Topic 1 - Lifestyle, health and risk Flashcards

1
Q

Define an open circulatory system.

A

a. A simple heart pumps blood out into cavities surrounding the animal’s organs. Substances can diffuse between the blood and cells.
b. When the heart muscle relaxes, blood is drawn from the cavity back into the heart through small, valved, openings along its length.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define a closed circulatory system.

A

a. Many animals, including all vertebrates, have a closed circulatory system in which the blood is enclosed within tubes – blood vessels. This generates higher blood pressure as the blood is forced along fairly narrow channels instead of flowing into large cavities. This means the blood travels faster and so the blood system is more efficient at delivering substances around the body.
b. The blood leaves the heart under pressure and flows along arteries and then arterioles to capillaries. There are extremely large numbers of capillaries. These come into close contact with most of the cells in the body where substances are exchanged between blood and cells.
c. After passing along the capillaries, the blood returns to the heart by means of venules and then veins, valves ensure the blood flows only in one direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define a single circulatory system.

A

a. Animals with a closed circulatory system have either single or double circulation. Fish, for example, have single circulation.
i. The heart pumps deoxygenated blood to the gills.
ii. Gaseous exchange takes place in the gills; there is diffusion of carbon dioxide from the blood into the water that surrounds the gills, and diffusion of oxygen from this water into the blood within the gills. The blood leaving the gills then flows round the rest of the body before eventually returning to the heart.
iii. It is known as a single circulatory system as the blood flows through the heart once for each complete circuit of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define a double circulatory system.

A

a. Birds and mammals have a double circulation:
i. The right ventricle of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs where it receives oxygen.
ii. The oxygenated blood then returns to the heart to be pumped a second time by the left ventricle out to the rest of the body.
b. As the blood flows through the heart twice for each complete circuit of the body, it is known as a double circulatory system. The heart gives the blood returning from the lungs an extra ‘boost’ that reduces the time it takes for the blood to circulate round the whole body.
c. This leads to birds and mammals having a high metabolic rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is mass flow?

A

In the circulatory system a liquid and all the particles it contains are transported in one direction due to a difference in pressure in a process known as mass flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the transport medium in animals contain?

A

a. In animals the transport medium is usually called blood. The fluid, plasma, is mainly water and contains dissolved substances such as digested food molecules (e.g. glucose), oxygen and carbon dioxide. Proteins, amino acids, salts, enzymes, hormones, antibodies and urea, the waste product from the breakdown of proteins, are some of the other substances transported in the plasma. Cells such as red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets are also carried in the blood.
b. Blood is not only important in the transport of dissolved substances and cells, but also plays a vital role in regulation of body temperature, transferring energy around the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the properties of water that make it a good transport medium?

A

a. Water is a polar molecule; the hydrogen end of the molecule is slightly positive, and the oxygen end is slightly negative because the electrons are more concentrated at that end. Therefore, water is said to be a dipole. Due to this dipole nature, water contains hydrogen bonding which leads to a high boiling point.
b. Due to its polar nature, other polar substances, as well as ionic and hydrophilic substances can easily dissolve in water.
c. Non-polar, hydrophobic substances such as lipids do not dissolve in water. To enable transport in blood, lipids combine with proteins to form lipoproteins.
d. Water also has a high specific heat capacity, a large input of energy causes only a small increase in temperature, so water warms up and cools down slowly. This is useful for organisms, helping them to avoid rapid changes in their internal temperature and enabling them to maintain a steady temperature even when the temperature in their surroundings varies considerably. This also means that bodies of water in which aquatic organisms live do not change temperature rapidly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the heart made of?

A

The heart is a double pump and is made of cardiac muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define the structure of an artery.

A

a. The artery contains an outer coating – connective tissue with collagen, which is a tough fibrous protein, making them strong and durable. They also contain elastic fibres that allow them to stretch and recoil. They also contain smooth muscle cells in the walls which allow them to constrict and dilate. They also contain an endothelium layer.
b. Arteries contain a narrow lumen, thicker walls, more collagen, smooth muscle and elastic fibres and no valves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the structure of a vein.

A

a. The vein also contains an outer coating – connective tissue with collagen, a tough fibrous protein, making them strong and durable. They also contain elastic fibres that allow them to stretch and recoil. Additionally, they also contain smooth muscle cells in the walls which allow them to constrict and dilate. Like arteries they also contain an endothelium layer.
b. Veins contain a wide lumen, thinner walls, less collagen and smooth muscle, with fewer elastic fibres. They however also contain valves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the structure of a capillary.

A

The capillaries that join the small arteries (arterioles) and small veins (venules) are very narrow, about 10um in diameter, with walls that are only one cell thick.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does the blood move through the vessels?

A

a. As the heart contracts (systole), blood is forced into arteries and their elastic walls stretch to accommodate the blood. The thick artery walls can withstand the high pressure generated as the blood is forced against the walls.
b. During diastole (relaxation of the heart), the elasticity of the artery walls causes them to recoil behind the blood, helping to push the blood forward and smoothing blood flow. The blood moves along the length of the artery as each section in series stretches and recoils in this way. The pulsing flow of blood through the arteries can be felt anywhere an artery passes over a bone close to the skin.
c. By the time the blood reaches the arterioles and capillaries there is a steady flow of blood. Blood flows more slowly in the capillaries due to their narrow lumens causing more of the blood to be slowed down by friction against the capillary wall. This slower steady flow allows exchange between the blood and the surrounding cells through the one-cell-thick capillary walls. The network of capillaries that lies close to every cell ensures that there is rapid diffusion between the blood and surrounding cells.
d. The heart has a less direct effect on the flow of blood through the veins. Blood flows steadily and without pulses in veins where it is under relatively low pressure. In the veins blood flow is assisted by the contraction of skeletal muscles during the movement of limbs and breathing. Low pressure developed in the thorax (chest cavity) when breathing in also helps draw blood back into the heart from the veins. Backflow is prevented by the semilunar valves within the veins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does the heart obtain a blood supply?

A

Since the heart is a muscle, it needs a constant supply of fresh blood carrying oxygen and glucose for aerobic respiration. The heart muscle does not obtain oxygen and nutrients from the blood inside its pumping chambers due to the large diffusion distances involved. Instead, the heart muscle is supplied with blood through its own coronary circulation; two vessels called the coronary arteries, a network of capillaries, and two coronary veins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is atrial systole?

A

a. Blood returns to the heart due to the action of skeletal and muscles involved in breathing as you move and breathe.
b. Blood under low pressure flows into the left and right atria from the pulmonary vein and vena cava.
c. As the atria fill, the increasing pressure of blood against the atrioventricular valves pushes them open and blood begins to leak into the ventricle.
d. The atria walls contract forcing more blood into the ventricles. The contraction of the atria is known as atrial systole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is ventricular systole?

A

a. After a slight delay, atrial systole is followed by ventricular systole. The ventricles contract from the base of the heart upwards, increasing the pressure in the ventricles.
b. The pressure forces open the semilunar valves and pushes blood up and out through the pulmonary arteries and aorta.
c. The pressure of blood against the atrioventricular valves closes them and prevents blood flowing backwards into the atria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is cardiac diastole?

A

a. The atria and ventricles then relax during cardiac diastole. Elastic recoil of the relaxing heart walls lowers pressure in the atria and ventricles. Blood under higher pressure in the pulmonary arteries and aorta is drawn back towards the ventricles, closing the semilunar valves and preventing further backflow in the ventricles.
b. The coronary arteries fill during diastole.
c. Low pressure in the atria helps draw blood into the heart from the veins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How to calculate beats per minute from a graph?

A

a. Calculate the time it takes to complete one cardiac cycle.
b. Beats per minute = 60 / cycle time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

A

a. Atherosclerosis is the disease process that leads to coronary heart disease and strokes.
b. In atherosclerosis fatty deposits can either block an artery directly or increase its chance of being blocked by a blood clot (thrombosis). The blood supply can be blocked completely. If it is not restored very quickly, the affected cells are permanently damaged. In the coronary arteries this results in a heart attack (myocardial infarction).
c. In the arteries supplying the brain it results in a stroke. The supply of blood to the brain is restricted or blocked, causing damage or death to cells in the brain.
d. Narrowing of arteries to the legs can result in tissue death and gangrene (decay).
e. An aneurysm can also form where an artery bursts due to a build-up of blood behind an artery that has been narrowed as a result of atherosclerosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens in atherosclerosis?

A

a. The endothelium, a delicate layer of cells that lines the inside of an artery and separates the blood that flows along the artery from the muscular wall, becomes damaged and dysfunctional for some reason. This endothelial damage can result from high blood pressure, which puts an extra strain of the layer of cells, or it might occur due to some of the toxins from cigarette smoke in the bloodstream.
b. Once the inner lining of the artery is breached there is an inflammatory response. White blood cells leave the blood vessel and move into the artery wall. These cells accumulate chemicals from the blood, particularly cholesterol. A fatty deposit builds up, called an atheroma.
c. Calcium salts and fibrous tissue also build up at the site, resulting in a hard swelling called a plaque on the inner wall of the artery. The build-up of fibrous tissue means that the artery wall loses some of its elasticity; in other words, it hardens.
d. Plaques cause the lumen of the artery to become narrower. This makes it more difficult for the heart to pump blood around the body and can lead to a rise in blood pressure. Now there is a dangerous positive feedback building up. Plaques lead to raised blood pressure and raised blood pressure makes it more likely that further plaques will form, as damage to endothelial tissue in other areas become more likely.
e. The person may be unaware of any problem at this stage, but if the arteries become very narrow or completely blocked, they cannot supply enough blood to bring oxygen and nutrients to the tissues. The tissue can no longer function normally, and symptoms will soon start to show.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the clotting cascade reaction.

A

a. Rapid blood clotting is vital when a blood vessel is damaged. The blood clot seals the break in the blood vessel and limits blood loss and prevents entry of pathogens through any open wounds.
b. When platelets, a type of blood cell without a nucleus, come into contact with the damaged vessel wall they change from flattened discs to spheres with long thin projections. Their cell surfaces change, causing them to stick to the exposed collagen in the wall and to each other to form a temporary platelet plug. They also release substances that activate more platelets.
c. The direct contact of blood with collagen within the damaged blood vessel wall also triggers a complex series of chemical changes in the blood.
i. Platelets stick to damaged wall and to each other, forming a platelet plug. Platelets and damaged tissue release a protein called thromboplastin.
ii. Thromboplastin activates an enzyme that catalyses the conversion of the protein prothrombin into an enzyme called thrombin. A number of other protein factors, vitamin K and calcium ions must be present in the blood plasma for this conversion to happen.
iii. Thrombin then catalyses the conversion of the soluble plasma protein, fibrinogen, into the insoluble protein fibrin.
iv. A mesh of fibrin forms that traps more platelets and red blood cells to form a clot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens inside arteries to cause blood clotting?

A

a. Usually blood does not clot inside blood vessels. Platelets do not stick to the endothelium (inner lining) of blood vessels. It is very smooth and has substances on its surface that repel the platelets.
b. However, if there is atherosclerosis and the endothelium is damaged, the platelets come into contact with the damaged surface and any exposed collaged. The clotting cascade will be triggered with the vessel resulting in a clot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the consequences of atherosclerosis?

A

a. Coronary heart disease is one of the consequences of atherosclerosis.
i. Narrowing of the coronary arteries limits the amount of oxygen-rich blood reaching the heart muscle. The result may be a chest pain called angina. Angina is usually experienced during exertion when the cardiac muscle is working harder and needs to respire more. Because the heart muscle lacks oxygen, it is forced to respire anaerobically. It is thought that this results in chemical changes which trigger pain, but the detailed mechanism is still not known. Usually these symptoms will ease with rest.
ii. If a fatty plaque in the coronary arteries ruptures, collagen is exposed which leads to rapid clot formation. The blood supply to the heart may be blocked completely. The heart muscle supplied by these arteries does not receive any blood, so it is said to be ischaemic (without blood). If the affected muscle cells are starved of oxygen for long, they will be permanently damaged. This is what we call a heart attack or myocardial infarction. If the zone of dead cells occupies only a small area of tissue the heart attack is less likely to prove fatal.
b. A stroke is another consequence that could occur as a result of atherosclerosis.
i. If the supply of blood to the brain is only briefly interrupted, then a mini-stroke may occur. A mini stroke has all the symptoms of a full stroke but the effects last for only a short period, and full recovery can happen quite quickly. However, a mini stroke is a warning of problems with blood supply to the brain that could result in a full stroke in the future.
ii. If a blood clot blocks one of the arteries leading to the brain, a full stroke will result. If brain cells are starved of oxygen for more than a few minutes they will be permanently damaged, and it can be fatal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe risk perception.

A

a. People will overestimate a risk if the risk is:
i. involuntary (not under their control)
ii. not natural
iii. unfamiliar
iv. dreaded
v. unfair
vi. very small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the different factors that contribute to health risks?

