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Abdominal Radiology > Abdomen and pelvis > Flashcards

Abdomen and pelvis Flashcards

1
Q

peritoneal cavity is divided into

A

greater and lesser peritoneal cavity

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2
Q

right subphrenic space communicates with

A

around the liver, with the anterior subhepatic and posterior subhepatic space

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3
Q

most dependent portion of the abdominal cavityin supine patient and it preferentially collects ascites, hemoperitoneum, metastases and abscesses

A

Morison pouch (right hepatorenal fossa)

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4
Q

communicates freely with the pelvic peritoneal cavity via the right paracolic gutter

A

right subphrenic and subhepatic space

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5
Q

left and right subphrenic space are separated by

A

falciform ligament

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6
Q

left subphrenic space is separated with the left paracolic gutter by the

A

phrenicocolic ligament

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7
Q

common location for abscesses and for disease process of the tail of pancreas

A

left subphrenic (perisplenic) space

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8
Q

space that is affected by diseases of the duodenal bulb, lesser curve of stomach, gallbladder and left lobe of liver

A

left subhepatic space (gastrohepatic recess)

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9
Q

falciform ligament consists of how many layers of peritoneum extending from the umbilicus to the diaphragm in parasagittal plane

A

2

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10
Q

caudal free end of the falciform ligament contains

A

ligamentum teres

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11
Q

obliterated umbilical vein

A

ligamentum teres

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12
Q

vessels within the falciform ligament that enlarges as a specific sign of portal hypertension

A

paraumbilical veins (portosystemic collateral vessels)

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13
Q

reflections of the falciform ligament separate over the posterior dome of the liver to form the

A

coronary ligaments

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14
Q

bare area of the liver not covered by peritoneum

A

coronary ligaments

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15
Q

reflects between the liver and diaphragm and prevent access of ascites and other intraperitoneal process from covering the bare area of the liver

A

coronary ligaments

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16
Q

lesser omentum is composed of _____ and _____ that suspends the stomach and duodenal bulb from the inferior surface of the liver

A

gastrohepatic and hepatoduodenal ligaments

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17
Q

separates the gastrohepatic recess of the left subphrenic space from the lesser sac

A

lesser omentum

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18
Q

lesser omentum contains what vessels

A

coronary veins

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19
Q

enlarged lymph nodes in gastric carcinoma and lymphoma are seen in

A

lesser omentum

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20
Q

isolated peritoneal compartment between the stomach and the pancreas

A

lesser sac

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21
Q

lesser sac communicates freely with the rest of the peritoneal cavity (the greater sac) only through the

A

small foramen of Winslow

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22
Q

pathologic processes in the lesser sac usually occur in

A

adjacent organs (pancreas, stomach)

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23
Q

double layer of peritoneum that hangs from the greaster curvature of the stomach and descends in front of the abdominal viscera separating bowel from the anterior abdominal wall

A

greater omentum

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24
Q

serves as a fertile ground for implantation of peritoneal metastases, and assists in loculation of inflammatory processes of the peritoneal cavity such as abscesses and tuberculosis

A

greater omentum

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25
Q

extends between the posterior parietal peritoneum and anterior renal fascia

A

anterior pararenal space

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26
Q

anterior pararenal fascia is bounded by

A

lateroconal fascia

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27
Q

structures within the anterior pararenal space

A

pancreas, duodenal loop, ascending and descending portions of the colon

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28
Q

encompasses the kidney, adrenal gland, and perirenal fat within the perirenal space

A

anterior and posterior renal fascia

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29
Q

the anterior layer of posterior renal fascia is continuous with

A

anterior renal fascia

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30
Q

the posterior layer of the renal fascia is continuous with the ________ forming the lateral boundary of the anterior pararenal fasica

A

lateroconal fascia

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31
Q

renal fascia is bound to the fascia surrounding the aorta and vena cava usually to

A

prevent spread of disease to the contralateral perirenal space

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32
Q

the right perirenal space is open ____ allowing spread of disease between the kidney and liver

A

superior

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33
Q

potential space, usually filled only with fat, extending from the posterior renal fascia to the transversalis fascia

A

posterior pararenal space

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34
Q

isolated fluid collections are rare in the posterior pararenal space and is most commonly caused by

A

spontaneous hemorrhage into the psoas muscle as a result of anticoagulation therapy

