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Pigs > BB AALA Ch15 Swine > Flashcards

BB AALA Ch15 Swine Flashcards

1
Q
  1. True or False: Miniature breeds are more mature than domestic swine at the same body weight.
A

TRUE

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2
Q
  1. At what age do domestic and miniature pigs achieve sexual maturity?
A

4-6 months

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are true?
    a. Swine are highly susceptible to ventricular arrhythmias
    b. Swine have fragile pulmonary tissue that may be damaged by overinflation
    c. Swine have a left hemizygous vein that drains the intercostal vessels into the coronary sinus
    d. All of the above
A

D

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4
Q
  1. Intramuscular injections may be given in the major muscles of the _____ and in the _____.
A

THIGH and NECK

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5
Q
  1. Subcutaneous injections may be given in the _____ and in the _____.
A

NECK and FLANK

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6
Q
  1. The _____ are the most common site for IV injections.
A

ear veins

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7
Q
  1. True or False: If the cephalic vein is occluded and laterally rotated by the thumb, as is commonly done with the dog, the vessel will collapse and become inaccessible.
A

True – it is better to use a tourniquet to occlude the cephalic vein for injections.

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8
Q
  1. The _____ are deep in the pig and lie in the same plane as the internal jugular veins and carotid arteries.
A

external jugular veins

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9
Q
  1. The open-handed slap technique involves the insertion of a _____ catheter needle into the _____ after lightly slapping the skin a few times.
A

butterfly, neck

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10
Q
  1. One method of endotracheal intubation in pigs
A

dorsal, epiglottis, larynx

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11
Q
  1. Pigs weighing more than 50 kg are usually placed in _____ recumbency for intubation.
A

sternal

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12
Q
  1. True or False: Use of nitrous oxide as a sole anesthetic agent in pigs is contraindicated because its low potency results in the inability to maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia.
A

True

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13
Q
  1. What is the primary advantage of using nitrous oxide?
A

Reduce the requirement of other volatile anesthetics resulting in less CV depression (however this reduction is less than that seen in humans)

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14
Q
  1. Neonatal piglets exposed to isoflurane develop moderate-to-severe _____ and marked _____ with preservation of cardiac output.
A

bradycardia and hypotension

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15
Q
  1. True or False: Isoflurane causes hepatic injury in swine.
A

FALSE

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following inhalant anesthetics is considered the agent of choice for swine?
    a. Halothane
    b. Desflurance
    c. Isoflurane
    d. Sevoflurane
    e. Methoxyflurane
A

C

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17
Q
  1. Sevoflurane may be advantageous in _____ because the cerebral blood flow response is the opposite of that which occurs with isoflurane, nitrous oxide, and most other inhalant agents.
A

neuroanesthesia

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18
Q
  1. True or False: Sevoflurane should be considered the primary alternative to isoflurane in cases involving depressed hemodynamics or neurological procedures.
A

TRUE

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19
Q
  1. Desflurane is pungent, making _____ difficult.
A

mask induction

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20
Q
  1. True or False: Desflurane requires an electrically heated, pressurized vaporizer for delivery.
A

TRUE

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21
Q
  1. Desflurane is similar to isoflurane in its anesthetic effects. Which one costs more?
A

desflurane

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22
Q
  1. Benzodiazepine tranquilizers used in swine include _____ and _____.
A

diazepam and midazolam

23
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding benzodiazepine tranquilizers in swine?
    a. provide good hypnosis and sedation
    b. associated with hypothermia with prolonged use
    c. can be reversed with flumazenil
    d. can be given as continuous IV infusions
    e. all of the above
A

E

24
Q
  1. True or False: Alpha2-adrenergic agonists (e.g., xylazine and medetomidine) are effective sedatives/analgesics when given alone to swine.
A

False. Neither agent has been described as providing sedation or more than transient analgesia without combination with other agents.

25
Q
  1. Which is true regarding dissociatives (ketamine) in swine?
    a. rapid immobilization with minimal cardiovascular depression
    b. excellent muscle relaxation
    c. good visceral analgesia
    d. is often used as a sole agent for major surgery
    e. rarely used injectable agent
A

A

26
Q
  1. True or False: The pig is prone to apnea secondary to administration of barbiturates.
A

TRUE

27
Q
  1. Because thiobarbiturates (e.g. Thiopental) are rapidly eliminated by the kidney, they have a _____ recovery time.
A

short

28
Q
  1. Pentobarbital is (more or less) cardiodepressant than the thiobarbiturates with longer recovery times due to prolonged metabolism by the _____.
A

more; liver

29
Q
  1. Continuous IV infusions of opioids have been used in swine:
    a. to enhance analgesia
    b. produce balanced anesthesia
    c. produce anesthesia for experimental cardiac surgery
    d. to protect against cardiac arrhythmias
    e. all of the above
A