A

a. age
b. heredity
c. physical environment
d. social environment
e. lifestyle and behavioural choices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define a cohort study.

A

a. Cohort studies follow a large group of people over time to see who develops the disease and who does not. These types of studies are prospective; at the start of the study none of the participants have the disease.
b. These types of studies may take a long time and can take years, so can be very expensive.
c. There are two ways a cohort study may be carried out. The first is where a large population of people are followed over a large period of time, and their exposure to certain risk factors are studied. Researchers then compare exposure to risk factors and look for correlations and draw conclusions between the group who develop the condition and who do not.
d. The second method is where a population is exposed to a specific risk factor is follow over a period of time and the population who is not exposed to the risk factor is followed over the same period of time. For each group there is usually a group who develops the condition and who do not develop the condition, outcomes are compared, and conclusions are drawn by researchers so any correlation between the risk factors and disease development can be identified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define a case-control study.

A

a. In a case-control study, a group of people with a disease (cases) are compared with a control group of individuals who do not have the disease. Information is collected about the risk factors that they have been exposed to in the past, allowing factors that may have contributed to development of the disease to be identified.
b. These types of studies are retrospective.
c. The control group should also be representative of the population from which the case group was drawn. Sometimes controls are individually matched to cases; known disease-risk factors, such as age and sex, are then similar in each case and control pair. This allows scientists to investigate the potential role of unknown risk factors.
d. The factors used to match the cases and controls cannot be investigated within the study, so it is important not to match any variables which could potentially turn out to be risk factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What must a study have?

A

A study must have:

i. A clear aim
ii. A representative sample
iii. A large sample
iv. Controlled Variables
v. Valid and Reliable results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some of the risk factors for CVD?

A

a. high blood pressure
b. obesity
c. blood cholesterol and other dietary factors
d. smoking
e. inactivity
f. genetic inheritance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is used to measure blood pressure?

A

A sphygmomanometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What determines your blood pressure?

A

a. Contact between blood and the walls of the blood vessels causes friction and this impedes the flow of blood. This is called peripheral resistance.
b. The arterioles and capillaries offer a greater total surface area than the arteries, resisting flow more, slowing the blood down and causing the total blood pressure to fall. The greatest drop in pressure occurs in the arterioles. The fluctuations in pressure in the arteries are caused by contraction and relaxation of the heart.
c. As blood is expelled from the heart, pressure is higher. During diastole, elastic recoil of the blood vessels maintains the pressure and keeps the blood flowing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What determines increasing or decreasing resistance in the blood vessels?

A

a. If the smooth muscles in the walls of an artery or an arteriole contract, the vessels constrict making the lumen narrower and increasing resistance. In turn, your blood pressure is raised. If the smooth muscles relax, the lumen is dilated, so peripheral resistance is reduced and blood pressure falls.
b. Any factor that causes arteries or arterioles to constrict can lead to elevated blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe oedema.

A

a. One sign of high blood pressure is oedema – fluid building up in tissues and causing swelling. Oedema may also be associated with kidney or liver disease, or with restricted body movement.
b. At the arterial end of the capillary, blood is under pressure. This forces fluid and small molecules normally found in plasma out through fenestrations in the capillary wall into the intercellular space, forming tissue fluid, also known as the interstitial fluid.
c. Blood cells and larger plasma proteins stay inside the capillary; their larger size prevents them passing through the gaps in the capillary wall.
d. Tissue fluid moves back into the capillaries by osmosis. 20% of tissue fluid drains into blind-ended lymph capillaries. It flows through lymph vessels and returns the lymph fluid to the blood via the thoracic duct in the neck, which empties into the vena cava.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are monosaccharides?

A

Monosaccharides are single sugar units.

34
Q

How are disaccharides formed?

A

Disaccharides are two single sugar units combined together in a condensation reaction.

35
Q

What are polysaccharides?

A

a. Long straight or branched chains of sugar units form polysaccharides.
b. Polymers such as polysaccharides, proteins and nucleic acids, are made by linking identical or similar subunits, called monomers, to form straight or branched chains.
c. There are three main types of polysaccharides found in food: starch and cellulose in plants, and glycogen in animals. Although all three are polymers of glucose molecules, they are sparingly soluble and do not taste sweet.

36
Q

What is a condensation reaction?

