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Pigs > BB Ch 15 > Flashcards

BB Ch 15 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Swine are in the order ___________, which contained the even-toed _______________.
A

Artiodactyla; Ungulates

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2
Q
  1. What is the common weight and age range for research pigs?
A

15-30 Kg at 8-12 weeks of age

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3
Q
  1. The weight gain range of swine is:
A

2-5 Kg/week

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4
Q
  1. Experts suggest that projects with duration of greater than ___________ be carried out with miniature swine due to the rapid weight gain that swine normally have.
A

3 weeks

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5
Q
  1. Name the five common miniature swine breeds used in research.
A
  1. Yucatans, Hanford, Sinclair, Hormel, Gottingen
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6
Q
  1. In the United States, weanling swine are commonly vaccinated against which two diseases?
A
  1. Erysipelas and leptosporosis
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7
Q
  1. Breeding herds should also be vaccinated against all but which of the following diseases:
    a. Porcine parvovirus
    b. Bordetella bronchiseptica
    c. Pasturella multocida
    d. Escherichia coli
    e. Rabies
A

e. Rabies

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8
Q
  1. What is the recommended minimum acclimation period for research swine?
A

72 hours

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9
Q
  1. What nutritional component should be increased in a pig’s diet when it has stress-induced diarrhea?
A

Fiber

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10
Q
  1. The two areas on a pig that are suitable for intramuscular injection are the ____________ and ____________.
A

neck, hindlimbs

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11
Q
  1. Pigs make a genetic model for which of the following heart defects?
    a. High membranous ventricular septal defect
    b. Mitral valve prolapse
    c. Coarctation of the aorta
    d. Transposition of the great vessels
A

a. High membranous ventricular septal defect

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12
Q
  1. Pigs make a genetic model for which of the following coagulopathies:
    a. Hemophilia (lack of Factor 8)
    b. DIC
    c. Thrombocytopenia
    d. Von Willebrand’s disease
A

d. Von Willebrand’s disease

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13
Q
  1. The anatomical and physiological characteristics of porcine skin make it a definitive model for ________________ surgery.
A

plastic

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14
Q
  1. What two characteristics of the swine coronary anatomy make them similar to 90% of the human population?
A
  1. Right-side dominant and no pre-existing collateral circulation
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15
Q
  1. The pig stomach has a muscular outpouching, near the pylorus, called the _________________.
A
  1. Torus pyloricus
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16
Q
  1. The majority of the large intestines are in the spiral colon, which is in the _____________ _________________quadrant of the abdomen.
A

left upper

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following choices represents all of the accessory sex organs of boars?
    a. Prostate, vesicular gland
    b. Ductus deferens, prostate, vesicular gland
    c. Ductus deferens, prostate, vesicular gland, bulbourethral gland
    d. Ductus deferens, prostate, bulbourethral gland
A

c. Ductus deferens, prostate, vesicular gland, bulbourethral gland

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18
Q
  1. Diets for mini and micro breeds have lower ______________ and higher ___________ concentrations compared to the food for farm pigs.
A

energy, fiber

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19
Q
  1. Female milk is low in which element?
A

iron

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20
Q
  1. Piglets may get additional amounts of iron if provided access to what?
A

Feces from the dam

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21
Q
  1. The gestation length in swine is:
A

114-115 days

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22
Q
  1. Piglets need to be kept at the following temperature range (at pig level) for the first 3 to 4 weeks of life to prevent hypothermia:
    a. 70-80ºF
    b. 85-90ºF
    c. 90-95ºF
    d. 95-100ºF
A

b. 85-90ºF

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23
Q
  1. True or false. The eyesight of swine is considered poor.
A

True

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24
Q
  1. The cortical and medullary areas of porcine lymph nodes are ___________, as well as in elephants, rhinos, dolphins, hippos and warthogs.
A

inverted

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25
Q
  1. Swine have two different types of Peyer’s patches. One type is located on the ______________ (having both B and T cells) and the other on the ____________(having B cells almost exclusively).
A

jejunum, ileum

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26
Q
  1. By what action does monoclonal antiporcine D3 antibody create in vivo tolerance for xenotransplantation.
A
  1. It induces in vivo immunosuppression
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27
Q
  1. Porcine bone marrow is more similar to people than rodents in the toxicity response to lethal ___________.
A

irradiation

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28
Q
  1. True or false. Swine have a lymphocyte subset that expresses both CD4 and CD8, a characteristic shared by several other species.
A
  1. False. While swine do have a lymphocyte subset that expresses both CD4 and CD8, this subset is unique to swine and is not seen in other species.
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29
Q
  1. There is no transplacental transfer of maternal immunity, making the piglets entirely ____________ dependent for immunity during the first 24 to 48 hours of life.
A

colostrum

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30
Q
  1. Swine colostrum is rich in which type of immunoglobulin?
    a. IgA
    b. IgE
    c. IgG
    d. IgM
A

c. IgG

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31
Q
  1. What are the main leukocytes found in porcine colostrum?
A
  1. Neutrophils and T cells
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32
Q
  1. Intestinal closure for the absorption of IgG in colostrum ends when?
A

