse

if ruptured- pt will have severe pain followed by hypotension

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4
Q

When ausculating over the left second intercostal space, you hear S2 louder than S1. What should your response be?

a. Ask the patient to turn on left side to assess whether S2 sound changes
b. Consider this a normal finding and proceed with exam
c. continue the exam and refer the patient for additional cardiac evaluation
d. Expect that the S2 sound will muffle during inspiration

A

b. Consider this a normal finding and proceed with exam

S2 = indicates diastole, which requires closing of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonic). Which is typically heard at the base of the heart (top) where those valves are located
SIDE NOTE: S2 correlates with apical pulse

S1= indicates systole, which requires closing of the AV valves (mitral, tricuspid)
heard louder at the apex of the heart where those valves are located

Left lateral position where the left ventricle is closest to the chest wall where s3, s4 murmurs can be heard (mitral valve) s3, s4 ventricle problems

S3- ventricle gallop, heard at apex right after S2 does not vary with respiration consistent with volume overload problems

s4- right before s1 heard with bell atrial gallop and decrease ventricle and increase in after load.

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5
Q

A sound caused by turbulent blood flow that is heard over arteries is a?

a. bruit
b. Thrill
c. friction rub
d. heave

A

a. bruit (blowing or whooshing sound when listening)

Thrill-is vibratory sensation felt on the skin consistent with exaggerated murmur

heave- sign of left ventricle hypertrophy, pericardial movement found when palpating with heal of hand
this is abnormal should not feel movement

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6
Q

Where does S3 fall in the cardiac cycle?

a. throughout systole
b. throughout diastole
c. early diastole
d. late diastole

A

c. early diastole (s2)

s3 occurs early diastole r/t slow filling
Can be innocent (pregnancy, anemia and/or hyper volume states) or pathologic caused by decreased ventricle compliance. Sign of ischemia or HF *sounds like “kentucky”

does not vary with inspiration/expiration

innocent ones in children may change with positioning

s4 occurs late diastole caused by forceable atrial contraction in the presence of decreased ventricle compliance ( atrial gallop) sounds like a gallop

ventricle problem and problem with increased after load (LV hypertrophy)

s4 = almost always abnormal

s3 & s4 = heard best at apex of heart with bell (low pitch)

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7
Q

When during the the cardiac cycle is aortic regurgitation (AR) heard?

a. Throughout diastole
b. systole
c. neither systole nor diastole
d. diastole

A

d. diastole (relaxation)

diastolic murmurs = AR and mitral stenosis

systolic murmurs = Aortic stenosis, mitral and tricuspid regurgitation *heard between s1 and s2 during ventricle contraction

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8
Q

When is a split S2 sound considered normal?

a. Occurring with expiration and disappearing with inspiration
b. Occurring with inspiration and disappearing with expiration.
c. Occurs during inspirations and continues during expiration
d. disappears with a change in position

A

b. occurring with inspiration and disappearing with expiration

split S2 is semilunar valves either (aortic or pulmonic) closing slightly before one another (a2 or p2) heard best at base (top) b/w 2nd/3rd left ICS

Fixed split s2 -occurs during inspirations and continue through expiration= may indicate valve disorder

paradoxical split- disappears with inspiration but appears with expiration may indicate left bundle branch block

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9
Q
A PMI that movs laterally away from the mid clavicular line is most likely the result of which of the following?
a. LV hypertrophy
b ASD
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Pulmonary HTN
A

a. LV hypertrophy

Point of Maximal Impulse (PMI) = location at which the cardiac impulse can best be palpated * Apex, 5th intercostal space in the left mid clavicular line*

  • tells us about the size of the heart!*
  • tells clinician where to auscultate the apical pulse*

Also important when evaluating patients with HTN and CHF (increased LV end diastolic volume)

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10
Q

You are conducting an exam of Mr. C’s heart and blood vessels and auscultate a grade 3 murmur. the intensity of the murmur is?

a. Very loud without a stethoscope
b. moderately loud
c. loud with palpable thrill
d. barely discernible