A

A condensation reaction is one in which a water molecule is released as the two molecules join together.

37
Q

What is a hydrolysis reaction?

A

Addition of water in the splitting of a molecule is known as a hydrolysis reaction.

38
Q

What are monosaccharides and what are some examples of hexose sugars?

A

a. Monosaccharides are single sugar units and they have between three and seven carbon atoms, but the most common number is six.
b. The monosaccharides glucose, galactose and fructose all contain six carbon atoms and are known as hexose sugars.

39
Q

What are common disaccharides found in food?

A

a. Common disaccharides found in food include sucrose, maltose and lactose.
b. The white or brown crystalline sugar used in cooking, and the sugar in golden syrup or molasses, is sucrose. It is extracted from sugar cane or sugar beet.

40
Q

Where does the hydrolysis of carbohydrates take place?

A

a. Hydrolysis of carbohydrates takes place when carbohydrates are digested in the gut and when carbohydrate stores in a cell are broken down to release sugars.
b. If monosaccharides are eaten, they are rapidly absorbed into the blood causing a sharp rise in blood sugar.
c. Polysaccharides and disaccharides (complex carbohydrates) have to be digested into monosaccharides before being absorbed, so the monosaccharides are released more slowly.
d. However, eating complex carbohydrates does not cause the swings in blood sugar levels we see after eating monosaccharides.

41
Q

What is lactose and how are people intolerant to lactose able to digest the lactose?

A

a. Lactose is the sugar present in milk.
b. One solution is to hydrolyse the lactose in milk, which converts the disaccharide lactose into the monosaccharide’s glucose and galactose. Industrially this is carried out using the enzyme lactase.
c. Lactase can be immobilised in a gel, and milk is poured in a continuous stream through a column containing beads of the immobilised enzyme.

42
Q

Why do we have such a sweet tooth?

A

a. We have taste receptors on our tongues for the five main tastes – sweet, sour, bitter, salty and umami (the taste associated with monosodium glutamate or MSG).
b. It is likely that the sweet-taste receptors enable animals to identify food that is easily digestible, whereas bitter-taste receptors provide a warning to avoid potential toxins
c. Humans, along with many other primates (apes and monkeys), have many more sweet-taste receptors than most other animals. Our sweet-taste receptors help us to identify when fruit is ready to eat.

43
Q

Describe the formation of starch.

A

a. Starch and glycogen act as energy storage molecules within cells.
b. These polysaccharides are suitable for storage because they are compact molecules with low solubility in water. So, they do not affect the concentration of water in the cytoplasm and so do not affect the movement of water into or out of the cell by osmosis.
c. Starch, the storage carbohydrate found in plants, is made up of amylose and amylopectin.
i. Amylose is composed of a straight chain of between 200 and 5000 glucose molecules with 1,4-glycosidic bonds between adjacent glucose molecules. The position of the bonds causes the chain to coil into a spiral shape.
ii. Amylopectin is also a polymer of glucose, but it has side branches with 1,6-glycosidic bonding.
d. Starch is composed of about 70-80% amylopectin and 20-30% amylose.

44
Q

What is glycogen?

A

a. Glycogen is used by bacteria, fungi and animals instead of starch as an energy store. It is another polymer composed of glucose molecules.
b. It has numerous side branches meaning that it can be rapidly hydrolysed, giving easy access to stored energy.
c. In human’s glycogen is stored in the liver and muscles.

45
Q

What is cellulose?

A

a. Cellulose in the diet is known as dietary fibre.
b. Up to 10,000 glucose molecules are joined to form a straight chain with no branches with beta glucose 1,4-glycosidic bonding.
c. It is indigestible in the human gut, and it has an important function in the movement of material through the digestive tract.

46
Q

What are lipids?

A

a. They are the general term for fats and oils, in food they enhance flavour and palatability, supplying over twice the energy of carbohydrates.
b. Lipids are organic molecules found in every type of cell. They are insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents such as ethanol. Most of the lipids we eat are triglycerides which are used as energy stores in plants and animals.

47
Q

Describe triglycerides.

A

a. Triglycerides are made up of three fatty acids and one glycerol molecule linked by condensation reactions.
b. The bond that forms between each fatty acid and the glycerol is known as an ester bond. Three ester bonds are formed in a triglyceride. Each is formed in a condensation reaction with the release of a water molecule.

48
Q

Describe the difference between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.