24 to 48 hours of life

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33
Q
  1. Swine lack the gene for IgD, which is a precursor to _________.
A

IgM

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34
Q
  1. SLA stands for __________ ________________ ____________, which is equivalent to the major histocompatibility complex.
A

Swine Leukocyte Antigen

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35
Q
  1. The gene for the SLA is located on which chromosome?
A

7

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36
Q
  1. Antigen-antibody complexes are eliminated through the ________ in pigs.
    a. Lungs
    b. Liver
    c. Spleen
    d. Kidneys
A

a. Lungs

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37
Q
  1. How many blood factors do pigs have?
A

78

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38
Q
  1. A researcher can induce an immunodeficiency which removal of which two organs in pigs?
A

Thymus and spleen

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39
Q
  1. The hemolytic disease in neonates related to postnatal absorption of maternal antibodies is called____________________ _______________.
A
  1. Erythroblastosis fetalis
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40
Q
  1. An inherited form of glomerulonephritis is found in which breed of pigs?
    a. Mini-pig Yucatans
    b. Gottingen mini-pigs
    c. Norwegian Yorkshires
    d. Great Whites
A

c. Norwegian Yorkshires

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41
Q
  1. A spontaneous IgA nephropathy has been identified in slaughter pigs from which country?
A

Japan

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42
Q
  1. Two infectious causes of arthritis in swine are ____________________ and ________________. Arthritis induced by these agents has a similar pathogenesis to what human disease?
A
  1. Mycoplasma hyorhinis and Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Rheumatoid arthritis

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43
Q
  1. True or false. Matching SLA skin grafts typically survive for only 2 days.
A
  1. False. Matching SLA skin grafts typically survive for 7 to 12 days
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44
Q
  1. True or false. Vascular grafts and liver transplants survive much longer, sometimes indefinitely.
A

True

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45
Q
  1. Hyperacute rejection of transplanted organs occurs within minutes to hours. This reaction is mediated by ________________.
A

complement

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46
Q
  1. High titers of natural “________________” target carbohydrate antigens expressed on donor tissue __________________.
A

xenoantibodies

endothelium

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47
Q
  1. The cell mediated reaction to transplanted organs typically takes how long (a range)?
A

3-4 days

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48
Q
  1. What branch of science shows the most promise in preventing the rejection of xeontransplanted tissues?
A

Transgenics

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49
Q
  1. Expression of ___________, a human complement regulatory protein, has promoted the survival of swine lungs in a pig to primate model of xenotransplantation.
A

CD59

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50
Q
  1. There are 3 Salmonella spp. which typically cause disease in pigs. Name them.
A

Salmonella choleraesuis var. kunzedorf

S. typhimurium

S. typhisuis.

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51
Q
  1. What are some clinical signs of Salmonella septicemia?
A

Respiratory: Cough, dyspnea, pyrexia.

Enteric: hemorrhagic enterocolitis, anorexia, dehydration, pyrexia.

Other diseases: septicemia, meningitis, lymphadenitis, abortion

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52
Q
  1. What is the source of the 2 main Salmonella spp?
A

S. cholerasuis: other swine and environments contaminated by swine (host-specific).

S. typhimurium: swine and other animals (not host specific)

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53
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of S. cholerasuis?

A
  1. It invades the mucosa of the ilium and is taken up by macrophages.
  2. It produces Shiga- like and cholera-like toxins that are responsible for the microthrombosis and ishemia of vessels in the lamina propria.
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54
Q
  1. What are a couple of ways of preventing Salmonellosis?
A
  1. Minimize stress, practice good sanitation (chorine, iodine, or phenol disinfectants work well.)
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55
Q
  1. Are there vaccines for S. cholerasuis or S. typhimurium?
A
  1. Yes

Modified-live attenuated vaccines for S. cholerasuis

Bacterins for S. typhimurium.

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56
Q

Can Salmonellosis cause complications in research?