A

b. moderately loud

Heart murmurs are described by Timing in the cardiac cycle, intensity grad, pitch, pattern, quality, location, radiation, posture

intensity = 6 grades
1= barely audible
2=clear but faint
3. moderate loud
4= loud with palpable thrill
5= very loud with portion of stethoscope off of chest and with thrill
6 = loudest heard with stethoscope off of chest

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11
Q

The carotid pulse coincides with which heard sound?

a. s1
b. s2
c. s3
d. s4

A

a. s1 = beginning systole

S2 = indicates diastole
S3 = indicating early diastole  either abnormal (ventiricle gollop)  or normal (innocent in children)
S4 = indicating late diastole (atrial gallop) almost aleays abnormal
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12
Q

What segment/interval on a EKG reading signals Ventricle depolarization?

a. P wave
b. T wave
c. QRS complex
d. PR interval

A

c. QRS complex

P wave - atrial depolarization
T wave - Ventricle re-polarization

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13
Q

What disorder/diagnosis is consistent with pitting edema spider/varicose veins and medial/lateral ankle lesions?

a. Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)
b. DVT
c. Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)
d. Chronic Venous Insufficiency (CVI)

A

d. Chronic Venous Insufficiency (CVI)

CVI-condition caused by stasis and reflux of venous blood flow (immobility)
Cardinal symptom = pitting edema and lesions on medial/ lateral ankle

non pitting edema is a sign of lymphedema

PAD- atherosclerosis of the lower extremities, affect blood flow to lower legs similar to CVI
Hallmark sign is Intermittent claudification (IC) = calf pain with exercise that is relieved by rest
Other sx: weak pulses lower pulses, painful ulcers on toes and feet

DVT- Blood clot
hallmark sign is unilateral leg edema
other sx: red, cool, tender extremities, decreased pulses, positive Homan’s sign

CAD- thickening and loss of elasticity of arterial wall r/t plaque build up (artheromas) blocking blood flow to heart causes ischemia
atherosclerosis causes CAD
common sx is chest pain can be transient attacks or lead to MI, aneurysm

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14
Q

All of the following are considered symptoms of Heart Failure except:

a. Cough and Dyspnea on exertion
b. Jugular vein distention
c. cool extremities
d. pick-tinged sputum

A

c. cool extremities

Other: wt gain, fatigue

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15
Q

In bronchovesicular breath sounds heard over the middle of the chest.

a. inspiration is equal to expiration
b. inspiration is longer than expiration
c. the high pitch of the sounds indicates pneumonia
d. the low pitch of the sounds indicates brochitits

A

a. inspiration is equal to expiration

bronchovesicular are intermediate intensity and pitch usually heard over the main stem bronchi in the mid chest anteriorly. The duration of inspiration almost equals expiration with a 1:1 ratio

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16
Q

Breath sounds auscultated over the most of the peripheral lung fields bilaterally are called.

a. bronchial
b. bronchovesicular
c. tubular
d. vesicular

A

d. vesicular

vesicular breath sounds are soft intensity, low pitched, with a rustling quality during inspiration and softer with expiration. Heard over most peripheral fields bilat.

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17
Q

Breath sounds beast auscultated over the lower manubruium are called.

a. Tracheal
b. Bronchial
c. vesicular
d. bronchovesicular

A

b. Bronchial

Bronchial sounds are louder and higher in pitch. Heard over the lower aspect of the trachea, best heard over the manubrium

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18
Q

High-pitched, discontinuous sounds heard over small airways that are fluid filled are called.

a. stridor
b. crackles
c. wheeze
d. rhonchi

A

b. crackles

can either have fine ( high pitched, popping sound) or course discontinuous low pitched sounds that are louder and longer

crackles indicated abnormalities of the lungs or airways such as pneumonia, CHF or bronchitis

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19
Q

Continuous musical sounds that can be high or low pitched, usually heard during expiration are called.

a. stridor
b. crackles
c. wheeze
d. rhonchi

A

c. wheeze

Wheezes are heard because of narrowing of the airways caused by asthma, COPD, or bronchitis

high pitched they will sound squeaky
low pitch will sound moaning
both can be heard throughout lung fields

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20
Q

Loud high pitched sound caused by disrupted airflow heard typically during inspiration are called.

a. stridor
b. crackles
c. wheeze
d. rhonchi

A

a. stridor

Stridor is associated with an upper airway obstruction, when airflow cannot flow through the larynx. Can be caused by swelling associated with infection (epiglottitis, croup), chemical irritation (aspiration), or trauma (mechanical ventilation)

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21
Q

Which assessment finding is most accurate for the individual with a barrel chest?

a. There is a decrease in the AP diameter
b. There is a decrease in the transverse diameter
c. There is an increase in the AP diameter
d. There is an increase in the transverse diameter

A

c. There is an increase in the AP diameter

Normally the AP diameter is 1/2 the diameter of the transverse diameter aka * thoracic cage is more wide than it is deep* = AP = 1:2

Barrel chest occurs when AP diameter is greater than transverse diameter means that there is hyperinflation of the lungs (air trapping) seen in COPD

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22
Q

A finding of bronchophony, clearly understanding the spoken word of “99” through the stethoscope indicates

a. air trapping, which is what happens in broncholitits
b. air trapping, which happens in emphysema
c. consolidation, which happens in asthma
d. consolidation, which happens in pneumonia

A

d. consolidation, which happens in pneumonia

Voice sounds will increase when the stethoscope is placed over denser areas of consolidation and can provide clue for dx pulmonary pathologies
Techniques include: Bronchophony, Egophony or whispered pectoriloquy.

If 99 is heard louder and more clear means that there is consolidation in the lung. Sound is heard better over dense tissue than air filled lunch tissue

egophony the sound eee will change to ayyy through a stethoscope means consolidation or fluid in lungs

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23
Q

Hyperrresonance on the percussion of the chest wall of an adult occurs with

a. COPD
b. community acquired pneumonia
c. lung tumor suggestive of cancer
d. pleural effusion

A

a. COPD

Hyperresonance is a very loud, slightly low pitch and longer duration than resonance. may be normal in children of very thin adult patients. but typically means the lungs are overinflated with as is diseases like asthma or COPD.

Resonance is a hollow sound typically heard over normal lung tissue that is filled with air. relatively loud with a low pitched

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24
Q

Tympany is a loud, high pitched, drum like sound that is longer in duration. It is considered a normal percussion sound heard over

a. The chest
b. The abdomen
c. Bone
d. Lung tissue

A

b. The abdomen

Typanic sounds in the chest are considered abnormal and can result when there is air in the chest caused by pneumothorax or collapsed lung

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25
Q

A dull sound percussed over lung tissue is considered a normal finding.

True or False

A

False

dullness is a medium pitched sound normally heard over solid organ or bone Not normal when heard over lung tissue can be related to fluid or consolidation associated with pneumonia, masses or tumors, pleural effusions

flatness can also be heard over solid bone areas typically short in duration

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26
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a 4-month- old who presents with intermittent spasms of coughing, intercostal retractions, and generalized wheezing?

a. Bronchitis
b. Bronchiolitis
c. Sleep apnea
d. TB

A

b. Bronchiolitis

Bronchiolitis is inflammation of the bronchioles typically affects children under 2 years old, the classic sx are cough, tachypnea and wheezing
caused by cold virus

watch for any signs of increasing respiratory effort

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27
Q

Which is essential to the diagnosis of COPD?

a. Chest X-ray shows a flattened diaphragm
b. Chest X-ray shows hyperinflation
c. Pulmonary function tests shows FEV1/FVC ratio of < 70%
d. Pulmonary function test shows FVC or < 30%

A

c. Pulmonary function tests shows FEV1/FVC ratio of 70%

The most important diagnostic test for COPD is spirometry -testing designed to detect the volume and capacity of the lungs to determine overall functioning of the respiratory system.