A

a. There is no carbon to carbon double bonds in a saturated fatty acid chain and no more hydrogens can be added to it.
b. Animal fats from meat and dairy products are major sources of saturated fats.
c. Straight, saturated hydrocarbon chains can pack together closely. The strong intermolecular bonds between triglycerides made up of saturated fatty acids result in fats that are solid at room temperature.
d. Monounsaturated fats have one double bond between two of the carbon atoms in each fatty acid chain. Polyunsaturated fats have a larger number of double bonds. A double bond causes a kink in the hydrocarbon chain. These kinks prevent the unsaturated hydrocarbon chains packing closely together. Increasing the distance between the molecules weakens the intermolecular forces between the unsaturated triglycerides resulting in oils that are liquid at room temperature.

49
Q

What are trans fats?

A

a. Unsaturated fats can be made more solid at room temperature by adding hydrogen to the double bonds making them saturated.
b. These hydrogenated or trans fats do occur naturally at very low levels in meat and dairy products.

50
Q

What are other types of lipids?

A

a. Cholesterol is a short lipid molecule which is essential for good health.
i. It is a vital component of cell membranes with roles in their organisation and functioning.
b. The steroid sex hormones such as progesterone and testosterone and some growth hormones are made from cholesterol.
c. Bile salts, involved in lipid digestion and assimilation, are also formed from cholesterol.

51
Q

What are the different ways we obtain cholesterol?

A

a. Cholesterol is made in the liver from saturated fats and also obtained in our diet.
b. It is found associated with saturated fats in foods such as eggs, meat and dairy products.

52
Q

What are essential fatty acids?

A

a. These are the fatty acids that the body needs but cannot synthesise.
b. Fats therefore must be present in a balanced diet to avoid deficiency symptoms.
c. A deficiency of linoleic acid (an essential fatty acid) can result in scaly skin, hair loss and slow wound healing.
d. Furthermore, fat-soluble vitamins (A,D,E and K) can only be absorbed if our diet includes food containing fat.

53
Q

What are the consequences of obesity?

A

a. Obesity increases your risk of coronary heart disease and stroke, even without other risk factors being present. The more excess fat you carry, especially around your middle, the greater the risk to your heart.
b. Obesity can also greatly increase your risk of type 2 diabetes also known as non-insulin-dependent diabetes or late-onset diabetes, it, in turn, increases your risk of CHD and stroke.
c. Obesity can also raise your blood pressure and elevate your blood lipid levels.

54
Q

What is type 2 diabetes?

A

a. Type 1 diabetes occurs when the body is unable to make insulin.
b. In type 2 diabetes the body either does not produce sufficient insulin or the body fails to respond to the insulin that is produced.
c. Insulin is the hormone that helps regulate blood glucose levels.
d. After a meal the level of blood glucose rises, in response, the pancreas produces insulin and secretes it into the bloodstream. The insulin causes cells to absorb glucose, and therefore the blood glucose level returns to normal. A continually high blood glucose levels due to frequent consumption of sugar-rich foods can reduce the sensitivity of cells to insulin, resulting in type 2 diabetes.

55
Q

Describe low-density lipoproteins.

A

a. Triglycerides from fats in our diet combine with cholesterol and protein to form LDLs which transport the cholesterol to body cells.
b. LDLs circulate in the bloodstream and bind to receptor sites on cell membranes before being taken up by the cells where the cholesterol is involved in the synthesis and maintenance of cell membranes.
c. Excess LDLs overload these membrane receptors, resulting in high blood cholesterol levels. This LDL cholesterol may be deposited in the artery walls forming atheromas.

56
Q

Describe high-density lipoproteins.

A

a. HDLs have a higher percentage of protein and less cholesterol compared with LDLs, hence their higher density. High-density lipoproteins are made when triglycerides from fats combine with cholesterol and protein.
b. HDLs transport cholesterol from the body tissues to the liver where it is broken down. This lowers blood cholesterol levels and helps remove the fatty plaques of atherosclerosis.

57
Q

Compare saturated fats and unsaturated fats.

A

a. Studies have shown saturated fats in the diet increases LDL and HDL cholesterol, however, the increase in LDL cholesterol is greater.
b. Replacing saturated fats with polyunsaturated fats decreases both HDL and LDL levels, a greater reduction in LDLs means that the HDL:LDL ratio is increased with a protective effect.
c. Eating a low-fat diet which particularly avoids saturated fats will help reduce total blood cholesterol and LDL cholesterol.
d. Saturated fats may also reduce the activity of LDL receptors so the LDLs are not removed from the blood, thus further increasing the blood cholesterol levels and CVD risk.