E

30
Q
  1. True or False: Opioid infusion techniques produce minimal bradycardia during the IV bolus phase.
A

FALSE

31
Q
  1. Which is true regarding epidural analgesia in swine?
    a. most commonly performed at lumbosacral space using morphine
    b. technique deposits analgesic within epidural space
    c. contraindicated in pigs in a state of shock or toxemic
    d. produces analgesia caudal to the umbilicus
    e. all of the above
A

E

32
Q
  1. _____ has been reported to cause excitement in non-painful swine, similar to the reaction reported in cats.
A

morphine

33
Q
  1. _____ is the post-op analgesic (opioid) of choice in swine, effective for 8-12 hours.
A

Buprenorphine

34
Q
  1. True or False: Short-term administration of newer NSAIDS in swine causes significant interference with platelet levels, GI function, and healing.
A

False

35
Q
  1. Which is true regarding newer NSAID use in swine?
    a. typically given pre-emptively prior to making the skin incision
    b. combined with opioids for severe pain control
    c. initial dose may be the only one required
    d. may be combined with local anesthetic use, nerve blocks, a/o epidural injections
    e. all of the above
A

E

36
Q
  1. Normal heart rate in swine is _____ to _____ beats per minute.
A

70-150

37
Q
  1. True or False: Ocular reflexes are reliable indicators of anesthetic depth in swine.
A

False

38
Q
  1. True or False: Normal swine have a prolonged Q-T interval that may appear abnormal to those unfamiliar with interpreting porcine ECGs.
A

True

39
Q
  1. True or False: Miniature swine are less susceptible to cardiac arrhythmias than commercial breeds of swine.
A

True

40
Q
  1. _____ infusions may be used to prevent cardiac arrhthymias in swine.
A

lidocaine

41
Q
  1. Which is true regarding administration of fluids to swine?
    a. typically given via ear vein catheter
    b. balanced solution (e.g. LRS) given at maintenance rate of 5-10 ml/kg/hr
    c. warmed IV fluids will help maintain body temperature during prolonged procedures
    d. all of the above
A

D

42
Q
  1. The pig is prone to _____ because it is relatively hairless and has a large body surface area.
A

hypothermia

43
Q
  1. Extubation should be performed only after a strong _____ reflex is apparent.
A

swallowing

44
Q
  1. Which is true regarding malignant hyperthermia in swine?
    a. a genetic condition in certain breeds of domestic swine
    b. transmitted as an autosomal dominant gene
    c. encountered as an anesthetic complication during surgical procedures
    d. involves an inability to control intracellular ionized calcium levels
    e. all of the above
A

E

45
Q
  1. The first cardinal clinical sign of MH is an elevation in .
A

end tidal CO2

46
Q
  1. If unchecked, fulminant MH will progress to with severe hyperkalemia, increased serum CK, myoglobinemia, myoglobinuria, unstable blood pressure, and bradycardia.
A

rhabdomyolysis

47
Q
  1. The drug of choice for treatment and prevention of MH is .
A

dantrolene

48
Q

Describe use of IV infusions of opioids in pigs, including its main advantage as a research application.

A

High dose opioid anesthetic techniques produce minimal depression of cardiac function and protect against arrhythmias. Fentanyl and sufentanil are most commonly used agents.

AALA, p 421

49
Q

Describe the logistics of a continuous IV infusion of opioids in pigs.

A

Start the IV infusion before bolus to prevent muscle rigidity. The bolus phase will produce profound bradycardia which can be controlled with anticholinergics. Heart rate stabilizes during the maintenance phase.

AALA, p 421

50
Q

Describe the cardiovascular effects of isoflurane in pigs.

A

Has a wide margin of cardiovascular safety. Produces dose-dependent depression of aortic pressure, cardiac output, and stroke volume.

AALA, p 417

51
Q

Describe responses of neonatal pigs to isoflurane. Explain.

A

Newborn piglets, 2-17 days old, develop moderate-severe bradycardia and marked hypotension, although cardiac output is preserved. This is due to an immature sympathetic nervous system relative to a well-developed parasympathetic system.

AALA, p 417

52
Q

Describe use of phenothiazine derivatives in cardiac studies in pigs.

A

Phenothiazine derivative tranquilizers produce alpha-adrenergic blockade at higher doses, and may be contraindicated for some cardiovascular studies.

AALA, p 419

53
Q

Describe use of anticholinergics in swine.

A

Useful for: drying secretions in mouth and respiratory tract, providing vagolytic effect, and preventing bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation (e.g. intubation, secondary to induction, preanesthetics such as opioids).
Not necessary unless HR<60.
Sinus tachycardia can result from indiscriminate use.

54
Q

Describe opioid use as analgesics in swine.

A

Short acting opioids are of limited use except as CRI. Those are: fentanyl, sufentanil, meperidine, oxymorphone, pentazocine.
Morphine has been shown to cause excitement in non-painful swine, similar to cats.
Butorphanol (q 4-6 hr) is longer acting and has few side effects. Buprenorphine is the post-op analgesic of choice because at higher doses is effective for 8-12 hours. It has been shown to have non-significant respiratory depressive effects.

AALA, p 423

Pigs (4 decks)

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