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BMS > Lecture NC's for Test 2 Week 2 > Flashcards

Lecture NC's for Test 2 Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Mostly function by dimerizing in the presence of ligand and activating intracellular kinase activity

-Inactive as monomers

A

Protein kinase receptors

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2
Q

An example of desensitization of receptors is seen in the

A

β-adrenergic receptor

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3
Q

What are the 4 classes of intermediate filaments?

A
  1. ) Nuclear
  2. ) Vimentin-like (Desmin = Muscle, Vimentin = mesenchymal)
  3. ) Epithelial
  4. ) Axonal
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4
Q

What is the largest of the motor proteins?

A

Dynein

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5
Q

Regulate myosin and can be phosphorylated

-often comprised of calmodulin

A

Light chains of Myosin

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6
Q

Dynein binds microtubules through the

A

Stalk

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7
Q

The motor domain of dynein does NOT contain the

A

Microtubule binding domain

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8
Q

Defect in recognizing signal of peroxisomal proteins

A

Zellweger syndrome

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9
Q

We never find glycosylated molecules in the

A

Cytoplasm

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10
Q

Glycosylation occurs in the

A

Lumen of the ER

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11
Q

Lysosomal proteins receive their M-6-P tags in the

A

cis-Golgi

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12
Q

Lysosomal proteins bind M-6-P receptor in the

A

trans-Golgi

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13
Q

Clathrin does not directly bind to the membrane receptors. Instead, it binds

A

Adaptin

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14
Q

Keeps enzymes from leaking out into underlying tissue

A

Tight Junctions

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15
Q

Expressed highly in parts of the renal tubules where Ca2+ and Mg2+ resorption takes place

A

Claudins 16 and 19 (tight junctions)

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16
Q

What would you expect from a patient with a mutation in the tight junction proteins claudin 16 and 19?

A

Serum: Low Ca2+ and Mg2+
Urine: High Ca2+ and Mg2+

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17
Q

Cadherin mutations can lead to

A

Developmental disorders

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18
Q

Mutations in connexin 26 lead to

A

Deafness

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19
Q

Mutations in connexin 32 lead to

A

Peripheral neuropathies

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20
Q

Calcium dependent cell adhesion molecules (CAMs) with a carbohydrate recognition domain (CRD)

A

Selectins

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21
Q

Major component of the lamina densa

A

Collagen IV

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22
Q

Mostly found in connective tissue where it connects the connective tissue to the lamina densa

A

Collagen VII

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23
Q

Transmembrane collagen that anchors epithelial cells to basal lamina

A

Collagen XVII

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24
Q

Proteoglycan that has a noncovalent interaction with hyaluronic acid

-abundant in cartilage

A

Aggrecan

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25
Q

Proteoglycan with heparin sulfate GAG that is located in the basal lamina and associates with collagen IV

A

Perlecan

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26
Q

Proteoglycan with chondroitin sulfate GAG that is located in fibroblasts and epithelial cells and helps stabilize interaction of FGF with receptor

A

Syndecan-1

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27
Q

Focal adhesions form at the site of bound

A

Integrin

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28
Q

Maintains phosphotidylserine in inner leaflet

A

Flippase

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29
Q

Enzyme that causes phosphotidylserine to flip to outer leaflet

A

Scrambalase

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30
Q

Cleave ICAD to make CPAN, which oligomerizes and becomes active DNAse

A

Caspases 3 and 7

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31
Q

How can we determine a cell is autophagic?

A

Lots of vacuoles

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32
Q

How can we determine that a cell is apoptotic?

A

Dark color in nucleus from chromatin condensation and DNA laddering

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33
Q

How can we determine that a cell is necrotic?

A

Ruptured membrane

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34
Q

The TGF-β signaling pathway peptides bind as dimers to

A

Serine-Threonine Kinases

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35
Q

The FGF signaling pathway peptides bind as monomers to

A

Tyrosine kinases

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36
Q

A mutation in which TGF-β peptide will prevent formation of mesoderm and primitive streak?

A

Nodal

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37
Q

Suppresses mesoderm and nervous system formation and promotes epidermis formation

A

BMP-4

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38
Q

Leads to nodal expression on one side of the embryo and left-right sideness

-promotes noggin and chordin expression to inhibit BMP4

A

FGF

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39
Q

Embryogenesis occurs during weeks

A

1-3

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40
Q

Once a mature follicle is formed, it will discharge an oocyte. This is called

A

Ovulation

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41
Q

Fertilization takes place in the

A

Ampulla of the uterus

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42
Q

The layers surrounding the mature oocyte are mature follicular cells. The follicular cells that are left behind become the

A

Corpus luteum

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43
Q

Maintains the corpus luteum so that is can secrete progesterone and maintain the endometrium

-secreted by trophoblasts

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

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44
Q

Non-cellular glycoprotein layer surrounding oocyte

A

Zona Pellucida

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45
Q

The corona radiata is also known as the

A

Cumulous Ooforous

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46
Q

What is triggered in the oocyte upon fertilization

A

Meiosis II

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47
Q

What are the two ways that the Oocyte blocks polyspermy?

A
  1. ) Instant depolarization

2. ) Intracellular Ca2+ tsunami that induces cortical reaction

48
Q

Cortical granules line ZP and secrete enzymes that make it impermeable to other sperm

A

Cortical reaction

49
Q

Have separate amniotic cavities and separate or shared placentas

-Can be same or opposite sex

A

Dizygotic twins

50
Q

Morulla cells start to secrete

A

ICM and OCM

51
Q

Occurs by the end of week one, around day 6

A

Implantation

52
Q

Embryoblast cells differentiate into epiblast (top) and hypoblast (bottom) cells to form the

A

Bilaminar disc

53
Q

Located above the epiblast layer

A

Amniotic cavity

54
Q

Located below the hypoblast layer

A

Yolk sac

55
Q

Insufficient amniotic fluid

A

Oligohydraminos

56
Q

Too much amniotic fluid

A

Polyhydraminos

57
Q

When hypoblast cells differentiate and line the trophoblast cells, they convert the blastocyst into the

A

Yolk sac

58
Q

Allow for blood exchange between yolk sac and embryo

-where early exchange occurs

A

Vitelline Vessels

59
Q

Germ cells from the yolk sac form the

A

Gonads

60
Q

Waste moves from the fetus to the placenta through the

A

Fetal arteries (there are 2)

61
Q

The mesoderm differentiates into the

A

Paraxial, intermediate, and lateral plate mesoderms

62
Q

Differentiates into somite mesoderm

A

Paraxial mesoderm

63
Q

Will split into the parietal/somatic layer and the splanchnic/visceral layer

A

Lateral mesoderm

64
Q

Form when primitive steak fails to completely regress

-can contain multiple tissue types such as skin, teeth, etc

A

Teratomas

65
Q

An area of mesenchyme that contains signals which instruct the developing limb bud to form along the anterior/posterior axis

A

Zone of Polarizing Activity (ZPA)

66
Q

Sonic hedgehog is expressed in the

A

Notochord

67
Q

In the adult brain, Shh is expressed in the

A

Hippocampus

68
Q

An extra digit on pinky side of hand or feet

-Results from Gli haploinsufficiency

A

Postaxial polydactyly

69
Q

Wnt signaling is associated with cancer, especially

A

Colon Cancer

70
Q

Which transcription factor aids in the fusion of the neural tube?

A

Snail

71
Q

c-Kit is which type of receptor?

A

Tyrosine kinase

72
Q

Cardiac outflow track cells require

A

Crkl

73
Q

Growth factors stabilize p53 through

-sequesters MDM2 (HDM2)

A

p14ARF

74
Q

Things that inhibit the cell cycle are classified as

A

Tumor Suppressor genes

75
Q

What are the oncogenes of the mTOR pathway?

A

PI3K, AKT (PKB), and mTOR

76
Q

What are the tumor suppressor genes of the mTOR pathway?

A

PTEN and TSC

77
Q

Pail membranes of the eyes

-good indicator of anemia

A

Conjunctival Pallor

78
Q

Tells us what types of WBCs are in the population

A

CBC w/ differential

79
Q

Enzyme found in granules of WBCs

A

Myeloperoxidase

80
Q

How can we differentiate Myeloid cells and Lymphoid cells in a blood smear?