58
Q

Describe smoking as a risk factor.

A

a. Carbon monoxide in the smoke binds to haemoglobin (the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells) instead of oxygen. This reduces the supply of oxygen to cells. This will result in an increased heart rate as the body reacts to provide enough oxygen for the cells.
b. Nicotine in smoke stimulates the production of the hormone adrenaline. This hormone causes an increase in heart rate and also causes arteries and arterioles to constrict, both of which raise blood pressure.
c. Numerous chemicals found in cigarette smoke can also cause damage to the lining of the arteries, triggering atherosclerosis.
d. It has also been linked with a reduction in HDL cholesterol levels.

59
Q

Describe the benefits of exercise.

A

a. Halves the risk of developing CVD
b. Raises HDL cholesterol
c. Reduces development of type 2 diabetes.

60
Q

Describe the role of antioxidants.

A

a. During reactions in the body, unstable radicals result when an atom has an unpaired electron.
b. Radicals are highly reactive and can damage cell components including enzymes and genetic material. This type of cellular damage has been implicated in the development of some types of cancer, heart disease and premature ageing.
c. Some vitamins, including vitamin C, beta-carotene and vitamin E, can protect against radical damage.
d. The MONICA study found that high levels of antioxidants seemed to protect against heart disease.

61
Q

Describe salt as a risk factor.

A

A high salt diet causes the kidneys to retain water. Higher fluid levels in the blood result in elevated blood pressure with the associated cardiovascular disease risks.

62
Q

Describe stress as a risk factor.

A

a. Stress releases adrenaline which causes the arteries and arterioles to constrict, resulting in raised blood pressure.
b. Stress can also lead to overeating, a poor diet and higher alcohol consumption, which are all potential contributors to CVD.

63
Q

Describe alcohol as a risk factor.

A

a. Alcohol raises blood pressure, contributes to obesity and can cause irregular heartbeats known as arrhythmia.
b. Alcohol is very quickly absorbed, 20% through the wall of the stomach and the remainder through the walls of the intestine.
c. Excess alcohol consumption can result in direct tissue damage, including damage to the liver, brain and heart.

d. The functions of the liver include processing carbohydrates, fats and proteins, and detoxification, including the removal and destruction of alcohol, high levels can damage liver cells, impairing its ability. In the liver alcohol is converted into ethanal, a three-carbon carbohydrate. Most of the ethanal is used in respiration but some may end up in very low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) increasing the risk of plaque deposition.
e. However, moderate consumption is correlated with higher HDL cholesterol levels.

64
Q

What effect does coffee have on CVD?

A

a. Epidemiological studies have positively and negatively correlated drinking coffee and health risks.
b. There is no conclusive evidence indicating coffee has an effect on CVD.

65
Q

Describe Apolipoprotein A.

A

a. There are several genes that can affect your likelihood of developing CVD. The apolipoprotein gene cluster has been identified as associated with CHD and other conditions such as Alzheimer’s diseases.
b. Apolipoproteins are the protein component of lipoproteins, mostly formed in the liver and intestines.
c. Apolipoprotein A is the major protein in HDL, which helps removal of cholesterol to the liver for excretion. Mutations in the apoA gene are associated with low HDL levels and reduced removal of cholesterol from the blood, leading to increased risk of coronary heart disease.

66
Q

Describe Apolipoprotein B.

A

a. Apolipoprotein B is the main protein in LDL, the molecule that transfers cholesterol from the blood to cells.
b. Mutations of the apoB gene results in higher levels of LDL in the blood and a higher susceptibility to CVD.

67
Q

Describe Apolipoprotein E.

A

a. Apolipoprotein E – a major component of HDLs and very low-density lipoproteins, which are also involved in the removal of excess cholesterol from the blood to the liver.
b. The apoE gene has three common alleles, producing three forms of the protein, E2, E3 and E4. APOE4 slows removal of cholesterol from the blood and therefore having the E4 allele may increase the risk of coronary heart disease.

68
Q

Describe ACE inhibitors.

