GI Flashcards

1
Q

What 2 meds commonly cause esophagitis

A

NSAIDs

Bisphophonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pt w/ asthma and GERD not responsive to antacids

A barium swallow will show a ribbed esophagus and multiple corrugated rings

A

eosinophilic esophagitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

shallow punched out lesions on EGD

tx?

A

HSV esophagitis

tx w/ acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

large solitary ulcers or erosions on EGD

tx?

A

CMV esophagitis

tx w/ ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

tx for corrosive esophagitis

A

steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tx for esophageal spasm (corkscrew esophagus on barium)

A

Nitro

CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Virchow’s node (lyphadenopathy at the left supraclavicular region

A

gastric cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Signs of what

Virchow’s node (left Supraclavicular)

Sister Mary Joseph’s node (Umbilical)

A

gastric cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Endoscopic finding: Linitis plastica

Finding of wht?

A

gastric cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What things in your diet increase risk of gastric cancer

Where is it MC

A

smoked meats, high nitrates, low fruits and vegetables, alcohol, tobacco

Very common in Japan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the sxs of gastric cancer

“WEAPON”

A

Weight loss
Emesis
Anorexia
Pain/epigastric discomfort
Obstruction
Nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is diagnostic for Zollinger Ellison syndrome

A

gastrin levels (> 150 pg/mL is suggestive - > 200 pg/mL is diagnostic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

50% of patients with PUD + diarrhea have what

A

zollinger ellison syndroms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what bacteria most commonly causes cholangitis

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is Charcot’s triad

Reynaulds pentad?

A

CHARCOTS= F + Jaundice + RUQ pain

Reynaulds= above + hypotension + AMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what antibiotic is a major cause of biliary sludge

A

ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the most concerning hepatitis for babies

A

Hep E + mother –> high infant mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Travel from asia is indicative of what hepatitis

A

hep A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is elevated in HCC

A

Alpha fetoprotein

(if elevated then get MRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

fever + abdominal pain in patient with cirrhosis= ?

A

spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Budd Chiari (hepatic vein thrombosis) is triad of what?

A

abdominal pain

ascites

hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MCC acute pancreatitis

(“GET SMASHED”)

A

Gallstones

Ethanol

Trauma

Steroids

Mumps

Autoimmune disease

Scorpion sting

Hypercalcemia

Hyperlipidemia

ERCP

Drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what test is most sensitive for chronic pancreatitis

A

ERCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

tumor marker for pancreatic cancer

A

CA 19-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is Courvoisier’s sign.

A

Nontender, palpable gallbladder

may indicate pancreatic neoplasm.

26
Q

MC pancreatic cancer

A

ductal adenocarcinoma- usu. @ head of the pancreas

27
Q

what node is seen in pancreatic cancer

A

Virchow’s node (left supraclavicular)

28
Q

what 2 blood tests can be useful in testing for celiac dz

A

IgA endomysial antibody

IgA tTG antibody

29
Q

the malabsorption syndrome in celiac disease is due to what

A

sensitivity to Gliadin (a fraction of GLUTEN)

30
Q

what is seen on histology on a biopsy from someone with celiacs dz

A

villous atrophy

hypertrophy of intestinal crypts

incr. lymphocytes in lamina propria

31
Q

What 2 bacteria are MCly implicated in diverticulosis

A

E. coli

Bacteroides fragilis

32
Q

currant jelly stool

A

intussusception

33
Q

abd. x-ray showing: “Crescent sign” or a “Bull’s eye/target sign/coiled spring lesion”

ultasound showing: “target sign”

A

intussusception

34
Q

What holistic remedy can help in IBS (hint: oil)

A

peppermint oil

35
Q

What are the ALARM symptoms for GI

A

Weight loss

Iron deficiency anemia

FHx of certain organic GI illnesses (eg, inflammatory bowel disease, celiac sprue, colorectal cancer)

rectal bleeding

nocturnal symptoms

36
Q

what will be seen on abdominal x-ray in ischemic bowel

A

“thumb-printing” of small bowel or right colon due to submucosal bleeding

37
Q

what is gold standard for dx of ischemic bowel

A

Mesenteric angiography

38
Q

tx for ischemic bowel

A

revascularization

39
Q

What is the hydrogen breath test vs the urea breath test for?

A

hydrogen breath test= lactose intolerance

Urea breath test= H. pylori

40
Q

Colonic Polyps:

_______ adenomas have a 30-70% risk of malignant transformation

A

villous adenomas

41
Q
  • 1st degree relatives of patients with Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) should undergo genetic screening after what age
A

10 y/o

42
Q

The family of patients with Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) should undergo yearly sigmoidoscopy beginning at what age

A

12y/o

43
Q

if an adenometous colonic polyp is removed during colonoscopy, when should colonoscopy be repeated

A

3-5yrs

44
Q

colonic polyps: what 3 things increases risk of malignant transformation

A
  1. villous adenoma
  2. Large polyp (the larger, the higher the risk)
  3. The higher the number of polyps
45
Q

which 2 meds may help prevent formation of new polyps in patients with polyps or colon cancer

A

Aspirin

COX-2 inhibitors

46
Q

Toxic megacolon is commonly a complication of what disease

A

ulcerative colitis

(less commonly Chrons)

47
Q

tx for toxic megacolon

A

decompression of the colon

+/- colectomy

48
Q

what is the most common site of an anal fissure

A

Posterior midline (comparatively low blood flow)

49
Q

What is a sentinel pile

A

Thickened mucosa/skin at the distal end of an anal fissure that is often confused with a small hemorrhoid

50
Q

tx for anal fissures

A

Fluid, fiber, sitz baths

Nitro ointment, topical CCB, or botox

if resistent: Lateral anal sphincterotomy

51
Q

tx for rectal abscess

A

surgical drainage + warm-water cleansing, analgesics, stool softeners and a high-fiber diet

52
Q

What disease process should you be worried about in an elderly person with recurrent fecal impaction?

A

colon cancer

53
Q

At what age should you refer to surgery if an umbilical hernia persists that was present at birth

A

>2y/o

54
Q

Location of direct inguinal hernia

A

Passage of intestine through the external inguinal ring at Hesselbach triangle

RARELY enters the scrotum

55
Q

child w/ a musty, mousy odor

A

PKU

56
Q

How is PKU inherited

A

autosomal recessive disorder

(absent phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH) enzyme activity)

Affects CNS—> mental retardation

57
Q

tx for PKU?

A

lifelong dietary phenylalanine restriction (low protein)

Foods high in phenylalanine:

  • milk
  • cheese
  • nuts
  • fish
  • chicken
  • meats
  • eggs
  • legumes
  • aspartame (in diet soda)
58
Q

What can act as a poison for patients with PKU

A

the sweetener aspartame

59
Q

blond, blue-eyed, with fair skin, mental retardation, eczema, and a musty, mousy body odor

A

PKU

60
Q

How often should the phenylalanine levels of infants undergoing treatment for phenylketonuria be monitored?

A

weekly