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CHP Sgt. Study 2/2 > 70.6 Officer Safety Manual > Flashcards

70.6 Officer Safety Manual Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of the Officer Safety Manual?

A

To assist officers in performing their duties in a safe and professional manner.

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2
Q

What standard should officers use when deciding which force option to use?

A

Reasonable for the situation.

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3
Q

What is an officer’s demeanor?

A

Demeanor is: Bearing, Appearance, Physical Condition, Verbal and nonverbal communication, Command presence

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4
Q

How many force options are there?

A

7

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5
Q

What are the force options?

A

The force options are: Control Holds, Aerosol Subject Restraint, Baton, Personal Weapons, Deadly Force, Electronic Control Device, Less Than Lethal Shotgun

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6
Q

Is demeanor considered a force option?

A

No

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7
Q

Who makes the decision to select the appropriate force option?

A

Officer

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8
Q

What is the force option decision based on?

A

Sound judgment, circumstances perceived by the officer, and utilization of only the force reasonable to gain control.

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9
Q

Is it necessary to move progressively from one force option to the next?

A

No

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10
Q

What is the force used to take physical control of a person and restrict or prevent movement?

A

Control hold

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11
Q

What is the Aerosol Subject Restraint used by the Department?

A

Oleoresin Capsicum (OC)

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12
Q

What is the purpose of using OC spray?

A

To cause temporary incapacitation allowing the officer to gain advantage or control.

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13
Q

Would it be reasonable to use OC on a detained subject who attempts to leave and the officer believes control holds would be ineffective or compromise safety?

A

Yes

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14
Q

Would it be reasonable to use OC on a subject who threatens to attack the officer when the officer does not believe the subject is capable of the attack?

A

No

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15
Q

Would it be reasonable to use OC on an aggressive resister?

A

Yes

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16
Q

Besides striking a subject, the baton can be used for what?

A

As a control mechanism

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17
Q

Can an officer use the baton when circumstances prevent the use of other force options?

A

Yes

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18
Q

Under what circumstances can officers utilize personal weapons in lieu of other force options?

A

Impractical, inappropriate, or not readily available

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19
Q

Can personal weapons be used as a distraction technique for an aggressive resister?

A

Yes

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20
Q

Does the Department use the carotid restraint control hold?

A

No

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21
Q

What is the definition of deadly force?

A

When the officer utilizes a firearm or another potentially deadly weapon.

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22
Q

What are the 2 key principles in the application of Use of Force?

A

Sound, professional judgment, and use of the force reasonable for the situation.

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23
Q

Which document shall be used for a Use of Force incident?

A

CHP 268, Potential Civil Litigation Report

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24
Q

Does a CHP 268 have to be used after a high-risk or felony procedure when the party was found to be innocent?

A

Yes

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25
Q

In general, is the CHP 268 used after the display or threatened use of force?

A

No

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26
Q

Is the CHP 268 used whenever deadly force, baton, OC, personal weapons are used?

A

Yes

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27
Q

Do you have to use a CHP 268 for control holds?

A

No

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28
Q

Yes or No - The CHP 268 shall be used when a control hold or handcuff resulted in injury, complaint of injury, or subsequent complaint of injury.

A

Yes

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29
Q

What shall an officer do if he witnesses excessive force by any peace officer?

A

Report the incident to a supervisor and submit an incident report.

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30
Q

What is a supervisor’s responsibility in events of excessive force?

A

Ensure that an investigation is conducted and documented.

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31
Q

Excessive force investigations involving allied agencies are coordinated at which Department level?

A

Division

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32
Q

What action should an officer take when observing excessive force by any peace officer?

A

Immediate verbal and / or physical intervention.

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33
Q

How often should the Use of Force policy be reviewed? By whom?

A

Quarterly; Sergeants and Officers

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34
Q

The purpose of a firearms policy is to provide officers with confidence rather than doubt.

A

TRUE

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35
Q

Where is the legal authority to discharge a firearm derived?

A

Penal Code, Section 196

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36
Q

The courts have justified the use of deadly force for a felony under what circumstances?

A

Felony is forcible and atrocious, and threatens death or great bodily harm.

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37
Q

Officers should not place their finger on the trigger, except:

A

When firing; or when pointing the weapon at an identified target and deadly force is justified.

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38
Q

What determines whether an officer should place his / her finger on the trigger?

