Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Air Force CDCs > Volume 3 > Flashcards

Volume 3 Flashcards

0
Q
  1. (401) How many range cards are prepared for each position?
A

b. Two.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q
  1. (401) Range cards are a record of
A

b. firing data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. (401) In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?
A

a. M240B, MK19 and .50 cal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. (401) What does the acronym FPL stand for?
A

a. Final protective line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. (401) Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire weapons but may also be used for indirect-fire weapons?
A

c. Target reference point (TRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. (402) Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
A

b. Marginal data area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. (402) What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
A

a. Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. (402) The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
A

c. Dead space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. (402) When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?
A

d. 100.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. (402) The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is
A

a. observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. (403) What is the function of the forward assist?
A

b. Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. (403) Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
A

a. a stoppage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. (403) The acronym SPORTS stands for
A

c. slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. (403) The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
A

d. clean and properly lubricated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. (404) How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine?
A

c. 10.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. (404) What cartridge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?
A

d. M856.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. (405) What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
A

a. 50 meters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. (405) What the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
A

d. 1,800 meters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. (405) If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?
A

b. Adjusted aiming point method.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. (405) On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor And
A

a. loaded chamber indicator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. (405) Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be
A

d. instinctive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. (405) Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?
A

d. Steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. (406) How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
A

a. 4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. (406) What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
A

c. M882.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. (406) Which M9 ammunition round is only issued to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti- jacking) duties?
A

a. MK243 MOD 0.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. (407) In meters, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
A

d. 150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. (407) In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
A

c. 350

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. (407) What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?
A

d. 30.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. (408) Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?
A

c. Ogive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. (408) What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?
A

c. 20.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. (408) Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing?
A

d. Buckshot

31
Q
  1. (408) Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
A

a. Under no circumstances.

32
Q
  1. (409) What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?
A

b. 600.

33
Q
  1. (409) Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
A

b. Receiver assembly.

34
Q
  1. (409) An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition is called?
A

a. a stoppage

35
Q
  1. (410) How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
A

d. 200

36
Q
  1. (410) What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?
A

a. M199 Dummy.

37
Q
  1. (411) How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
A

b. 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt.

38
Q
  1. (411) In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
A

d. 800.

39
Q
  1. (411) From what position is the M240B loaded?
A

b. Bolt CLOSED.

40
Q
  1. (411) Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?
A

d. Firing

41
Q
  1. (411) What are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B?
A

b. Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire.

42
Q
  1. (411) At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
A

a. 900 to 1,200 rounds.

43
Q
  1. (411) What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
A

d. M61.

44
Q
  1. (411) What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?
A

c. Blank firing adapter.

45
Q
  1. (412) Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
A

d. MK19

46
Q
  1. (412) What is the standard round for the MK19?
A

b. M430

47
Q
  1. (412) Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?
A

c. M3.

48
Q
  1. (412) Searching fire is most often used on
A

d. level or evenly sloping ground.

49
Q
  1. (413) What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?
A

a. 2,000 yards

50
Q
  1. (413) The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?
A

b. 700.

51
Q
  1. (414) When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?
A

d. Distributed and effective.

52
Q
  1. (414) Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target
A

b. quickly and accurately.

53
Q
  1. (414) Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?
A

d. Final protective fire.

54
Q
  1. (414) Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?
A

b. Final protective line.

55
Q
  1. (414) Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and
A

b. hold the enemy position.

56
Q
  1. (414) Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?
A

A. Final protective line (FPL)

57
Q
  1. (415) In meters, what it the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using “00” buckshot round?
A

d. 640.

58
Q
  1. (415) The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?
A

b. The close-quarters battle role.

59
Q
  1. (416) Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?
A

c. Terrain.

60
Q
  1. (416) Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include
A

d. response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance.

61
Q
  1. (416) Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior
A

b. accuracy.

62
Q
  1. (417) The M107 sniper rifle operates by means of
A

a. short recoil principle.

63
Q
  1. (417) The sniper’s primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from
A

d. concealed positions.

64
Q
  1. (418) What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?
A

c. Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.

65
Q
  1. (418) How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
A

a. 5.

66
Q
  1. (418) How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training environment?
A

b. Overhand

67
Q
  1. (419) The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an
A

b. defensive weapon.

68
Q
  1. (419) When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considered a
A

d. mine or booby trap.

69
Q
  1. (419) In what year was the M18A, claymore mine standardized?
A

b. 1960.

70
Q
  1. (419) When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a
A

a. one-shot weapon.

71
Q
  1. (419) The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for
A

c. single or dual priming

72
Q
  1. (420) Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?
A

d. Backblast area.

73
Q
  1. (420) A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?
A

a. Field handling trainer.

74
Q
  1. (420) The M136 AT4’s warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal
A

a. after-armor effects.

Air Force CDCs (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions