Chemistry of Antihypertensives Flashcards

1
Q

How does calcium affect the vasculature

A

When there is a calcium influx the arteriole will start to contract

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2
Q

What are the three drug structures for calcium channel blockers on the market, what are examples for each one

A

1.4-dihydro-pyridines (nifedipine), Phenylalkylamines (verapamil), Benzothiazepines (Diltiazem)

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3
Q

T/F: Calcium channel blockers are selective for the long lasting type high-voltage activated calcium channel blockers

A

True

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4
Q

What are the three calcium channel conformations

A

open, inactive, resting

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5
Q

T/F: Calcium Channel Blockers are most effective when membrane depolarization is either short, moderate, and infrequent. They can also work when the channel is at any state.

A

False: Calcium Channel blockers are most effective when membrane depolarization is either longer, more intense, or more frequent. They only work when the channel is either open or inactive

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6
Q

How does Verapamil enter the channel

A

Verapamil enters the back of the cell and enters the channel from the cytoplasmic side

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7
Q

How does 1,4 DHPs and Diltiazem enter the channel

A

Enter the channel extracellularly

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8
Q

What state of the calcium channel does 1,4 DHPs prefer

A

Inactive state

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9
Q

T/F: Verapamil cannot be used at the same time as 1,4 DHP or dilitazem because they all compete for the same binding site

A

False: None of the Verapamil cannot be used at the same time as 1,4 DHP and Dilitazem because they have negative allosteric activity

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10
Q

T/F: Diltiazem and 1.4 DHPs mutually enhance the binding of each other

A

True

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11
Q

Which isomer of verapamil is most active

A

R isomer

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12
Q

Verapamil is quickly absorbed after oral administration because of what, when does it reach peak plasma concentrations

A

High Lipid solubility, 1 and 2 hours after oral administration

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13
Q

Verapamil can inhibit what efflux protein, leading to what

A

P-gp, drastic increase in the intestinal absorption of other P-gp substrate drugs such as digoxin

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14
Q

T/F: Is well absorbed due to its lipid solubility but is extensively metabholized, It can stay active as long as the methoxy group is not de-methylated

A

True

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15
Q

For 1,4 DHPs an ortho or met subsituted where at what carbon leads to optimal CCB activity

A

C4 on the phenyl ring

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16
Q

T/F: 1,4 DHPs do like bulk because the substituents lock them at a 90 degree angle needed for activity

A

True

17
Q

What functional groups at C3 and C5 position provide the most optimal CCb activity

A

Ester groups

18
Q

How do 1,4 DHPs become inactive in the body, what enzyme causes this

A

Remove the hydrogen at the 1 position, CYP3A4

19
Q

T/F: No food or drink needs to be avoided when taking 1,4 DHPs

A

False: Co-administration with grapefruit jucie can lead to increased systemic concentration of the 1,4 DHPs

20
Q

What functional groups are usually in positions 2 and 6

A

methyl groups

21
Q

What is the name of 1,4 DHP that is intended for i.v use and has a half-life of 1-2 minutes after i.v administration

A

Clevidipine

22
Q

T/F: When replacing methyl esters with NO2 group the 4th carbon became optically active creating R and S sites that have activation and blocking activity

A

True

23
Q

What cause antagonism of Beta-adrenergic receptors

A

The removal of the hydroxy groups

24
Q

What makes B1-Adrenergic antagonists selective

A

Substitution at the para stie

25
Q

What are side effects of lipophillic non selective Beta-blockers

A

CNS side effects such as dizziness, confusion, or depression

26
Q

What are two Mixed alpha/beta adrenergic antagonists

A

Labetalol, Carvedilol

27
Q

Which drug is a pro-drug that crosses the BBB, turns into a alpha-1 agonist

A

Methyldopa

28
Q

Which drug is a centrally active alpha 2 agonist

A

Clonidine

29
Q

Which drug is a arterial vasodilators

A

Hydralazine