A

Myeloid cells: much bigger than RBCs

Lymphoid cells: about same size as RBCs

81
Q

In the CML translocation, the Bcr and Abl breakpoints both occur in

-splicing remains in tact and chimeric protein is made

A

Introns

82
Q

What type of mutation is the balanced translocation leading to the formation of Bcr-Abl

A

Gain-of-function

83
Q

Bcr-Abl being trapped in the cytoplasm prevents maturation of myeloid cells and results in

A

Blasts

84
Q

Otd and Otx1 are and example of

A

Orthologs

85
Q

Hoxa2 and Hoxb2 are an example of

A

Paralogs

86
Q

The vertebral skeleton

A

Scleretome

87
Q

The skeletal muscle

A

Myotome

88
Q

Stops the destruction complex from phosphorylating β-catenin

A

Disheveled

89
Q

Smootheneds natural ligand may be an

A

Oxysterol

90
Q

p14ARF is transcribed from DNA that also encodes a

A

CDK inhibitor

91
Q

A trunicated/mutant protein can have which type of affect?

A

A dominant negative effect

92
Q

Caused by constitutive action of c-RET

A

Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN)

93
Q

How can we treat constitutively active mutations in protein kinase?

A

An inhibitor like Gleevec that binds near ATP binding site and prevents binding

94
Q

Characterized by NC-derived intermediate cells being lost. There is no endolymph, and hair cells die

A

Waardenburg’s Syndrome

95
Q

The main mutation causing Waardenburg’s is a mutation in

A

Micropthalmia transcription factor (MITF)

96
Q

Expressed ion melanocyte populations such as in the iris, the skin, and the cochlear duct (supports hair cells)

A

MITF

97
Q

Without functional MITF, there will be no endolymph in the ear and the result will be

A

Deafness

98
Q

Located downstream of c-kit and the steel factor ligand via MAP kinase

A

MITF

99
Q

The target genes of MITF include

A

Bcl-2 (anti-apoptotic) and melanin

100
Q

Waardenburg II clinical syndrome may also be caused by mutations in

A

Slug

101
Q

Not affected by slug mutation

A

MITF expression

102
Q

On the outside of the cell and facilitates LDL binding to receptor

-mutations prevent LDL from binding receptor

A

Apolipoprotein B

103
Q

Bind to receptors on inner nuclear membrane and to chromatin an transcription factors from the nucleoplasm

A

Lamins

104
Q

If lamina is disrupted, detrimental effects could easily arise from mislocalization of

A

Proteins/chromatin

105
Q

Intermediate filaments assemble as

A

Coiled-coil dimers

106
Q

Characterized by a splice defect in lamin A that prevents cleavage of a lipid chain

A

Progeria

107
Q

Continued farnesylation (lipid attachment) to Lamin A leads to Lamin A incorporation into

A

Nuclear envelope

108
Q

Atypical-Werner’s syndrome could result from altered helicase attachment site in

A

Lamin A

109
Q

Interact as a complex with clotting factors V and VIII

A

LMAN and MCDF2

110
Q

Without either LMAN or MCFD2, clotting factors V and VIII can not be incorporated into

A

COP-II vesicles

111
Q

The myosin Va link to the melanosome is abolished in

-shows neurological problems

A

Griscelli type I

112
Q

How does a melanosome attach to myosin Va?

A

Rab27 binds melanosome first, then melanophilin binds, then myosin V

113
Q

The Rab27a link to the melanosome is disrupted in

-shows immune problems

A

Griscelli II

114
Q

By and large an inhibitor of cell division because smad transcription factors activated by this signalling promote synthesis of CDK inhibitors

A

TGF-β signaling

115
Q

Are typically both necessary and sufficient to generate specific body parts and/or cell types

A

Homeobox transcription factors

116
Q

The Philadelphia chromosome (short Ch22) gains genetic material from

-results in the production of abnormal protein

A

Chromosome 9

117
Q

Another name for hematopoetic stem cells is

A

CD34 positive cells

BMS (62 decks)

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