V1 Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Maximum runway slope.

A

+/-2%

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2
Q

The Maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component is?

A

10 it’s (15 approved airfields only).

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3
Q

Maximum speed.

A

250 below FL100 unless approved by ATC and within A,B and C airspace.

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4
Q

Maximum operating altitude.

A

41,000 ft.

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5
Q

Maximum takeoff and landing altitude.

A

8,400 ft

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6
Q

EI-DAC through EI-EXF

Maximum flight operating latitude.

A

82 North and South.
70 North between 80 West and 130 West.
60 South between 120 East and 160 East.

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7
Q

EI-FEF through SP-RSA

Maximum operating latitude.

A

82 North and South.
73 North between 80 West and 170 West.
60 South between 120 East and 160 East.

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8
Q

EI-FEF though SP-RSA

Daily check.

A

Installation of handle covers on the overwing exits must be verified prior to departure whenever passengers are carried.

Verify that operational check of the flight deck door access system has been accomplished according to approved procedure once each flight day.

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9
Q

Severe turbulent air penetration speed.

A

280 KIAS / .76M whichever is lower during climb and descent only.
During cruise refer to SP.16 severe turbulence supplementary procedure.

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10
Q

The HF radio can be operated during refueling operations.

A

NO.

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11
Q

When must the escape slide retention bar (girt bar) be installed?

A

During taxi, takeoff and landing.

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12
Q

Does the standby altimeter accuracy meet the RVSM airspace requirement?

A

NO.

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13
Q

What is the maximum in flight difference between the First officer and Captains altitude display for RVSM operation?

A

200 ft.

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14
Q

What are the maximum on the ground altitude display difference for RVSM operations?

A

Sea level to 5,000 ft:

CP and FO 50 ft - CP/FO and field elevation 75ft.

5,001 ft to 10,000 ft:

CP and FO 60 ft - CP/FO and field elevation 75ft.

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15
Q

In the event of a conflict between the AFM and the FCOM, which manual governs.

A

The AFM.

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16
Q

Maximum Taxi Weights?

A

75,216*

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17
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weights?

A

74,990*

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18
Q

Maximum Landing Weight?

A

65,317

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19
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight?

A

61,688

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20
Q

What is the maximum cabin differential?

A

9.1 PSI.

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21
Q

With either one or both bleed air switches ON, can you operate the air conditioning packs in HIGH?

A

Not for takeoff approach or landing*.

Non-Normal procedures will take precedence over this statement.
CARGO FIRE and SMOKE/FUMES REMOVAL.

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22
Q

Aileron can be trim used while the auto pilot is engage?

A

NO.

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23
Q

Under what elevation can you engage the autopilot for takeoff?

A

400 ft AGL.

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24
Q

Airplanes operating with EASA certification.

The minimum use heigh (MUH) for single channel autopilot is?

A

158 ft AGL.

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25
Q

Maximum allowable wind speed when conducting a dual channel CAT2 or CAT3 approach landing predicated on auto land operations, are:

A

Headwind 25 kts
Crosswind 20 kts
Tailwind 10 kts

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26
Q

Maximum and minimum glideslope angle for autoland are

A

3.25 and 2.5 respectively.

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27
Q

What flap setting can be used during an autoland?

A

Flap 30 and 40 only.

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28
Q

Autoland can be performed single engine?

A

NO.

29
Q

What is the lowest LVL CHG can be used on approach?

A

1,001 ft AFE.

30
Q

During ground operations, which VHF must be used for ATC communications?

A

The VHF radio connected to the the antenna that is on top of the fuselage.

31
Q

What colors are the engine limit display markings?

A

Maximums and minimums are Red,

Caution limits are Amber.

32
Q

During which phases of flight must the engine ignition be on for?

A

Takeoff
Landing
Operation in heavy rain
Anti-ice operation.

33
Q

Operation with assumed temperature reduced takeoff thrust is not permitted with anti-skid inoperative.

A

True.

34
Q

Thrust reversed can be used in flight.

A

NO.

35
Q

Airplanes operating with EASA certification:

APU maximum altitude operation?

A

APU bleed + electrical load = max 10,000 ft
APU bleed max 17,000 ft
APU electrical load max 41,000 ft

36
Q

When must the APU bleed valve be closed ?