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35
Q

3 major anatomic compartments of pelvis

A

peritoneal cavity, extraperitoneal space and perineum

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36
Q

this part of the pelvis extends to the level of the vagina, forming the pouch of Douglas (cul-de-sac) in females, or the level of seminal vesicles, forming the rectovesical pouch in males

A

peritoneal cavity

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37
Q

serves as the anterior boundary of the rectouterine pouch of Douglas, and reflects over the uterus, fallopian tubes, and parametrial uterine vessels

A

broad ligament

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38
Q

most dependent portion of peritoneal cavity and collects fluid, blood, abscesses and intraperitoneal drop metastases

A

cul-de-sac

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39
Q

part of pelvis that is continuous with the retroperitoneal space of abdomen, extends to the pelvic diaphragm, and includes the retropubic space (of Retzius)

A

extraperitoneal space of pelvis

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40
Q

part of pelvis that lies below the pelvic diaphragm

A

perineum

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41
Q

anatomic landmark of perineum

A

ischiorectal fossa

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42
Q

conventional radiographic diagnosis of ascites requires at least how many cc of fluid to be present

A

500 cc

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43
Q

radiographic findings of ascites

A

diffuse decrease in density (gray abdomen), indistinct margins of liver, spleen and psoas muscles, medial displacement of gas-filled colon, liver and spleen away from the properitoneal flank stripe, bulging of flanks, increased separation of gas-filled small bowel loops, and dog ears appearane of symmetric densities in the pelvis due to fluid spilling out of the cul-de-sac on either side of bladder

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44
Q

serous ascites has attenuation values of

A

near water (-10 to +10 HU)

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45
Q

exudative ascites has attenuation values of

A

above 15 HU

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46
Q

acute bleeding into peritoneal cavity has attenuation value of

A

45 HU

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47
Q

refers to gelatinous ascites that occurs as a result of intraperitoneal spread of mucin-producing cells resulting from rupture of appendiceal mucocele or intraperitoneal spread of benign or malignant mucinous cysts of the ovary or mucinous adenocarcinoma of the colon of rectum

A

pseudomyxoma peritonei

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48
Q

appearance of pseudomyxoma peritonei in radiographs

A

punctate or ring-like calcifications scattered through the peritoneal cavity

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49
Q

ct appearance of pseudomyxoma peritonei

A

mottled densities, septations, and calcifications within the fluid

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50
Q

ultrasound appearance of pseudomyxoma peritonei

A

intraperitoneal nodules that range from hypoechoic to strongly echogenic

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51
Q

most common cause of pneumoperitoneum

A

duodenal or gastric ulcer perforation

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52
Q

postoperative pneumoperitoneum usually resolves in

A

3 to 4 days

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53
Q

positioning that may be used with very ill patients to demonstrate air outlining the liver

A

left lateral decubitus and cross-table lateral views

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54
Q

signs of pneumoperitoneum on supine radiographs include

A

gas on both sides of the bowel wall (Rigler sign), gas outlining the falciform ligament, gas outlining the peritoneal cavity (football sign), and triangular or linear localized extraluminal gas in the RUQ

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55
Q

aneuryms of aorta are manifest by luminal diameter exceeding ___ as measured between calcifications in the aortic wall

A

3 cm

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56
Q

right-like calcified aneurysms most commonly involve the

A

splenic or renal arteries

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57
Q

calcified thrombi in veins most commonly visualized in the lateral aspects of the pelvis

A

phleboliths

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58
Q

phleboliths are round or oval calcifications up to ___ mm in size that commonly contain a central lucency

A

5 mm

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59
Q

most calcified gallstones contain

A

calcium bilirubinate

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60
Q

how many percent of gallstones contain sufficient calcium to be identified on conventional radiography

A

15%

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61
Q

plaque like and oval in configuration calcification conforming to the size and shape of gallbladder

A

porcelain gallbladder

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62
Q

suspension of radiopaque crystals within the gallbladder bile

A

milk of calcium bile

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63
Q

how many percent of urinary calculi are present on conventional radiographs

A

85%

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64
Q

renal calculi are differentiated from gallstones on radiographs by

A

oblique projections that confirm their posterior position, as opposed to the more anterior positions of gallstones

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65
Q

ureteral calculi are common in what areas of narrowing

A

ureteropelvic junction, pelvic brim, and vesicoureteral junction

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66
Q

this finding is indicative of chronic obstruction of the cystic duct, chronic gallbladder inflammation and an increased risk of gallbladder carcinoma

A

porcelain gallbladder

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67
Q

concretions within the lumen of the bowel

A

appendicolitjs and enteroliths

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68
Q

enteroliths are most common in the colon and often due to calcium deposition on an undigestible material such as