A

Officer�s perception of the situation

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39
Q

When can an officer use deadly force?

A

When necessary for self-defense or to defend others from great bodily harm; or apprehension of felons.

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40
Q

Is deadly force justified for ADW with a vehicle?

A

Yes

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41
Q

Can an officer intentionally step into the path of vehicle to create a circumstance for the use of deadly force?

A

No

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42
Q

Is the discharge of a firearm justified at wrong-way / reckless drivers?

A

No

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43
Q

When can an officer discharge his weapon to apprehend a person who committed ADW with a vehicle?

A

Officer believes ADW resulted in serious injury or death.

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44
Q

When can an officer discharge his weapon to apprehend a suspect?

A

Officer believes a felony was committed involving use or threatened use of deadly force; except ADW with vehicle.

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45
Q

Warning shots can only be fired under the same conditions for deadly force and when the warning shots are not likely to endanger innocent persons.

A

TRUE

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46
Q

An officer can discharge a firearm at an animal in self-defense or in defense of others against serious bodily harm.

A

TRUE

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47
Q

An officer can discharge a firearm at an animal when necessary if the animal is critically injured provided safety to persons and property is not at risk.

A

TRUE

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48
Q

An officer can not discharge a firearm at a suspected rabid animal or an animal destroying livestock.

A

FALSE

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49
Q

Can a firearm ever be discharged from an aircraft in flight?

A

No

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50
Q

Can a firearm be discharged from an aircraft on the ground?

A

Yes

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51
Q

Shooting policy must be reviewed how often? By whom?

A

Quarterly; Sergeants and Officers

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52
Q

The rights of an officer to use a firearm in self-defense are the same as those for a private citizen.

A

TRUE

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53
Q

Supervisor approval shall be obtained prior to discharging a firearm at an animal.

A

False. It�s a SHOULD.

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54
Q

Owner�s permission to destroy an animal should be obtained, if possible.

A

TRUE

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55
Q

The shooting of an animal should be undertaken only as a last resort.

A

TRUE

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56
Q

The area behind an animal should be protected from ricochet by the use of a dirt embankment or other suitable backdrop.

A

TRUE

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57
Q

For rabid animals, head shots should not be used.

A

TRUE

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58
Q

The best way to destroy an animal is a front head shot, except for which animal?

A

Swine.

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59
Q

Best shot alternative for animals is either side of the head.

A

TRUE

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60
Q

The target location for swine is behind the ear.

A

TRUE

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61
Q

When should heart shots for animals be used?

A

Only as a last resort

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62
Q

When shall the discharge of a firearm be reported?

A

The following 6 incidents: Intentional discharge of any firearm by an on duty officer, Accidental discharge of any firearm by an on duty officer, Intentional discharge of any firearm by an off duty officer, in the direction of, or causing injury to, any person, or toward the property of another person without his / her permission, Accidental discharge of any firearm by an off duty officer that may be carried concealed under the authority of California peace officer status, Warning shots by an off duty officer to apprehend a person for any crime, Intentional or accidental discharge by a non-uniformed employee while on duty.

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63
Q

Are there any exceptions to the reporting of the discharge of a firearm?

A

Four exceptions: Training, qualification, or shooting competition, Hunting that does not result in injury to a person or property damage, Shooting of animals in accordance with policy Military duties

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64
Q

The intentional discharge of any firearm by an on-duty officer shall be reported.

A

TRUE

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65
Q

The intentional discharge of any firearm by an off-duty officer in the direction of another�s property without owner�s permission shall be reported.

A

TRUE

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66
Q

The intentional discharge of any firearm by an off-duty officer in the direction of any person, not causing injury, shall be reported.

A

TRUE

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67
Q

The intentional discharge of any firearm by an off-duty officer causing injury to any person shall be reported.

A

TRUE

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68
Q

The accidental discharge of any firearm while on-duty shall be reported.

A

TRUE

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69
Q

An off-duty accidental discharge of any firearm that may be carried concealed under the California peace officer status shall be reported.

A

TRUE

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70
Q

Off-duty warning shots to apprehend a person for any crime shall be reported.

A

TRUE

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71
Q

The intentional or accidental discharge of any firearm by a non-uniformed employee while on-duty shall be reported.

A

TRUE

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72
Q

What shall an officer submit after the shooting of an animal?

A

Memorandum

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73
Q

When shall a supervisor be notified of a reportable firearm discharge?