A

a. ACE inhibitors (angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors) are antihypertensive drugs which reduce the synthesis of angiotensin II.
b. The hormone angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels to help control blood pressure.
c. The ACE inhibitors prevent the hormone being produced from the inactive angiotensin I, therefore reducing vasoconstriction and lowering blood pressure.
d. Some side effects when taking ACE inhibitors include a dry cough, dizziness due to rapid lowering of blood pressure, abnormal heart rhythms and a reduction in the function of the kidney.
e. However, for anyone with kidney disease the drug may reduce the risk of kidney failure. Patients intolerant to ACE inhibitors will be prescribed an alternative drug that blocks the angiotensin II receptors.

69
Q

Describe calcium channel blockers.

A

a. Calcium channel blockers are antihypertensive drugs that block the calcium channels in the muscle cells in the lining of arteries.
b. For the muscle to contract, calcium must pass through these channels into the muscle cells.
c. Failure of calcium to enter the cell prevents contraction of the muscle, the blood vessels do not constrict, and this lowers blood pressure.
d. Some side effects of calcium channel blockers include headaches, dizziness, swollen ankles due to a build-up of fluid in the legs, abnormal heart rhythms, flushing red in the face and constipation.
e. In people with heart failure, taking some types of calcium channel blockers can make symptoms worse or be fatal, so they may not be prescribed to people who have had a heart attack.

70
Q

Describe diuretics.

A

a. Diuretics increase the volume of urine produced by the kidneys and therefore rid the body of excess fluids and salt. This leads to a decrease in blood plasma volume and cardiac output (volume of blood expelled from the heart in a minute), which lowers blood pressure.
b. If you are taking a diuretic it is important not to have too much salt in food as this counteracts the diuretic effect.
c. Some side effects include dizziness, nausea or muscle cramps.

71
Q

Describe statins.

A

a. Individuals diagnosed with high cholesterol who have CVD or have a 20% chance of developing CVD in the next 10 years may be prescribed statins.
b. Statins work by inhibiting an enzyme involved in the production of LDL cholesterol by the liver called HMG-CoA reductase.
c. Some side effects of statins include tiredness, disturbed sleep, feeling sick, vomiting, diarrhoea, headache and muscle weakness.

72
Q

What must a diet contain to offer protection against cardiovascular disease?

A

a. Energy balanced.
b. Reduced saturated fats.

c. More polyunsaturated
fats.

d. Reduced cholesterol.
e. Reduced salt.
f. More non-starch polysaccharides, such as pectins and guar gum.
i. these polysaccharides, known as soluble fibre, have been found to lower blood cholesterol. They are only partially digested, forming a gel that traps the cholesterol and prevents its absorption.

73
Q

Describe the use of aspirin as an anticoagulant.

A

a. Aspirin reduces the stickiness of platelets and the likelihood of clot formation.
b. However, some people are allergic to aspirin, and for others it is not effective or is only partially effective.
c. In these cases, an alternative platelet inhibitory drug, clopidogrel, may be used.
d. However, it has also been shown that there is a risk of bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract with aspirin, and in trials there have been high rates of serious bleeding when aspirin is used in combination with clopidogrel.
e. The risk of bleeding may outweigh the benefits. If a person has only a low risk of a vascular event (less than 1% per year risk of a heart attack or stroke), the risk of bleeding outweighs the benefits. Guidelines suggest use of aspirin when the 10-year risk of a heart attack or stroke is greater than 20%.

74
Q

Describe the use of warfarin as an anticoagulant.

A

a. Warfarin is an anticoagulant drug.
b. It interferes with the production of vitamin K and there it affects the synthesis of clotting factors.
c. It can be taken orally for extended periods of time to prevent clotting.
d. The benefits may be greater with warfarin than aspirin for some patients, but the risk of bleeding is higher in warfarin than with aspirin.

75
Q

Define basal metabolic rate.

A

The amount of energy used, per day, whilst at rest.

76
Q

Which two monosaccharides make sucrose?

A

a. Alpha glucose and alpha fructose.

b. Stored in plants

77
Q

Which two monosaccharides make maltose?

A

a. Alpha glucose and alpha glucose.

b. Maltose is a malt sugar found in germinating seeds.

78
Q

Which two monosaccharides make lactose?

A

a. Alpha glucose and beta galactose.

b. Lactose is a sugar and is the main carbohydrate found in milk.

79
Q

Describe obesity indicators

A

a. BMI.

b. Waist to hip ratio.

80
Q

What is the calculation for waist to hip ratio?

A

Waist circumference divided by hip circumference.