A

Yes, duh, with high morbidity and mortality

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57
Q
  1. What causes Glasser¹s disease?
A
  1. Haemophilus parasuis
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58
Q
  1. What are clinical signs and age of presentation of pigs with Glasser¹s disease?
A
  • Pigs are 3 weeks to 4months old
  • Pyrexia, anorexia, depression, lameness, neurological signs, dyspnea, and death. Long-term sequela may be abortion and chronic arthritis
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59
Q
  1. What is the pathogenesis of the organism that causes Glasser¹s disease?
A
  1. H. parasuis is normal flora in non-SPF swine and is opportunistic with swine influenza virus.
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60
Q
  1. What is the best prevention for Glasser¹s disease?
A
  1. Increase immunity in the herd (bacterins, herd-specific vaccines) and minimize stress.
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61
Q
  1. How can Glasser¹s disease complicate research?
A
  1. It can confound cardiovascular studies because the chronic form can produce congestive heart failure and fibrinous pericarditis.
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62
Q
  1. What causes Erysipelas?
A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

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63
Q
  1. What are the signs of erysipelas?
A
  1. Clinical signs range from no signs to a combination of the following: classical rhomboid or diamond-shaped urticarial skin lesions, fever, anorexia, depression, stiff gait, abortion, death.
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64
Q
  1. How do pigs get erysipelas?
A
  • Pigs are the natural reservoir for E. rhusiopathiae.
  • Contact with infected sheep, turkeys, chickens, ducks, and emus can cause infection in pigs.
  • The bacterium gains entry into the pig through the oral route (food or water) or skin wounds.
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65
Q
  1. T or F- Vaccination can prevent the acute and chronic form of erysipelas.
A

False - only the acute

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66
Q
  1. What research complications can arise from erysipelas?
A
  • Acute form: High morbidity and mortality
  • Chronic form: proliferative, non-suppurative arthritis and vegetative proliferation on the heart valves (orthopedic and cardiovascular studies)
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67
Q
  1. What organism causes Streptococcosis in swine?
A
  1. Streptococcus suis (usually type 2)

Lancefield group D

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68
Q
  1. What are the clinical signs of streptococcosis?
A
  • Age 5-16 weeks most commnonly affected
  • Manifestations of meningitis are most characteristic of S. suis type 2 infections
  • Pyrexia to 42.5 C usually initial sign, then anorexia, depression, ataxia, paddling, opisthotonus, convulsions, death
  • Also can cause pneumonia, rhinitis, polyarthritis, stillbirths, abscesses, vaginitis, endocarditis, myocarditis, cyanosis, dyspnea, sudden death
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69
Q
  1. How does transmission occur for streptococcosis?
A
  1. Transmission is by carriers (other animals, birds, humans) or flies between herds. The sow can infect newborns during birth or suckling.
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70
Q
  1. The pathogenesis of S. suis begins with colonization of the ________, then spread to the cribiform plate, or by septicemia.
A

palantine tonsils

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71
Q
  1. How can streptococcosis be prevented?
A
  1. Rederivation or depopulation/repopulation.
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72
Q
  1. T or F- There are vaccines for S. suis.
A
  1. True - live avirulent strains and cell-wall protein vaccines
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73
Q
  1. Cardiovascular research can be complicated due to what manifestation of steptococcosis?
A
  1. Endocarditis and myocarditis
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74
Q
  1. T or F - S. suis is zoonotic.
A

True

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75
Q
  1. Pseudorabies is also known as _________.
A
  1. Aujeszky¹s disease
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76
Q
  1. Pseudorabies virus is in the _________ subfamily of the __________.
A
  1. Alphaherpesvirinae subfamily of the Herpesviridae
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77
Q
  1. The pseudorabies virus impact these two organ systems:
A
  1. Respiratory and CNS
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78
Q
  1. T or F - Pseudorabies in animals other than pigs is subclinical.
A
  1. False. Most animals other than pigs die as a result of infection
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79
Q
  1. Once CNS signs appear in pseudorabies infection, death occurs in _______ (Time period)
A
  1. 24-36 hours
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80
Q
  1. T or F - Close to 100% of pigs develop both respiratory and CNS signs of pseudorabies.
A
  1. False - Mortality is low and most animals develop respiratory signs only.
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81
Q
  1. Transmission of the pseudorabies virus can occur by (choose all that apply)

A) direct contact

B) insemination

C) transplacental route

D) insect bites

A
  1. A, B, and C (insects vectors has not been adequately evaluated)
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82
Q
  1. T or F - Vaccination can help eradicate pseudorabies from a herd.
A
  1. False - vaccination can only protect against clinical signs and DOES NOT prevent infection.
83
Q
  1. T or F - Pseudorabies is a reportable disease
A

True

84
Q
  1. What agents are responsible for atrophic rhinitis (AR)?
A
  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Bordetella bronchoseptica
  • Haemophilus parasuis
  • Other factors include porcine cytomegalovirus, air pollution, and genetics
85
Q
  1. At what age do pigs develop NPAR (non-pasteurella AR)?
A
  1. Suckling pigs, generally less than 4 weeks old
86
Q
  1. At what age do pigs develop PAR (pasteurella AR)?
A
  1. 1-3 months old.
87
Q
  1. How are these organisms of AR spread?
A
  1. Both by direct contact and aerosols.
88
Q
  1. T or F - If pigs older than 3-4 months are exposed to AR agents, the lesions are more severe than if they are exposed when younger.
A
  1. False. Pigs older than 9 weeks show almost no lesions when infected with B. bronchiseptica. Pigs older than 3-4 months do develop lesions, but they are mild, when infected with P. multocida.
89
Q
  1. The production of lesions in AR is dependent on the bacteria¹s ability to produce ________.
A

toxins

90
Q
  1. Name some methods for preventing AR.
A
  • Maintenance of an SPF herd
  • Medicated early weaning
  • Segregated early weaning
  • The focus should be on eliminating toxigenic P. multocida, since it is the most pathogenic agents of the disease
91
Q
  1. How does AR affect research?
A
  1. Toxins produced by severe infections of toxigenic strains will induce liver and kidney lesions, as well as damaging nasal turbinates.
92
Q
  1. What are clinical signs of Pasteurella multocida infection?
A
  1. Dyspnea (called thumping), cough, pyrexia
93
Q
  1. T or F - P.multocida is usually a secondary agent, not the primary cause of disease.
A

True

94
Q
  1. What is the agent responsible for pleuropnemonia (APP) in swine?
A
  1. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
95
Q
  1. What are the clinical signs of Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae (peracute, acute, and chronic)?
A

Peracute: sudden death

Acute: pyrexia, dyspnea (thumping), depression, anorexia

Chronic: cough, decreased rate of weight-gain, pleuritis, abortion, endocarditis, arthritis, abscesses

96
Q
  1. Transmission of Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae is by _________.
A

Direct contact and aerosol

97
Q
  1. Control of Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae is accomplished by which of the following?

A) vaccination

B) closed herd

C) minimization of stress.

A

All of the above

98
Q
  1. Mycoplasma hyorhinis cases what clinical signs and what gross lesions?
A

Clinical signs: dyspnea, lameness/swollen joints, pyrexia,

Gross lesions: serofibrinous or fibrinopurulent pleuritis, pericarditis, periotonitis, and arthritis

99
Q
  1. T or F - M. hyorhinis is an opportunistic infection
A

True - it is the MOST COMMON porcine mycoplasma

100
Q
  1. How old are pigs when they develop clinical signs of Mycoplasmal pneumonia?
A

3-6 months - reduced growth rate, chronic cough

101
Q

What is the etiologic agent of Mycoplasma pneumonia?

What are the characteristics of this organism?

A
  • Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
  • Mycoplasmas are small (0.2-0.3 mm), lack a cell wall, non-motile, fastidious, gram-negative, facultative anaerobes. They belong to the class Mollicutes and are the smallest free-living cells.
102
Q
  1. T or F- M. hyopneumoniae is the most common case of pneumonia in swine.
A

True

103
Q
  1. What virus causes Inclusion Body Rhinitis (IBR) and what are histologic lesions are pathognomonic?
A
  • Porcine cytomegalovirus
  • Cytomegaly & basophilic IN inclusion bodies in mucosal epithelium
104
Q
  1. T or F - IBR is a very severe disease with many clinical signs.
A
  1. False- it is usually subclinical until pigs reach 3-6 months of age at which time they exhibit poor weight gain and exercise-induced cough
105
Q
  1. Swine influenza virus belongs to which family of viruses?
A

Orthomyxoviridae family of RNA viruses

It is a type A influenza virus

106
Q
  1. What are the clinical signs of swine influenza?
A
  1. Anorexia, labored open-mouth breathing, lethargy, pyrexia.
107
Q
  1. T or F - Swine influenza is associated with high morbidity and mortality
A
  1. False - Outbreaks may be explosive with high morbidity, but mortality is usually low (1%)
108
Q
  1. Control measures for Swine Influenza include which of the following?

A) vaccines

B) keeping a closed herd

C) preventing contact with infected birds and humans

A

All of the above

109
Q

Name the two agents responsible for verminous pneumonia in swine.

A
  • Metastrongylus spp - usually M. elongates apri
  • Ascaris suum
110
Q
  1. T or F - Both Metastrongylus spp. and Ascaris suum have a direct life cycle, posing a problem for even indoor facilities.
A
  1. False - Metastrongylus spp need an earthworm as an intermediate host, but Ascaris suum does have a direct life cycle making it a problem in indoor facilities
111
Q
  1. T or F - Clinical signs are pathognomonic for verminous pneumonia.
A
  1. False - differentials must include all bacterial, viral, and mycoplasmal signs of pneumonia.
112
Q
  1. Brachyspirus hyodysenteriae cases what disease in swine of post-weaning age?
A
  1. Swine dysentery
113
Q
  1. Transmission of B. hyodysenteriae is through________ contact.
A
  1. Fecal-oral or direct
114
Q
  1. T or F - The mechanism of diarrhea caused by B. hyodysenteriae is similar to that of Salmonella, Shigella, and E. coli.
A
  1. False - B. hyodysenteriae causes colonic malabsorption from failure of colonic epithelial cells to transport sodium and chloride from the lumen to the blood.
115
Q
  1. Proliferative enteropathy (PE) has been associated with ____________.
A

Lawsonia intracellularis

116
Q
  1. T or F - Proliferative Enteropathy is unique to swine.
A
  1. False- it has been described in many other spp, including hamster, dog, fox, ferret, horse, rat, and rabbit.
117
Q
  1. Enteric colibacillosis, caused by E.coli is the most important diarrheal disease in _________(fill in the age) swine.
A
  1. Newborn to postweaning
118
Q
  1. What do these abbreviations stand for when referring to E. coli: ETEC, EPEC, AEEC, EHEC?
A

74.

ETEC= enterotoxigenic E. coli;

EPEC= enteropathogenic E. coli;

AEEC= attaching and effacing E. coli;

EHEC= enterohemorrhagic E. coli

119
Q
  1. Clostridium perfringins type _____ is a normal inhabitant of the GI tract, while C. perfringins type _____ causes fatal necrotic enteritis.
A

Type A is normal flora

Type C causes fatal nectotizing enteritis in 3-7d old piglets

120
Q
  1. Transmission of clostridial enteritis is usually through______________.
A
  1. A contaminated sow or use of contaminated equipment
121
Q
  1. In a herd of naïve animals, clostridial enteritis can cause _____% mortality in pigs born to non-immune sows.
A

100%

122
Q
  1. Salmonella enterocolitis is usually associated with _________, and less frequently ________.
A

Enterocolitis is usually associated with S. typhimurium, less frequently with S. cholerasuis

123
Q
  1. Infected swine can shed Salmonella for _______ (time period) or more.
A

5 months

124
Q
  1. Transmissible gastroenteritis has high mortality in what age of pigs?
A

piglets less than 2 weeks old

125
Q
  1. The TGE virus is closely related to which feline and which canine viruses?
A
  1. feline infectious peritonitis virus and canine coronavirus.
126
Q
  1. What is the pathogenesis of TGE virus?
A
  1. The virus replicates in the villus enterocyes, which are then sloughed as the villi begin to shrink. There is massive loss of enterocytes from villus atrophy and the remaining crypts lack the normal enzyme systems.
127
Q
  1. What 2 herd factors can make porcine rotavirus a major cause of morbidity and mortality from acute diarrhea in very young pigs?
A
  1. Piglets are colostrum-deprived
  2. The herd is naive

Passive maternal immunity protects from severe disease

128
Q

T/F: Rotavirus is endemic in most herds.

A

True

129
Q

T or F - Passive immunity in piglets is the biggest protecting factor for TGE.

A

True

130
Q

T/F: Adult pigs may be subclinically infected with TGEV, resulting in periodic viral shedding.

A

True

131
Q

T or F - Balantidium coli is a zoonotic disease.

A

True

132
Q
  1. Most infections with B. coli are…

A) severe and short in duration

B) mild to moderate

C) subclinical

A

C) subclinical

B. coli is not considered a primary pathogen

133
Q

Coccidiosis usually affects which animals?

A) weanling

B) farrowing sows

C) neonates with significant morbidity and mortality.

A

C) neonates with significant morbidity and mortality.

134
Q

What is the primary spp. of coccidia that infect swine?

A

Isospora suis

135
Q

What age-range of piglets are most severely affected with coccidiosis?

A

1-2 weeks old

Isospora suis is considered the MOST IMPORTANT protozoal disease of suckling piglets 1-2 weeks old

136
Q

What are the 2 nematodes with significance for pigs in a laboratory animal setting?

A
  1. Trichuris suis and Strongyloides ransomi
137
Q
  1. The swine whipworm, Trichuris suis, colonizes which segment of the GI tract?
A
  1. Small intestine and cecum
138
Q
  1. T or F - T. suis can infect humans and other primates
A

True

139
Q

After ______ weeks in the environment, eggs of T. suis are infective for as long as ________ (time period).

A

3-4 weeks, 6 years

140
Q

For T. suis, prepatency is __________. The life span for T. suis adults is ________ .