A

As soon as the situation is stabilized.

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74
Q

When should an officer�s weapon be taken at a shooting scene?

A

The first responder to an officer involved shooting shall do the following in order: Assume incident command. Ensure the scene is stabilized and secure all firearms at the scene. Provide medical treatment to all parties. Provide the supervisor first on-scene with all pertinent information.

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75
Q

At a shooting scene, can an officer�s weapon be secured in his / her holster?

A

Yes. The weapon shall not be taken before a replacement can be provided.

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76
Q

What are the supervisor�s responsibilities at an officer involved shooting?

A

Notify the immediate commander and the law enforcement agency with primary investigative responsibility. Respond to the scene and assume incident command. Coordinate resources with the primary investigative agency. Request the OISIT in accordance with SOP Ensure that first responder�s responsibilities are completed. Provide safety for employees, victims, suspects, and witnesses. Be sure all firearms are secured Establish a scene perimeter. Do not allow Department employees to be interrogated by allied agencies prior to the OISIT investigator or primary investigator can be consulted. Use the Shooting Incident On-Scene Guidelines to assist with scene supervision.

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77
Q

Does the firearm of an officer involved in a shooting incident need to be secured if the weapon was not fired?

A

Yes.

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78
Q

How many personnel can be assigned as the primary investigator at an officer involved shooting?

A

One

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79
Q

What will the rank of the primary investigator be at an officer involved shooting?

A

At least one rank higher than the involved employees.

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80
Q

Does the supervisor designate the primary investigator at an officer involved shooting?

A

No. The OISIT team leader or the immediate commander designates.

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81
Q

What is a dual-role investigation of an officer involved shooting?

A

When the Department does the criminal investigation and the departmental (reconstruction) investigation. Occurs when the primary law enforcement agency refused to investigate.

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82
Q

What are the components of the Officer Involved Shooting Investigation Report?

A

Reconstruction Report; Policy and Procedure Evaluation Report; and Memorandum of Findings.

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83
Q

What are the components of a Non-Uniformed employee shooting investigation report?

A

Reconstruction Report and the Memorandum of Findings.

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84
Q

How much paid, admin time off can an officer take after being involved in a shooting?

A

5 days.

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85
Q

If the officer involved shooting resulted in injury or death, where must the firearm go prior to returning it to service?

A

Academy gunsmith for inspection.

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86
Q

If an officer shoots at another person, he / she must shoot a qualifying score at the range prior to returning to full duty. True or False.

A

True.

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87
Q

When discussing an officer involved shooting with the media, information about the use of soft body armor shall not be discussed. True or False.

A

True.

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88
Q

When can information regarding an officer involved shooting be withheld from the media?

A

When it would jeopardize the investigation or endanger the safety of employees, suspects, witnesses, or family members.

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89
Q

Upon seeing a traffic violation, the officer should or shall stop the vehicle as soon as possible?

A

Should.

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90
Q

When initiating a stop, the officer should or shall write the license plate number on a note pad?

A

Should.

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91
Q

Why should the rear ambers be used prior to the front red when making a stop?

A

To indicate to those behind that a hazard may exist.

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92
Q

When should the siren be used when making a traffic stop?

A

Sparingly.

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93
Q

What is the minimum distance between patrol car and violator�s car during a traffic stop?

A

1 feet.

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94
Q

If possible, the officer should offset the patrol car to which side of the violator�s car?

A

Left.

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95
Q

After the stop, the officer should or shall turn off all unnecessary emergency lighting.

A

Should.

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96
Q

As the officer approaches the rear of the suspect vehicle, what should he / she check?

A

Trunk.

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97
Q

An officer should or shall not stand between vehicles or allow a violator to do so.

A

Shall.

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98
Q

An officer should or shall not position a moving patrol car next to a moving citizen�s car and utilize the flashlight or spotlight to check driver alertness.

A

Shall.

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99
Q

When a two-officer unit makes a traffic stop, is it ok for one officer to stay in the patrol car.

A

No. Both officers shall exit.

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100
Q

Is a two-officer approach on a vehicle during a traffic stop permitted?

A

Yes. One officer on either side of the suspect vehicle.

101
Q

An officer shall not sit in the patrol car during traffic stops except under which circumstances?

A

Unusual circumstances exist for safety reasons.

102
Q

Where should FSTs normally be administered?

A

To the right of the patrol car.