FEV= forced expiratory volume- how much air can be forced out of the lungs in a specific period ( one second = FEV1 )

FVC = total amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled

FEV and FVC used as a ratio used to diagnose lung diseases like COPD and asthma

The definition of air flow limitation is FEV/FVC less than 0.70

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28
Q

Which signs and symptoms can indicate CF?

a. recurrent lung infections and persistent cough
b. GI Problems, including small bowel obstruction
c. infertility and DM in an adult
d. all the above

A

d. all the above

CF= autosomal recessive disorder of the CFTR protein. affects disfunction of the transport of CH, NA and Bicarb which results in thick mucus within lungs, pancreas, liver, reproductive tract, inc sodium etc

Infants and children with CF may present with a meconium ileaus, and resp failure symptoms and FTT

adults usually present with GI symptoms, infertility and DM

Manifestations of CF include chronic sinus infections, pancreatic insufficiency SMO, Kyphosis, venous thrombosis, anemia

Resp sx: persistent cough, wheezes, dyspnea
hyperinflation of lungs on x-ray
PFT, impaired mucociliary clearance of the airway

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29
Q

How does a clinician differentiates acute bronchitis from pneumonia or influenza?

a. chronic cough for 2-6 weeks
b. low grade fever that resolves in the first few days
c. purulent sputum
d. Fever greater than 100 degrees

A

d. Fever greater than 100 degrees

acute bronchitis is a lower resp tract infection symptoms are those similar to common cold but typically will have
productive cough that can last 2-6 weeks, head ache, low grade fever that resolves within the first few days, slight wheezes or rhonchi that relieves with coughing

purulent sputum does not bacteria infection

30
Q

Abnormal finding of decreased or increased tactile fremitus is can be an indicative finding associated with. Select all that applied

a. increased mucus in the lungs
b. collapsed lung
c. pleural effusion
d. pneumonia

A

c. pleural effusion
d. pneumonia

Tactile fremitis is vibratory sensation palpated anteriorly.posteriorly on the surface of the chest during speech “99”

decreased TF can be associated with thickening of scaring of pleura edema, effusion, tumor causing obstruction

increased TF occurs with compression or consolidation of lungs occurs with presence of tumor or pneumonia

note this finding is not a diagnosing finding it is a finding that is related to a sign of a resp disorder

31
Q

A college athlete comes in for a visit. The BMI is calculates her BMI to be 25.5. Which explanation is correct.

a. Your current BMI indicates that you are overweight and you need to decrease your calories
b. your current BMI indicates that you are overweight. This measure does not take into consideration muscle mass into consideration, which is likely the reason for the elevated measurement
c. your current BMI indicates that you are in the normal range
d. Your current BMI indicated that you are underweight and you need to increase your calories

A

b. your current BMI indicates that you are overweight. This measure does not take into consideration muscle mass into consideration, which is likely the reason for the elevated measurement

Underweight: less than 18.5
Normal: 18.5- 24.9 for adults
Overweight: 25.0-29.9
Obese: 30.0 and above

32
Q

Your patient would like their percent of body fat tested. Which tests can give you this information.

a. Hydrostatic weighing, DEXA scans, skin fold thickness
b. hydrostatic weighing, skin fold thickness, and BMI calculation
c. DEXA scans, skin fold thickness, and BMI calculations
d. DEXA scans, skin fold thickness and waist circumference

A

a. Hydrostatic weighing, DEXA scans, skin fold thickness

33
Q

Which patient would be a good candidate for completing a waist circumference?

a. A patient with a height of 5’6” and BMI of 25
b. a patient with a height of 4’10” and a BMI of 24
c. A pregnant patient
d. a patient with ascites

A

a. A patient with a height of 5’6” and BMI of 25

waist circumference is needed with any patient with a BMI of 35 or greater, any patient with a height less than 5 ft, a pregnant patient or any patient that causes increased abd girth shout NOT be completed because it is not accurate

34
Q

What are the current exercise recommendation for older children and adolescents (ages 6-17)?

a. 60 minute of physical activity daily, muscle and bone strengthening activities at least 3 days wee and vigorous activities at least 3 days a week
b. 30 minutes of physical activity daily, muscle and bone strengthening activities at lest 3 days a week, and vigorous activity at least 3 days a week
c. 60 minutes of physical activity daily, muscle and bone strengthening activities at least 5 days a week, vigorous activity at least 3 days a week
d. 30 minutes of physical activity daily, muscle and bone strengthening at least 5 days a week, vigorous activity at least 3 days a week