A

bone, fruit pit, seed, birdshot, medications containing iron and other heavy metals

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69
Q

results from inflammation believed to be due to torsion of the colonic appendages, resulting in vacular occlussion and ischemia. the resultant fat necrosis often calcified resulting in a mobile-shaped calcification

A

Epiploic appendagitis

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70
Q

staghorn calculi is usually composed of

A

struvite

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71
Q

calcified adrenal glands are associated with

A

adrenal hemorrhage in the newborn, TB and Addison disease

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72
Q

pancreatic calcification is associated with

A

chronic alcohol-induced pancreatitis and hereditary pancreatitis

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73
Q

cyts that commonly calcify and may be found in any intra-abdominal organ as well as within the peritoneal cavity

A

echinococcus cysts

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74
Q

popcorn calcifications are seen in

A

uterine leiomyomas

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75
Q

calcified peritoneal metastases are seen in

A

ovarian or colon mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

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76
Q

renal cell carcinoma calcified in up to how many percent of cases

A

25%

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77
Q

soft tissue calcifications may be seen in what conditions

A

hypercalcimic states, idiopathic calcinosis and old hematomas

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78
Q

calcified injection granuloma are commonly from

A

quinine, bismuth, and calcium salts of penicillin

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79
Q

characteristic “rice-grain” calcifications in muscles

A

cysticercosis

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80
Q

peritoneal calcifications commonly seen from

A

peritoneal dialysis, previous peritonitis, or peritoneal carcinomatosis

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81
Q

acute abdomen series include

A

erect PA chest radiograph, supine and erect or decuitus radiograph of abdomen

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82
Q

air-fluid levels are seen in normal patients commonly in the

A

stomach, often in small bowel

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83
Q

normal air-fluid levels in small bowel should not exceed __ cm in width

A

2.5 cm

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84
Q

air-fluid levels should never be see in

A

colon distal to the hepatic flexure

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85
Q

a normal intestinal gas pattern varies from

A

no intestinal gas to gas within 3 to 4 variably shaped small intestinal loops measuring less than 2.5 to 3 cm in diameter. normal colon contains some gas and fecal materia and varies in diameter from 3 to 8 cm, with cecum having the largest diameter

86
Q

drugs that may cause ileus

A

atropine, glucagon, morphine, barbiturates, phenothiazines

87
Q

metabolic causes of ileus

A

DM, hypothyroidism, hypokalemia and hypercalcemia

88
Q

inflammatory causes of ileus

A

intraluminal: gastroenteritis; extraluminal: peritonitis, pancreatitis, appendicitis, cholecystitis, abscess

89
Q

postoperative ileus usually resolves in how many days

A

4 to 7 days

90
Q

means stasis and does not differentiate mechanical obstruction from nonmechanical stasis

A

adynamic ileus

91
Q

demonstrates diffuse symmetric, predominantly gaseous, distention of bowel. the small bowel, stomach, and colon are proportionally dilated without an abrupt transition

A

adynamic ileus

92
Q

true or false: more bowel are dilated in ileus than in obstruction

A

true

93
Q

refers to a segment of intestine that becomes paralyzed and dilated as it lies next to an inflamed intra-abdominal organ

A

sentinel loop

94
Q

a sentinel loop in the RUQ suggests

A

acute cholecystitis hepatitis or pyelonephritis

95
Q

a sentinel loop in LUQ suggests

A

pancreatitis, pyelonephritis, splenic injury

96
Q

sentinel loop in the lower quadrant suggests

A

diverticulitis, appendicitis, salpingitis, cystitis, Crohn disease

97
Q

75% cases of toxic megacolon is from

A

ulcerative colitis

98
Q

a manifestation of fulminant colitis characterized by extreme dialation of all or portion of the colon. peristalsis is absent and large bowel loses all tone and contractility. patient has progressive abdominal distention and is toxic, febrile and obtunded

A

toxic megacolon

99
Q

bowel wall becomes “wet blotting paper” and rthe risk of perforation is extreme in this condition

A

toxic megacolon

100
Q

most striking finding in toxic megacolon

A

dilation of transverse colon up to 15 cm in diameter

101
Q

appearance of colonic walls in toxic megacolon

A

pseudopolyps are present due to islands of edematous mucosa surrounded by extensive ulceration

102
Q

stasis of bowel contents above a focal lesion.