A

PPP = 6-7 weeks

Life span = 4-5 months

141
Q

What are the routes of transmission for Strongeloides ransomi?

A

Vertical: in utero & transcolostral

Horizontal: oral & percutaneous

142
Q

Eggs of Strongyloides ransomi shed in feces hatch within ______ to release larvae that are directly infective within ________.

A

Hours, 24 hours

143
Q
  1. The rickettsial agent responsible for eperythrozoonosis is __________.
A

Mycoplasma suis, formerly known as Eperythrozoon suis

144
Q

T or F - Mycoplasma suis is host-specific.

A

True

145
Q
  1. T or F - All ages of swine can be clinically affected by the acute form of infection with M. suis.
A

True

146
Q
  1. The chronic form of M. suis infection may cause disease in _________.
A
  1. Sows - reproductive problems
147
Q
  1. Transmission of M. suis occurs via________.

What organism is involved in this transmission?

A
  • Mechanical transmission - blood sucking lice, re-use of needles or tattoo instruments, or by the oral route when swine lick blood from wounds.
  • Hematopinus suis is the blood sucking louse of swine that transmits M. suis
148
Q
  1. Exudative epidermitis (EE, greasy pig disease) is caused by ____.
A
  1. Staphyococcus hyicus
149
Q

Pigs aged _____ are most susceptible to EE.

A

5 days to 2 months

150
Q

What are the clinical signs of EE?

A

Exudative dermatitis, exfoliation, crusting of skin, erosions at coronary bands of hooves, oral ulcers

151
Q

Where can S. hyicus be found in carrier swine?

A
  • Nasal cavity
  • Conjunctiva
  • Vagina in sows
  • Prepuce in boars.
152
Q

Transmission of S. hyicus occurs how?

A

During parturition, damage to skin from abrasions, wounds, aerosol

153
Q

Swine pox virus is the only member of the genus ______, which is classified in the family_______.

A

Suipoxvirus, Poxviridae

154
Q

Swine pox affects pigs at what age?

A

Less than 4 months old

155
Q

The swine pox virus may persist in an active form in scabs for up to _____ (time period)

A

1 year

156
Q

What are the modes of transmission for the swine pox virus?

A
  • The primary method of transmission is by the blood sucking pig louse Hematopinus suis.
  • Other insects, like flies and mosquitoes can also carry the virus.
  • Horizontal transmission can occur via nasal and oral secretions coming in contact with abraded skin.
  • Transplacental infection occurs
157
Q

Name the agent responsible for mange (or scabies) in swine and describe it.

A
  • Sarcopties scabiei var. suis.
  • The mite is 0.5 mm in length, has 4 pairs of legs, and all stages of the life cycle is within the layers of the epidermis.
158
Q

How long does it take for an Scabies egg to hatch and develop into a mature egg-laying female?

  1. 5-10 days
  2. 10-25 days
  3. 25-35 days
  4. 35-60 days
A
  1. 10-25 days
159
Q

What are the clinical signs of the acute form and the chronic form of mange in swine?

A

Acute form: intense pruritis & dermatitis on the ventral abdomen, fland & rump of younger growing pigs

Chronic form: hyperkeratosis with thick, crusty scabs on the pinnae and neck in mature pigs

160
Q

Are mites easier to find in the acute or chronic form of mange in swine?

A

Mites are easier to find in the chronic form. The acute form involves an allergic hypersensitivity reaction and can be induced by very few mites.

161
Q

The pig louse is ________.

What diseases does the pig louse transmit?

A

Haematopinus suis.

It is a vector for Mycoplasma suis and Swine pox

162
Q

Which species of Brucella causes systemic infection and clinical disease in swine?

A

Brucella suis

Biovars 1, 2, & 3

163
Q

What are the classical signs of Brucella in swine?

A

Spondylitis & posterior paralysis in piglets

Reproductive problems in adults due to abortion, infertility, metritis, orchitis

164
Q

1How is B. suis transmitted?

A
  • Contaminated discharges from infected swine (fetal membranes, aborted fetuses) being ingested by a susceptible animals.
  • Nursing on infected sows
  • Breeding & AI - the organism is present in semen
165
Q

T or F - Antimicrobial therapy is effective in eliminating the B. suis from swine.

A

False

166
Q

Which serovar of Leptospira interrogans is most commonly responsible for disease in swine?

A

pomona

167
Q

Describe the signs associated with acute and chronic forms of leptospirosis in swine.

A

Acute - mild anorexia, diarrhea, pyrexia.

Chronic - late-term abortions, stillbirths, weak newborn piglets.

168
Q

Porcine parvovirus infection causes _________ when sows and gilts are exposed to the virus during _______(which part of ) gestation.