A

a. 60 minute of physical activity daily, muscle and bone strengthening activities at least 3 days wee and vigorous activities at least 3 days a week

older children and adults should engage in 60 minutes of physical activity daily, muscle and bone strengthening activities at least 3 days a week, and vigorous activity at least 3 days a week

35
Q

which statement is FALSE regarding energy requirements?

a. Daily energy requirements are dictated by an individuals’s sex age, height, weight, and lifestyle habits
b. Individuals desiring to lose weight need to reduce their energy intake and/or increase their energy expenditure
c. sedentary lifestyle individuals should b near the bottom of the recommended target calorie range according to the Dietary Guideline for Americans
d. Children need more calories than adults do

A

d. Children need more calories than adults do

36
Q

Obesity contributes to which of the following chronic conditions?

a. CVD
b. Cancer
c. Mental Illness
d. Obesity contributes to all of the above chronic conditions

A

d. Obesity contributes to all of the above chronic conditions
others: sleep apnea, stroke, DM

37
Q

What is the difference b/w an essential and nonessential amino acid?

a. Essential AA cannot be synthesized in the human body and must be obtained through dietary intake. non essentials aa can be synthesized in the body
b. Essential AA are derived from plant-based foods , and nonessential aa are derived from animal-based foods
c. essential aa form the structural compnents of cells, enzymes, and hormones. Nonessential aa form the chemical bonds to transport macro nutrients
d. Essential aa absorb fat soluble vitamins, and nonessential aa absorb water-soluble vitamins

A

a. Essential AA cannot be synthesized in the human body and must be obtained through dietary intake. non essentials aa can be synthesized in the body

38
Q

Adults who engage in sufficient activity can also expect

a. improved quality of life, reduced risk of depression and improved sleep
b. reduced risk of anxiety, decreased sleep, and improved cognition
c. increased risk of depression, improved sleep, and decreased cognition
d. improved cognition, improved sleep, and decreased quality of life

A

a. improved quality of life, reduced risk of depression and improved sleep

39
Q

Macronutrients include all of the following except

a. carbs
b. proteins
c. fats
d. vitamins

A

d. vitamins

40
Q

Chronic undernutrition can lead to all of the following except

a. dd in children
b. enhanced immune function
c. micronutrient deficiencies
d. stunting

A

b. enhanced immune function

41
Q

When auscultating the heart of a 55-year old pt, a loud murmur with a thrill is audible in the right second intercostal space that radiates to the carotid arteries. Also noted a crescendo-decrescendo pitch audible at the apex. The murmur is best heard with the pt sitting and leaning forward. This finding is consistent with

a. pulmonic stenosis
b. tricuspid stenosis
c. mitral regurgitation
d. aortic stenosis

A

d. aortic stenosis

42
Q

In order to bring the apex closest to the chest wall when assessing the PMI, ask the patient to :

a. sit up
b. turn to the left side
c. lie supine
d. lean forward

A

b. turn to the left side

this position brings the left ventricle closest to the chest wall

43
Q

To auscultate the tricuspid valve heart sounds in an adult patient, place the stethoscope:

a. between the 2nd and 3rd ICS at the right upper sternal boarder
b. near the apex of the heart b/w the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces in the mid-clavicular line
c. located b/w the 2nd an d3rd ICS at the left sternal boarder
d. b/w the 3rd, 4th, and 6th ICS at the left sternal boarder

A

d. b/w the 3rd, 4th, and 6th ICS at the left sternal boarder

44
Q

In order to assess for varicosities in the lower extremities, position the patient

a. lying position
b. standing
c. sitting facing forward
d. squatting facing the examiner

A

b. standing

this position allows any varicosities to fill with blood and make them easily visible

45
Q

Widened pulse pressure is defined as systolic blood pressure:

a. dropping 20 mm hg within 3 minutes
b. minus diastolic blood pressure
c. dropping 10 mm hg within 5 minutes of sitting
d. minus apical heart rate

A

b. minus diastolic blood pressure

with aging, SBP and peripheral vascular resistance increase, whereas DBP decrease

46
Q

A patient complains of sharp, knife like pain that begins in the chest and radiates to the tip of the shoulder and to the neck. This type of chest pain is suggestive of:

a. pericarditis
b. aortic dissection
c. angina pectoris
d. a myocardial infarction