103
Q

Where is an alternative location to give FSTs?

A

In front of the violators vehicle.

104
Q

When accepting identification from a violator, the officer should not take a picture holder, case, or wallet.

A

True.

105
Q

A Notice to Appear should normally charge only the single major hazardous violation observed.

A

True.

106
Q

During normal operations, officers are exempt from the provisions of the Vehicle Code.

A

False. Officers shall obey all provisions of the VC just like any other driver, Section 2152 VC.

107
Q

Under what conditions is an officer exempt from the rules of the road?

A

Exemptions to the rules of the road are: In response to an emergency. In the immediate pursuit of an actual or suspected violator of the law. In response to, but not returning from, a fire alarm. While engaged in rescue operations.

108
Q

What else must the officer due to be exempt from the rules of the road?

A

Use the forward red light and operate the siren as reasonable necessary.

109
Q

What VC section provides the exemption for rules of the road?

A

2155 VC

110
Q

Is an officer immune from liability while operating any motor vehicle in the scope of employment?

A

Yes. Section 171 VC.

111
Q

Is an officer immune from liability when operating an AEV and responding to an emergency?

A

Yes. Section 174 VC

112
Q

An officer must always drive with due regard for the safety of all persons using the highway.

A

True. Section 2156 VC.

113
Q

Under what conditions are Code 3 escorts permitted?

A

For the preservation of life or for military movements during a national emergency.

114
Q

When can a patrol car be used to transport a patient needing medical care Code 3?

A

When time is of the utmost importance. Generally, an ambulance should be called.

115
Q

All departmental employees should or shall wear a seatbelt while operating or riding in a departmental vehicle.

A

Shall

116
Q

When is the use of emergency warning lights authorized?

A

During extreme hazards or unusual traffic hazards.

117
Q

Flashing headlights shall or should be deactivated when the patrol car is stopped?

A

Shall

118
Q

A patrol car using the siren should pass traffic on what side?

A

Left.

119
Q

When can a patrol car pass traffic on the right?

A

When no other option is available and only when the red light and siren are deactivated.

120
Q

If a pursued subject can be identified, should the pursuit be discontinued?

A

Yes. Unless a greater hazard would result.

121
Q

A pursuit should or shall not be initiated while transporting another person?

A

Should

122
Q

What is trailing a pursuit?

A

The unauthorized following of a pursuit.

123
Q

How often must the pursuit policy be reviewed? By whom?

A

Quarterly; Sgt and officers.

124
Q

Under what circumstances should a pursuit be aborted?

A

The following: Extreme safety hazard exists or officer is unfamiliar with location. Suspect�s identity is known for later apprehension. Location of pursued vehicle is no longer known. Allied agency refuses to discontinue when requested to do so.

125
Q

When an allied agency�s pursuit tactics are not within CHP policy, the involved officer should or shall discontinue the pursuit?

A

Shall.

126
Q

A pursuit shall normally be limited to how many units?

A

Two

127
Q

Can a supervisor allow more than two patrol cars in a pursuit if circumstances warrant it?

A

Yes.

128
Q

Normally, a patrol car should take over as primary unit from a motorcycle unit in a pursuit.

A

True.

129
Q

Where should all other units not involved in the pursuit be?

A

On their assigned beats.

130
Q

The initiating pursuit unit should immediately give what info to communications center?

A

Provide the following information: 8 things. Reason for the pursuit. Location and direction of travel. Speed of suspect vehicle. Description of s/v and license number if known. Number of occupants. Identity or description of known occupants. Information about firearms, weapons, or unusual hazards. Traffic conditions.

131
Q

If an aircraft unit is involved in the pursuit, what responsibility should it take?

A

Radio communication

132
Q

When requested, departmental aircraft shall respond to a pursuit in progress.

A

True.

133
Q

When can allied aircraft be requested to a pursuit?

A

When departmental aircraft are unavailable.

134
Q

What shall a supervisor do upon being notified of a pursuit?

A

Immediately notify dispatch that he / she is joining or monitoring the pursuit and is accepting supervisory responsibilities.

135
Q

A supervisor of a pursuit is responsible for what?

A

Responsibilities are: Aborting the pursuit when necessary. Ensuring the pursuit is conducted in accordance with policy. Proceed to the termination point.

136
Q

If a pursuit goes into another CHP area of allied agency jurisdiction, should the supervisor proceed to the termination point?