A

Abortion due to fetal infection and death during the first 70 days of gestation

169
Q

The causative agent of Porcine reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome (PRRS) is _____.

A

PRRS virus: a ssRNA virus in the order Nidovirales, family Arteriviridae, genus Arterivirus

PRRSV is considered one of the major causes of reproductive losses and respiratory disease in swine

Other significant Arteriviruses are LDV, SHFV, & EAV

170
Q

There are a few factors that can cause a variation in clinical signs of PRRS. Name a few.

A

Age of pig, gestation status, complicating infections of bacteria or viruses.

171
Q

Reproductive signs of PRRS include:

A

Late term abortions, delayed parturition, premature farrowing, agalactia, delayed return to estrus.

172
Q

Clinical signs of PRRS in newborn piglets include_______. Mortality can reach _______ in newborn piglets.

A

Clincal signs in piglets = dyspnea, tachypnea, periocular and eyelid edema, conjunctivitis, diarrhea, & CNS signs.

Mortality can reach 100%.

173
Q

T or F - Vaccination with a modified-live vaccine can protect pigs from clinical disease of PRRS.

A

True

174
Q

Porcine Stress Syndrome (PSS) occurs in pigs that have a mutation in what gene?

A

Ryanodine receptor (RYR): a calcium-release channel protein

175
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for PSS?

A

Autosomal recessive with variable penetrance

176
Q

A syndrome similar to PSS also occurs in which of the following animals?

A) dogs

B) horses

C) humans

D) sheep

A

A) dogs

B) horses

C) humans

177
Q
  • In the laboratory setting, clinical signs of PSS are often associated with______.
  • What clinical signs and clinicial pathologic abnormalities are associated with PSS?
  • What is the recommended treatment?
A
  • Anesthetic events using HALOTHANE and SUCCINYLCHOLINE, but has also been reported with other inhalants
  • Clinical signs include tachypnea, tachycardia, muscle rigidity, hyperthermia
  • Clinpath abnormalities: metabolic acidosis, myoglobinemia, hyperkalemia, hyperglycemia
  • Treatment: d/c anesthetic gas, DANTROLENE, NaBicarb, cooling
178
Q

Clinical signs of salt poisoning are___________.

Salt poisoning can occur due to _________ or ___________.

What is the classic histologic lesion?

A
  • Thirst, constipation, CNS signs- nose twitching, rhythmic chomping of jaws, appear blind and deaf.
  • Excessive salt intake or water deprivation for 24 hours or less.
  • Perivascular eosinophilic cuffing of meningeal & cerebral vessels
179
Q

How can gastric ulcers in pigs can be prevented?

What is the most common location of the ulcers?

A
  1. Appropriate size feed: >700um diameter
  2. No excessive unsaturated fatty acids in feed
  3. Proper balance of selenium and vitamin E in feed
  4. Reduce stress in environment.

Most common location is PARS OESOPHAGEA

180
Q

What is the typical presentation and age of swine affected by swine dysentery?

Is disease more or less severe in gnotobiotic pigs?

A

Severe mucohemorrhagic diarrhea in postweaning pigs

Disease is less severe in gnobiotic pigs, suggesting that anaerobic normal gut flora contribute to the pathogenesis

181
Q

What conditions are caused by porcine circovirus-2?

A

Postweaning multisystemic wasting syndrome

Porcine Dermatitis and Nephropathy Syndrome

Porcine Respiratory Disease Complex

Granulometous Enteritus

Reproductive Failure

Acute Pulmonary Edema

PCV-2 Associated Neuropathy

182
Q

What kind of virus is PCV-2, and which breed is most susceptible?

A

non-enveloped RNA

Landrace

183
Q

What are the clinical signs of postweaning multisystemic wasting syndrome, and what are hallmark findings on necropsy and/or histopathology?

A

progressive wt loss, lethargy, jaundice, respiratory dz, diarrhea, lymphadenitis, anemia

generalized lymphadenopathy, hepatitis, icterus, edema, nephritis, pneumonia

Intracytoplasmic botryoid inclusion bodies in bronchi, renal tubules, macrophages

184
Q

What are the clinical signs of porcine dermatitis and nephropathy syndrome, and what are hallmark findings on necropsy and/or histopathology?

A

ever, lethargy, raised purple lesions on skin (esp rear legs)

enlarged spleen w waxy texture and petechiation; vasculitis

Multinucleate giant cells in LN

Systemic vasculitis is hallmark lesion of PDNS

185
Q

What are the clinical signs of PCV-2 involvement in porcine respiratory disease complex, and what are hallmark findings on necropsy and/or histopathology?