A

mechanical bowel obstruction

103
Q

mechanical obstruction causes

A

obturation (occlusion by a mass in the lumen), stenosis due to intrinsic bowel disease, or compression of the lumen by extrinsic disease

104
Q

refers to blockage of the luminal contents without interference of blood supply

A

simple obstruction

105
Q

means that the blood supply to the bowel wall is impaired

A

strangulation obstruction

106
Q

most strangulation obstructions are ______, which mean blockage of a bowel loops segment at both ends

A

closed-loop obstructions

107
Q

closed-loop obstructions occurs with

A

incarcerated hernias and volvulus

108
Q

term applied to necrotizing fasciitis of the perineum, perianal and genital refions

A

Fournier gangrene

109
Q

small bowel obstruction is about how many percent of total intestinal obstruction

A

80%

110
Q

80% of small bowel obstruction are caused by

A

incarcerated hernia

111
Q

strong evidence of obstruction

A

air-fluid levels at differing heights (>5mm) within the same loop (“dynamic air-fluid levels”)

112
Q

strong CT evidence of bowel obstruction

A

small bowel feces

113
Q

abrupt beak-like narrowing of small bowel, without other lesion evident is indicative of

A

adhesions as the cause of obstruction

114
Q

CT findings of strangulation obstruction

A

circumferential wall thickening, edema of bowel wall (target or halo appearance of lucency in bowel wall), lack of enhancement of bowel wall, haziness or obliteration of the mesenteric vessels, infiltration of the mesentery with fluid or hemorrhage

115
Q

most specific sign of strangulation obstruction

A

lack of bowel wall enhancement

116
Q

small bowel volvulus and closed loop obstruction are indicated by these signs on CT

A

radial distribution of dilated small bowel with mesenteric vesels converging toward a focus of torsion, U- or C- shaped dilated small bowel loop, “beak” sign at the site of torsion seen as fusiform tapering of a dilated bowel loop, “whirl” sign of tightly twisted mesentery

117
Q

presence of whirl sign in a patient with SBO correlates strongly with

A

need for surgery

118
Q

major cause of SBO in children

A

intussusception

119
Q

in adults, intussusception is often chronic, intermittent, or subacute, and is usually caused by a

A

polypoid tumor such as lipoma

120
Q

enteroenteric intussusception occurs with

A

small bowel tumors and sprue

121
Q

ileocolic intussusception is common in

A

children

122
Q

colocolic intussusception is common in

A

adults

123
Q

appearance of intussusception in barium studies

A

coiled spring appearance

124
Q

appearance of intussusception in CT

A

target-like intestinal mass

125
Q

appearance of intussusception in US

A

donut configuration of alternating hyperechoic and hypoechoic rings representing alternating mucosa, muscular wall and mesenteric fat tissues in cross-section

126
Q

cause of mechanical small bowel obstruction that should be suspected in any elderly female with SBO. It is the cayse of 24% of SBO in patients over age 70

A

gallstone ileus

127
Q

in gallstone ileus, bowel obstruction is caused by a large gallstone that erodes through the gallbladder wall and passes into the intestine, creating a

A

cholecystoduodenal fistula

128
Q

gallstone most commonly lodges in what part of the intestine

A

ileum

129
Q

Rigler triad of gallstone ileus include

A

dilated small bowel loops (80%), air in the biliary tree and GB (67%), calcified gallstone in an ectopic location (50%)

130
Q

there is high risk for perforation with attendant risks of peritonitis and septic shock if cecum exceeds diameter of

A

10 cm

131
Q

most colonic obstructions occur in ____ where the bowel lumen is narrower and stool is more formed

A

sigmoid colon

132
Q

air-fluid levels in this level are strong evidence of osbtruction, unless the patient has had enema

A

hepatic flexure

133
Q

causes of pseudo-obstruction of large bowel

A

Ogilvie syndrome, adynamic ileus, toxic megacolon

134
Q

sigmoid volvulus are most common in

A

elderly and individuals on high residue diets

135
Q

northern exposure sign is seen in

A

sigmoid volvulus; wherein the apex of the distended sigmoid colon may extend cephalad to the transverse colon

136
Q

cecal volvulus occurs most commonly in what age group

A

30 to 60 age group

137
Q

most common type of cecal volvulus

A

twist and invert with the cecum displaced to the LUQ

138
Q

refers to a folding of the cecum to a position anteromedial to the ascending colon, rather like folding the toe of a sock back on itself