A

Yes, along with the initiating officer, if within a reasonable distance.

137
Q

When should CHP participate in an allied agency�s pursuit?

A

In response to a specific request.

138
Q

When an allied agency requests CHP in a pursuit, what shall a supervisor do?

A

Determine the degree of CHP involvement requested.

139
Q

A supervisor�s approval should or shall be obtained prior to legal intervention.

A

Should.

140
Q

When can legal intervention be done?

A

When the officer believes continued movement would place others at great bodily injury or death, and when the risk of harm to others is so great as to outweigh the risk of the forcible stop.

141
Q

Can a privately-owned vehicle be used for legal intervention by an officer?

A

No. Shall not be used.

142
Q

What are the types of approved legal intervention?

A

Channelization, Roadblocks, Ramming ( PIT), spike strip, boxing in, and firearms.

143
Q

Can officers ram or PIT motorcycles?

A

No. Shall not, except under certain circumstances: When in defense of life. During actual commission of ADW vehicle. To stop the escape of a person the officer believes has committed a felony through the use or threatened use of deadly force. To apprehend a person who has committed ADW vehicle which the officer believes resulted in serious injury or death.

144
Q

Ramming (PIT) should not occur when either the s/v or patrol vehicle are traveling how fast?

A

Over 35 mph.

145
Q

Supervisor approval should or shall be obtained prior to deploying the spike strip?

A

Should.

146
Q

Spike strip shall not be used on what types of vehicles?

A

Motorcycles.

147
Q

Spike strip should not be used on what types of vehicles?

A

These vehicles: Any vehicle transporting hazmat. Any passenger bus transporting passengers.

148
Q

Spike strip shall not be used at locations that pose increase risk to the suspect.

A

Any school bus transporting pupils. Any vehicle that would pose an unusual hazard to innocent parties.

149
Q

Although an approved technique, boxing-in is normally discouraged.

A

True. Curves, steep embankments, opposing traffic, etc.

150
Q

How often shall officers certify on radio operations?

A

Annually.

151
Q

Is speed enforcement based on estimation alone admissible in court?

A

Yes.

152
Q

Is odometer pacing speed enforcement authorized by the department?

A

Yes.

153
Q

How often shall patrol car speedometers be calibrated?

A

Every 9 days or 3, miles.

154
Q

How are speedometers on patrol cars calibrated?

A

Radar or fifth wheel.

155
Q

How is aircraft speed enforcement done?

A

Using ground markings and a stop watch. Speed / distance formula.

156
Q

How much training is required to use radar for speed enforcement?

A

24 hours classroom and 3 hours field.

157
Q

Officers should or shall record information concerning traffic stops on the back of the green copy.

A

Shall.

158
Q

During a high-risk stop, firearms should be displayed at what position?

A

Low ready.

159
Q

During a high-risk stop, is a round chambered in the shotgun or rifle? Safety on or off?

A

Round is chambered; safety on.

160
Q

A supervisor should or shall respond to the scene of a high-risk stop?

A

Should.

161
Q

What is the major difference between a high-risk and felony stop?

A

Firearm at low-ready for high-risk stop.

162
Q

For a high-risk stop, the supervisor shall do the following:

A

Respond to the scene; control the number of back up units.

163
Q

Normally, how many officers should respond to a high-risk stop?

A

3

164
Q

What is a felony stop?

A

When the officer has reasonable cause to believe the vehicle contains a felony suspect.

165
Q

What is the position of firearms during a felony stop?

A

Ready

166
Q

During a felony stop, is a round chambered in the shotgun and rifle? Safety on or off?

A

Round chambered; safety on.

167
Q

For a felony stop, a Code 33 shall be initiated by the communications operator.

A

False. It�s a should.

168
Q

For a felony stop, the supervisor should or shall respond to the scene?

A

Should.

169
Q

What is the minimum distance between s/v and patrol car during a felony stop?

A

3 feet.

170
Q

What is the preferred position of the first back up unit for a felony stop?

A

Left V.

171
Q

Suspects on a felony stop should be removed from what side of the vehicle if possible?

A

On the side of the cover officer.

172
Q

When initiating a felony stop with a patrol car and motor officer, which unit should take command and control of the stop?

A

Patrol car unit.

173
Q

What are the types of hazards a subject exhibits to an officer on a traffic stop?

A

Unknown Risk, High Risk, and Felony.