A

decr growth rate, decr feed efficiency, lethargy, anorexia, fever, cough, dyspnea

hallmark lesion = granulomatous bronchointerstitial pneumonia w peribronchial and periobronchiolar fibrosis

186
Q

What are the clinical signs of PCV-2 related reproductive failure, and what are hallmark findings on necropsy and/or histopathology?

A

mummification or late-term abortion, stillbirths, mummification (often in the same litter), and preweaning mortality; mummification at different gestational ages

fetal heart m commonly affected with IN botryoid inclusion bodies in cardiomyocytes

187
Q

What are the clinical signs of PCV-2 related granulomatous enteritis, and what are hallmark findings on necropsy and/or histopathology?

A

affects 2- to 4-month-old pigs, chronic ileitis with diarrhea, unthriftiness, decreased growth, and increased mortality

necrotizing ileitis, colitis - looks like Lawsonia

granulomatous enteritis with multinucleated giant cells in Peyer’s patches; cytoplasmic inclusion bodies

188
Q

What are the clinical signs of PCV-2 related acute pulmonary edema, and what are hallmark findings on necropsy and/or histopathology?

A

rapid respiratory distress + death in nursery and finisher pigs

clear fluid in thorax; heavy, edematous lungs

interstitial pneumonia, lymphoid depletion

189
Q

What are the clinical signs of PCV-2 associated neuropathy, and what are hallmark findings on necropsy and/or histopathology?

A

wasting, neurologic deficits

acute cerebellar hemorrhage and edema d/t necrotizing vasculitis

190
Q

Salmonella can cause respiratory disease in swine. What serovar is usually responsible, and what age of swine?

A

Cholerasuis

< 5 months of age

191
Q

Salmonella causes what histopathological findings?

A

Necrosis of intestines and lymphoid follicles, bronchopneumonia or hemorrhagic pleuropneumonia; paratyphoid nodules in liver

192
Q

Family of virus?

Structure?

A

Circoviridae

Non enveloped single stranded DNA

193
Q

Name the agents involved. For bacteria, give genus, species, description. For viruses, give family, genus, structure

A

Porcine cytomegalovirus: Betaherpesviridae, double stranded enveloped DNA virus

Pasteurella multocida: gram-negative coccobacillus, facultative anerobe

Bordatella bronchiseptica: Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium

Haemophilis parasuis: Gram-negative, pleomorphic, coccobacilli bacteria

194
Q

Causative agent - genus, species, description

Ddx?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae: Gram-positive, catalase-negative, rod-shaped, nonspore-forming, nonacid-fast, nonmotile bacterium

PCV-2 (PDNS), Actinobacillus suis

195
Q

Causative agent - genus and species

description of organism

other disease it is involved in

A

Haemophilus parasuis:

gram-negative pleomorphic coccobacilli

atrophic rhinitis

196
Q

Causative agent - genus and species

description of organism

A

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

nonmotile, fastidious, gram-negative facultative anaerobes - no cell wall

197
Q

Common names for this condition

A

Proliferative enteropathy, AKA porcine intestinal adenomatosis, terminal or regional ileitis, intestinal adenoma, and porcine proliferative ileitis.

198
Q

Clinical signs related to this condition

A

postweaning pigs 6-20w old; subclinical to marked dullness, anorexia, diarrhea, failure to thrive

199
Q

Causative agent - genus and species

description

A

L:awsonia intracellularis

obligate intracellular organism

200
Q

Causative agent - family, structure

A

Coronaviridae Alphacoronavirus 1; pleomorphic enveloped ssRNA virus

transmissible gastroenteritis virus

201
Q

Causative agent - genus and species

description

pathogenesis

A

Staphylococcus hyicus

gram-positive cocci

6 antigenically distinct toxins that target stratum granulosum correlate with clinical dz

202
Q

Differential diagnoses? give name and discription/structure

A

Brucella suis - serovars 21, 2, 3; nonmotile, non-spore-forming, small gram-negative, aerobic bacillus or coccobacillus.

Leptospira interrogans serovar Pomona, gram-negative, motile aerobic spirochetes

Porcine parvovirus-1; Parvoviridae, single stranded nonenveloped DNA virus

Porcine circovirus-2; Circoviridae, nonenveloped single stranded DNA virus

Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus; Arteriviridae, single stranded RNA enveloped virus

203
Q

Differential diagnoses? give name and discription/structure

which are reportable?

A

foot and mouth disease virus; Picornaviridae, single stranded nonenveloped RNA virus

Swine vesicular disease virus; Picornaviridae, single stranded nonenveloped RNA virus

Vesicular exanthema of swine virus; Caliciviridae, single stranded nonenveloped RNA virus

Vesicular stomatitis virus; Rhabdoviridae, single stranded enveloped RNA virus

ALL ARE REPORTABLE

Pigs (4 decks)

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