A

a. pericarditis

a sharp pain that radiates to the back or into the neck is associated with aortic dissection

exertional pain is associated with angina pectoris

47
Q

Pain or cramping in the leg that occurs during exertion and is relieved by rest is termed

a. neurogenic claudication
b. intermittent claudication
c. atherosclerotic claudication
d. Raynaud’s disease

A

b. intermittent claudication

atherosclerotic claudication presents with symptomatic limb ischemia with exertion

neurogenic claudication is pain with waling or when standing, that radiates from the spinal area to the buttox, thighs or lower legs/feet

48
Q

The ankle-brachial index is a screening test used to assess a person’s risk for:

a. DVT
b. PAD
c. Venous insufficiency
d. thromboangitis obliterans

A

b. PAD

The ankle-brachial index is a quick, non-invasive way to check a person’s risk of PAD. It compares blood pressure in the ankle and in the arm and measures the difference.

a low index is indicative of a narrowing or blockage in the artery

49
Q
In older adults the presence of heart sound S4 suggests
a. HTN
b. HF
c, Aortic aneurysm 
d. aortic stenosis
A

a. HTN

S4 is when the atria contract and force blood into a left ventricle that is non-compliant. This can be the result of diastolic HF, HTN, Infarction

is known as an “atrial gallop” this is always abnormal

50
Q

A disease that may present as indigestion, but is precipitated by exertion and relieved by rest is most likely:

a. GERD
b. IBD
c. angina
d. aortic stenosis

A

c. angina

51
Q

A patient suspected of having chronic venous insufficiency, may present with:

a. calf asymmetry
b. a brownish discoloration just above the malleus
c. absent right pedal pulse
d. decreased femoral pulse

A

b. a brownish discoloration just above the malleus

calf asymmetry is suggestive of DVT
decreased or absent pulse is suggestive of arterial vascular disease

52
Q

When palpating the carotid pulse, it is important to:

a. place fingers on the upper third of neck
b. palpate both carotids simultaneously
c. position the patient in the lying or sitting positions
d. position the patient’s chin on the chest

A

c. position the patient in the lying or sitting positions

53
Q

Characteristics of chronic arterial insufficiency may include which one of the following?

a. persistent leg pain
b. petechia leading to brown pigmentation noted over the feet
c. feet warm to the touch
d. feet appear pale on elevation and dusky red on dependence

A

d. feet appear pale on elevation and dusky red on dependence

54
Q

A patient presents with chest pain that radiates to the left side of the neck and down the left arm when he chops wood. This type of pain could be suggestive of:

a. an early onset myocardial infarction
b. angina pectoris
c. conchochodritis
d. a directing aneurysm

A

b. angina pectoris

always caused by or preceded by exertional pain

sx with a MI include a retrosternal type pain that often radiates up to the neck, shoulder, and jaw, down to the ulnar aspect of the left arm

a sudden sharp pain that radiates to the back or into the neck is usually associated with aortic dissection

55
Q

To assess aortic pulsation in patients with a carotid obstruction, assess the pulse using the

a. temporal artery
b. brachial artery
c. femoral artery
d. popliteal

A

b. brachial artery

aortic pulsation is most accurately assessed by palpating the carotid arteries, HOWEVER if the carotid arteries are blocked, the brachial artery should be palpated to reflect aortic pulsation

56
Q

When auscultating the PMI, apex of the heart, in an adult, the stethoscope is placed

a. 3rd intercostal space to the left of the midclavicular line
b. fifth intercostal space to the left of the midclavicular line
c. fourth intercostal space to the right of the midclavicular line
d. fifth intercostal space to the right of the midclavicular line

A

b. fifth intercostal space to the left of the midclavicular line

57
Q

A patient describes chest pain as pressing, squeezing, and tight lasting between 1 and 2 minutes. These symptoms are more characteristic of:

a. MI
b. costochondritis
c. pericarditis
d. dissecting aortic aneurysm

A

a. MI

58
Q

In older adults, the presence of heart sound 3 suggests:

a. HTN
b. HF
c. aortic aneurysm
d. aortic stenosis

A

b. HF

In older adults S3 suggests dilation of the left vertical from heart failure or cardiomyopathy. S3 is produced when blood strikes a compliant left ventricle. It commonly accompanies fluid overload. It may be normal in children or in pregnant women

sounds like “ kentucky”