174
Q

Pursuing multiple subjects in a foot pursuit by a single officer is discouraged.

A

True.

175
Q

During a foot pursuit following a vehicle stop, officers should or shall ensure that there is no one else in the s/v?

A

Should.

176
Q

During a foot pursuit following a vehicle stop, officer should or shall ensure that the keys to both the s/v and patrol car are secured?

A

Should.

177
Q

A supervisor should or shall respond to the scene of a foot pursuit?

A

Should.

178
Q

During a hostage situation, primary responsibility should be transferred to the local law enforcement agency by a CHP supervisor.

A

True.

179
Q

What is the primary concern for freeway patrol?

A

The maintenance of a smooth and steady flow of traffic.

180
Q

What congestion factors can best be eliminated by the patrol officer?

A

Improper enforcement, traffic direction, and accident investigation techniques.

181
Q

The use of frontage roads to pace vehicles on the freeway is authorized.

A

False. This type of pacing is prohibited.

182
Q

Officers should or shall investigate disabled vehicles on highways and rest areas?

A

Shall.

183
Q

When working in pairs and stopping violators, motors should park in a line rather than side by side.

A

True.

184
Q

In determining the type of enforcement action to take, the officer should use strict interpretation of the law.

A

False. Use sound professional judgment.

185
Q

Officers should not make speedometer checks for motorists.

A

True.

186
Q

During peak commute hours, does a vehicle over an embankment need to be removed immediately?

A

No.

187
Q

What types of violations should be enforced during peak traffic periods?

A

Primary collision-causing violations.

188
Q

What are the authorized uses of roadblocks?

A

Apprehension of felony suspects and disaster relief.

189
Q

What knowledge must an officer know about a suspect before using a roadblock?

A

Committed a forcible or atrocious felony.

190
Q

What does Section 835(a) PC say?

A

A peace officer may use reasonable force to effect an arrest, prevent escape, or overcome resistance.

191
Q

What must a supervisor take into consideration before implementing a roadblock?

A

Whether or not the crime or disaster justifies the roadblocks; amount of time between commission of the crime and its discovery.

192
Q

For a roadblock on a two-lane roadway, where should traffic warning devices be placed?

A

Center of roadway; at least 3 feet from where traffic is to be stopped.

193
Q

For a roadblock on a two-lane roadway, if both lanes are to be blocked, how far should the patrol cars be from each other where traffic is intended to be stopped?

A

16 feet.

194
Q

During a roadblock, what angle should the patrol car be to the roadway?

A

45 degrees.

195
Q

For a roadblock on a multi-lane highway, how should flares or cones be used?

A

To funnel traffic down to one lane.

196
Q

During a roadblock, every other vehicle should be stopped and questioned?

A

False. Every vehicle should be stopped and questioned.

197
Q

When should a roadblock be terminated?

A

Suspect apprehended or there is reason to believe the suspect is not within roadblock area.

198
Q

Sergeants and officers shall certify how often is enforcement tactics and PMA?

A

Annually.

199
Q

Uniformed employees unable to demonstrate skill in PMA / OST shall be given refresher training for how long?

A

Up to 3 days.

200
Q

Uniformed employees who fail to demonstrate PMA / OST skill after the 3 day refresher will be?

A

Put on interim reporting.

201
Q

What form is used to permanently record the training of officers?

A

CHP 27 (kept in training folder) and CHP 199 (kept in personnel file)

202
Q

Do officers have to certify in PMA / OST prior to a transfer?

A

Yes, if last certification was more than 3 months before the transfer date.

203
Q

During PMA / OST training or certification, a sergeant shall inspect firearms, loading devices, and dummy rounds used by each participant.

A

True. Sergeant shall confirm by signing the training roster or the CHP 199.

204
Q

When should personal weapons be used?

A

When other means (baton, OC, control holds) are not readily available or warranted.

205
Q

What are the types of approved control holds?

A

Bent wrist and twist lock.

206
Q

Which persons may be exempt from handcuffing to the rear?

A

Sick, injured, or disabled; elderly; visibly pregnant.

207
Q

Felony arrest techniques should or shall be done with two or more officers?

A

Should.

208
Q

Officers should or shall carry flex cuffs?

A

Should.

209
Q

When using flex cuffs to join multiple subjects together, where are the cuffs applied?

A

Elbows.

210
Q

When custody of a prisoner is transferred from one officer to another, what shall the receiving officer do?