A

cecal bascule

139
Q

type of cecal volvulus that results in the cecum remaining in the RLQ

A

axial twist of cecum

140
Q

3 types of cecal volvulus

A

twist and invert with the cecum displaced to LUQ, axial twist of cecum in which cecum remains in the RLQ, cecal bascule

141
Q

classic radiographic findings in cecal volvulus

A

coffee bean-shaped loop of gas-distended bowel having haustral markings directed toward the left upper quadrant, apex of cecum in LUQ, cecal distention greater than 10 cm, collapse of distal colon

142
Q

CT findings of cecal volvulus include

A

cecum in upper mid and left abdomen, volvulus in RLQ seen as an area of swirling of the bowel and mesenteric fat (“whirl sign”), appendix is displaced to the LUQ, two transition points are present, one for the entering loop and one for the exiting loop, when the loops are completely wound around each other an “x-mark the spot” sign is present formed by the crossing configuration of the transition zones, cecum is distended >10 cm, distal large bowel is decompressed

143
Q

most specific sign of strangulation obstruction

A

lack of bowel wall enhancement

144
Q

most common cause of LBO in elderly and bedridden patients

A

fecal impaction

145
Q

rare inflammation of the wall of the colon caused by fecal impaction

A

stercoral colitis

146
Q

clinical disorder of acute colonic distention with abdominal pain and distention but withou the presence of mechanical obstruction

A

colonic pseudo-obstruction (Ogilvie syndrome)

147
Q

most current theories in Ogilvie syndrome favor what etiology

A

imbalance in autonomic innervation of the colon

148
Q

Ogilvie syndrome shows dilatation of the colon most commonly in the

A

cecum to splenic flexure, occassionaly to the rectum

149
Q

findings of bowel ischemia include

A

circumferential or nodular thickening (> 5mm) of bowel wall with infiltration of low density edema or high-density blood resulting from mucosal injury, “thumbprinting resulting from this nodular infiltration of the bowel wall, dilatation of the bowel lumen pneumatosis intestinalis, edema or hemorrhage into the mesentery, engorged mesenteric vessels, thrombosis of mesenteric arteries or veins, poor enhancement of the bowel wall along its mesenteric border which is evidence of ischemia, poor or absent mucosal enhancement with thinning of bowel wall, ascites

150
Q

refers to gas within the bowel wall

A

pneumatosis intestinalis

151
Q

causes of pneumatosis intestinalis

A

bowel necrosis, mucosal disruption, increased mucosal permeability related to immunosuppresion, pulmonary disease resulting in alveolar disruption and dissection of air along intersitital pathways to the bowel wall

152
Q

appears on radiographs as cystic air bubble (few mm to several cm) or linear streaks of air within the bowel wall, especially in its most gravity-dependent aspect

A

pneumatosis intestinalis

153
Q

a focal collection of clotted blood (>60 HU) that may be seen in the peritoneal cavity adjacent to an injured organ is called

A

sentinel clot

154
Q

attenuation value of hemoperitoneum

A

30-45HU

155
Q

active bleeding evidenced by extravasated contrast seen during arterial phase of scanning has attenuation value of

A

85 to 370 HU

156
Q

maximum dimension of retrocrural LN

A

6 mm

157
Q

may enlarged from disease above of below the diaphragm

A

retrocrural LN

158
Q

maximum dimension of retroperitoneal LN

A

10 mm

159
Q

maximum dimension of gastrohepatic ligament LN

A

8 mm

160
Q

maximum dimension of porta hepatis LN

A

6 mm

161
Q

maximum dimension of celiac and SMA LN aka preaortic LN

A

10 mm

162
Q

maximum dimension of pancreaticoduodenal LN

A

10 mm

163
Q

commonly involved LN in lymphoma and GI carcinoma

A

pancreaticoduodenal

164
Q

maximum dimension of perisplenic LN

A

10 mm

165
Q

maximum dimension of mesenteric LN

A

10 mm

166
Q

maximum dimension of pelvic LN

A

15 mm

167
Q

abdomen and pelvis contain about how many LNs

A

more than 230 LNs

168
Q

morphologic patterns of pathologic lymphadenopathy

A

single enlarged nodes, multiple separate lobulated enlarged nodes or bulky conglomerate masses of LNs

169
Q

calcifications in enlarged nodes may be seen with

A

inflammatory adenopathy, mucinous carcinomas, sarcomas and treated lymphoma

170
Q

normal lymph nodes appear

A

oblong in shape, homogeneous in configuration, have short-axis diameters below the limits