A

Ground air is connected and isolation valve is closed,
Engine no. 1 bleed valve is open,
Isolation and engine no. 2 bleed valves are open.

37
Q

Can the APU bleed valve be open during engine start?

A

Yes, however engine power above idle must be avoided.

38
Q

How many consecutive APU starts are allowed and how long is the cooling period?

A

Three consecutive aborted start attempts and a fifteen minute cooling period is required.

39
Q

The Maximum altitude with Flaps extended is?

A

20,000 ft.

40
Q

What is prohibited when holding in icing conditions?

A

Flaps extended.

41
Q

What is the maximum Flap setting with Speed brake deployed?

A

Flap 10 (15 or greater is prohibited).

42
Q

In flight, the SPEED BRAKE can be deployed beyond FLIGHT DETENT

A

NO.

43
Q

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll or yaw as they may result in structural failure at any speeds, including below VA.

A

OK.

44
Q

Airplanes operating with EASA certification,

Flap 15 landings are authorized.

A

NO.
Flaps 15 normal landing are prohibited. A Flaps 15 landing may only be performed when required by a non-normal procedure.

45
Q

What is the lowest radio altitude at which the speed brakes can be deployed?

A

10,001 ft.

46
Q

When extending or retracting flaps with the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, how long must you allow before moving the switch again?

A

15 seconds after releasing the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch in order to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch.

47
Q

How much time must be allowed after a complete extend/retract cycle (0-15-0) if using the ALTERNATE FLAPS.

A

5 minutes cooling before attempting another extension.

48
Q

ADIRU alignment must not be attempted at latitudes greater than?

A

78 degrees 15 minutes.

49
Q

The terrain display can be used for navigation.

A

NO.

50
Q

When should the look ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions not be used?

A

Within 15 nm of takeoff, approach and landing at an airport not contained in the GPWS terrain database.

Refer to Honeywell doc. 060-4267-000 for airports and runways contained in the installed GPWS terrain database.

51
Q

RAAS alerts shall not be used for navigational purposes.

A

Correct.

52
Q

On what display are the RAAS visual messages and status messages shown?

A

On the terrain display.

53
Q

RAAS aural alerts will be affected by the selection on Terrain display.

A

False.

54
Q

What RAAS messages are shown on the Terrain display?

A

RAAS visual messages and status messages.

55
Q

Pilots may use RAAS advisories as a replacement for NOTAM or Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS).

A

No.

56
Q

The RAAS system knows the location of taxiway hold short lines and is approved as a ground navigation aid.

A

No.

57
Q

The absence of RAAS alerts, in particular “Long landing” means the aircraft can be safely operated from or onto the runway.

A

No.

58
Q

The weather radar cannot be operated in a hangar, or within how many ft from fueling operations or a fuel spill.

A

50ft or 15.25 m.

59
Q

Can the test mode be used on the weather radar whilst the aircraft is in a hangar?

A

Yes.

60
Q

What is the Maximum fuel tank temperature?

A

49C.

61
Q

What is the Minimum tank fuel temperature prior to takeoff and inflight?

A

-43C or 3C above the fuel freezing point temperature, whichever is higher.

62
Q

The use of Fuel System Icing Inhibitor additives changes the minimum fuel tank temperature limit.

A

No.

63
Q

Intentional dry running of a center tank fuel pump (low pressure light illuminated) is prohibited.

A

Correct.

64
Q

How much fuel imbalance between main tanks 1 and 2 can there be scheduled to be?

A

Zero.

65
Q

What is the Maximum fuel imbalance for taxi, takeoff, flight or and landing?

A

453 kgs.

66
Q

If the main tanks 1 and 2 are not full, what is the maximum amount of fuel allowed in the center tank?

A

453 kgs.

67
Q

The main tanks 1 and 2 are at 3500kgs each, and the center tank holds 750 kgs. Is this configuration allowed?

A

No.

68
Q

Airplanes operating with EASA certification,

What vehicles are allowed to tow the aircraft without the use of a tow bar?

A

Only tow vehicles that are designated and operated to preclude damage to the aircraft steering system or which provide a reliable and unmistakable warning when damage to the steering system may have occurred.

69
Q

Brakes cannot be applied until after touchdown.

A

Correct.