A

Search the prisoner.

211
Q

Subjects should or shall be searched by an officer of the same sex?

A

Should.

212
Q

If the search must be done by an opposite sex officer, the officer should modify the search as appropriate.

A

False. The officer shall not modify or deviate from approved searching technique.

213
Q

When removing purses, backpacks, etc. during a search, where should the officer place these items?

A

Within view of the subject.

214
Q

Items removed from a subject shall remain with whom?

A

Arresting or transporting officers.

215
Q

What are the departmentally approved searches?

A

Standing and Preliminary Frisk.

216
Q

When is the standing search used?

A

All cases when the subject is already handcuffed.

217
Q

When is the preliminary frisk used?

A

Officer safety to search areas immediately available for a weapon to be concealed.

218
Q

All prisoners and passengers should or shall be seat belted in departmental vehicles?

A

Shall.

219
Q

Where shall a one officer unit with no cage seat a prisoner?

A

Right front seat.

220
Q

Where shall a one officer unit with no cage seat two prisoners?

A

Right front seat and right rear seat.

221
Q

Two officers, one prisoner, no cage. Seating?

A

Two options: Officer driving, prisoner in RF seat, other officer in RR seat. Officer driving, prisoner in RR seat, other officer in LF seat.

222
Q

Two officers, two prisoners, no cage. Seating?

A

Two options: Officer driving, prisoner in RR seat, other prisoner in MR seat, other officer in LR seat. Officer driving, prisoner in RF seat, other prisoner in RR seat, other officer in LR seat.

223
Q

Officers shall notify communications whenever a female is transported in a patrol car, except:

A

Government employees on official business and pre-approved ride-alongs.

224
Q

When leg restraints are used on a prisoner and he / she is placed in the backseat, what shall the transporting officers do?

A

Continuously observe the prisoner for possible complications.

225
Q

When a spit sock is not available, officers can use the prisoner’s shirt by pulling it over his head?

A

False. No other device shall be used.

226
Q

How many times can a spit sock be used?

A

Once, then discarded.

227
Q

A supervisor should or shall be notified when a spit sock is used?

A

Shall

228
Q

How many spit socks should be stored at an Area office or dispatch center?

A

2

229
Q

During enforcement duties, all officers and sergeants shall carry the baton or ASP.

A

True.

230
Q

Is it required for officers to carry the baton or ASP during lunch breaks?

A

No, not mandatory.

231
Q

When a subject flees on foot, can the officer use the baton to accomplish the arrest?

A

Yes. Use as reasonable.

232
Q

Is the collapsible PR-24 baton an approved impact weapon for on-duty use?

A

Yes.

233
Q

Officers electing to carry the ASP can leave their PR-24 in their locker.

A

False. The PR-24 must carried in the patrol car / motorcycle or in the baton ring on the duty belt.

234
Q

Where should baton strikes be delivered?

A

Arms, legs, torso.

235
Q

Can officers carry the ASP of collapsible PR-24 during civil disturbances?

A

Yes, but the standard PR-24 is the primary weapon for these events.

236
Q

How long will OC incapacitate a subject?

A

15 to 45 minutes.

237
Q

OC should or shall not be carried on departmental aircraft?

A

Shall.

238
Q

Officer shall not carry departmentally issued OC while off-duty.

A

False. Officers are authorized to carry OC off-duty.

239
Q

Where must OC be directed to be effective?

A

Face (eyes).

240
Q

OC shall not be used at a distance less than what?

A

3 feet.

241
Q

OC should not be sprayed directly into the eyes at a distance less than what?

A

5 feet. If done, officer shall seek medical attention for subject immediately.

242
Q

How often should OC canisters be shaken to mix the active ingredients?

A

Once a month.

243
Q

Is the OC issued by the Department flammable?

A

No.

244
Q

After OC is used, when should the subject’s affected areas be flushed with water or saline?

A

Within 3 minutes and usually at the scene.

245
Q

A subject should or shall be handcuffed after being sprayed with OC?

A

Shall.

246
Q

How often must OC be replaced?

A

Every 4 years.

247
Q

Uniformed employees shall have WMD PPE immediately available during the work shift.

A

True.

248
Q

Oleoresin Capsicum- shall not use less than _____ and should not spray directly into eyes less than _____

A

3 feet

5 feet

CHP Sgt. Study 2/2 (41 decks)

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