171
Q

low density nodal metastases are commonly seen with

A

nonseminomatous testicular carcinoma, tuberculosis, and occassionally lymphoma

172
Q

refers to entrapment of mesenteric vessels by masses of enlarged LNs in the mesentery

A

sandwich sign

173
Q

age distribution of Hodgkin lymphoma

A

bimodal, 25 to 30 and over 50 years

174
Q

Reed-sterndberg cell is seen in

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

175
Q

abdominal adenopathy is seen in how many percent of Hodgkin lymphoma

A

25%

176
Q

spleen is involved in how many percent of Hodgkin lymphoma

A

40%

177
Q

responsible for 60- 80% of lymphoma

A

Non hodgkin lymphoma

178
Q

type of lymphoma that is more common in immunocompromised patients

A

non hodgkin

179
Q

type of lymphoma that commonly involve extranodal sites

A

non hodgkin

180
Q

solid organ involvement in Hodgkin lymphoma include

A

spleen, liver, pancreas, kidneys, adrenal glands and testes

181
Q

abdominal adenopathy is present in how many percent of non hodgkin lymphoma

A

50%

182
Q

spectrum of lymphoid hyperplasia and neoplasias in patients who have received solid organ transplants and immunosuppressive therapy

A

posttransplantation lymphoproliferative disorder

183
Q

posttransplantation lymphoproliferative disorder results from

A

Epstein-Barr virus induced proliferatio of B lymphocytes that is usually opposed by functioning T cells

184
Q

uncommon primary tumor of peritoneal membrane

A

peritoneal mesothelioma

185
Q

peritoneal mesothelioma’s prognosis is poor although has improved with

A

cytoreductive surgery and hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy

186
Q

peritoneal metastases are commonly associated with

A

ovarian, colon, stomach or pancreatic carcinoma

187
Q

preferential sites for tumor implantation include

A

pelvic cul-de-sac, right paracolic gutter, and greater omentum

188
Q

most obvious manifestation of extramedullary hematopoiesis

A

homogeneous, well-marginated, bilateral paraspinal masses that favor the thoracic spine

189
Q

benign cystic lesions that arise from lympbtic vascular channels. the cystic mass containes septations and multiple loculations containing chylous, serous, hemorrhagic or mixed fluid

A

lymphangiomas

190
Q

most common sarcoma of retroperitoneum

A

liposarcomas

191
Q

lymphangiomas occur in

A

omentum, mesentery, mesocolon, retroperitoneum

192
Q

rare condition manifest by formation of a fibrous plaque in the lower retroperitoneum that encases and compresses the aorta, IVC and ureters

A

retroperitoneal fibrosis

193
Q

drug that is a cause of 12% of cases of retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

methysergide

194
Q

5 to 10% of cases of retroperitoneal fibrosis is from

A

perianeurysmal fibrosis, small foci of metastatic malignancy

195
Q

hallmark of retroperitoneal fibrosis

A

smooth extrinsic narrowing of one or both ureters in the region of L4-5

196
Q

can wooden foreign bodies be seen in conventional radiographs

A

no

197
Q

wooden objects in CT appears

A

high density

198
Q

retained surgical sponges are called

A

gossypiboma

199
Q

most common site for abscess formation

A

pelvis

200
Q

most specific sign of abscess

A

focal collection of extraluminal gas

201
Q

hernias that are non reducible

A

incarcerated hernias

202
Q

refers to hernias associated with bowel obstruction and bowel ischemia

A

strangulated hernias

203
Q

hernias that are entrap only to a portion of the bowel wall without compromising viability

A

Richter hernias

204
Q

most common hernia in both children and adults

A

inguinal hernias

205
Q

hernias that extend through the internal inguinal ring into the inguinal canal lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels

A

indirect inguinal hernias

206
Q

hernias that occur medial to the inferior epigastric vessels directly into the inguinal canal through a weakness in its floor

A

direct inguinal hernias

207
Q

hernias that are from complications of surgery with herniation through the surgical incision

A

incisional hernias

208
Q

hernias that occur in association with surgically created stomas

A

parastomal hernias

209
Q

hernias that occur through defects in the lumbar musculature posterolaterally below the 12th rib and above the iliac crest

A

lumbar hernias

210
Q

hernias that occur in the lower abdominal wall lateral to the rectus abdominis and inferior to the umbilicus through a defect in the aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles

A

spigelian hernias

Abdominal Radiology (14 decks)

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