59
Q

A sudden tearing, sharp, pain that begins in the chest and radiates to the back or into the neck is usually associated with:

a. angina pectoris
b. a MI
c. an aortic dissection
d. pericarditis

A

c. an aortic dissection

60
Q

Right atrial pressure can be determined by:

a. palpating the carotid pulse
b. identifying the pulsations of the right jugular vein
c. analyzing arterial blood gasses
d. assessing dependent edema

A

b. identifying the pulsations of the right jugular vein

61
Q

A pediatric patient presents with erythema marginatum, chorea, and a heart murmur. These symptoms are consistent with:

a. Kawasaki Disease
b. Rheumatic heart disease
c. infectious endocarditis
d. sickle cell disease

A

b. Rheumatic heart disease

Chorea = uncontrolled movements of the extremities other sx are joint pain and SOB. usually also have a history of a recent strep infection

kwasaki patients usually present with unexplained fever for 5 days along with these 5 sx: bilat non-purulent conjunctivitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, edema of the hands and/or feet, strawberry tongue and a macular rash

62
Q

Breath sounds heard in the hilar region are

a. bronchial
b. abnormal
c. Broncho vesicular
d. vesicular

A

c. Broncho vesicular

have a full inspiratory phase with a shortened softer expiratory phase normally heard on the hilar (area around the center of lungs near the heart) almost sound whispy

63
Q

breath sounds consisting of a full inspiratory and expiratory phase with the inspiratory phase usually being louder and normally heard over trachea and larynx are considered:

a. bronchial
b. abnormal
c. Broncho vesicular
d. vesicular

A

a. bronchial

64
Q

orthopnea is typically associated with all of the following conditions except

a. Left ventricular hypertrophy
b. PE
c. mitral stenosis
d. obstructive lung disease

A

b. PE

orthopnea is dyspnea that occurs when lying down

65
Q

A disease that may present as indigestion, but is precipitated by exertion and relieved by rest is most likely:

a. GERD
b. IBD
c. angina
d. aortic stenosis

A

c. angina

66
Q

On auscultation of the chest, if the patient says “99” and it is clearly heard this is indicative of:

a. a normal sounding chest
b. lung density in the area
c. consolidation or compression in the area
d. inflammation in the area

A

c. consolidation or compression in the area

This test is called bronchophony
egophony is having the patient say eeee. If it is heard as ayyyy that means consolidation

67
Q

When percussing in the chest in a patient who has left sided heart failure, the sound heard would be

a. resonant
b. dull
c. tympany
d. diffusely hyperresonant

A

a. resonant

a patient with left sided heart failure experiences increased pressure in the pulmonary veins causing congestion and interstitial edema.

dullsound in the lung would mean consolidation
tympany heard over abdomen or when pneumothorax is present in the lungs
COPD produces hyperresonant d/t over inflation

68
Q

When percussing the right upper posterior area of the chest, a dullness replaces the resonance sound usually heard in the lung. The sound would be suggestive of

a. lobar pneumonia
b. emphysema
c. asthma
d. pneumothorax

A

a. lobar pneumonia

Normal lungs produce resonance = loud high pitched sounds when percussed.
dull ness where lung tissue is supposed to be is indicative of fluid or solid tissue replacing air

also indicative of pleural effusion, hemothorax or empyema

emphysema asthma and COPD would produce hyperressonance

69
Q

Breath sounds auscultated over the periphery of the lung fields are quiet and whispy during the inspiratory phase followed by a short, almost silent expiratory phase. these breath sounds are considered

a. vesicular
b. bronchovesicular
c. bronchial
d. crackles

A

a. vesicular

70
Q

when palpating the thorax, a crackling, popping noise under the skin is heard. On auscultation, a sound similar to hair being rubbed between the fingers is noted. These symptoms could be consistent

a. pneumonia
b. hemothorax
c. pneumothorax
d. bronchitis

A

c. pneumothorax