Peripheral Venous Flashcards

1
Q
The following vein is a component of the superficial venous system
A. Common femoral vein
B. Posterior tibial vein
C. Popliteal vein
D. Great saphenous vein
A

D. The great saphenous vein is part of the superficial system in the lower extremities. The common femoral, posterior tibial, and popliteal veins are all part of the deep system of the lower extremities.

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2
Q

In relation to arteries and veins which statement is true?
A. Only veins have internal valves
B. Arteries have a much higher internal pressure
C. Arteries and veins both have a tunica intima, media, and adventitia
D. All of the above

A

D. Only veins have internal valves, arteries do not. The internal pressure of the arterial system is much higher than that of the venous system. Both arteries and veins have three distinct layers known as the tunica intima, media, and adventitia.

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3
Q
The common femoral vein becomes the external iliac vein above the level of what structure?
A. Adductor canal
B. Inguinal ligament
C. Profunda hiatus
D. Popliteal fossa
A

B. Above the inguinal ligament is the anatomical landmark where the common femoral vein becomes the external iliac vein.

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4
Q
A normal venous spectral waveform of the lower extremities is 
A. Phasic
B. Continuous
C. Pulsatile
D. Bidirectional
A

A. A normal spectral waveform for the lower extremity veins should be phasic with changes in respiration and in one direction. Pulsatile waveform suggest increased pressure in the venous system while continuous waveforms suggest the presence of a more proximal obstruction.

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5
Q
The deep vein that runs along the lateral portion of the lower leg between the tibia and fibula and joins the tibioperoneal trunk is the 
A. Posterior tibial vein
B. Anterior tibial vein
C. Peroneal vein
D. Gastrocnemius vein
A

B. The deep vein that runs along the lateral aspect of the lower leg between the tibia and fibula is the anterior tibial vein. The posterior tibial vein runs along the medial aspect of the lower leg.

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6
Q
The paired posterior tibial veins in the lower leg join in the upper portion of the calf to form the
A. Tibioperoneal trunk
B. Common peroneal trunk
C. Common tibial trunk
D. Soleal sinuses
A

C. The common tibial trunk is formed in the upper calf by the paired posterior tibial veins. The common peroneal trunk is formed by the paired peroneal veins. These two common trunks eventually join to form the tibioperoneal trunk higher in the calf.

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7
Q
The innermost layer of the vein wall is known as the tunica
A. Media
B. Adventitia
C. Intima
D. Superficial
A

C. The innermost layer of the vein wall is the tunica intima. The middle layer is the tunica media and the outermost layer is the tunica adventitia.

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8
Q
Which of the following best describes a normal waveform of the brachiocephalic veins?
A. Phasic
B. Pulsatile
C. Continuous
D. Oscillating
A

B. The normal spectral waveform for the brachiocephalic vein is pulsatile because of its close proximity to the heart. Upper extremity veins that are further from the heart such as the axillary vein will be more phasic.

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9
Q
The vein that runs along the lateral aspect of the upper extremity and joins the axillary vein just before becoming the subclavian vein is known as the 
A. Cephalic vein
B. Brachial vein
C. Basilic vein
D. Innominate vein
A

A. The cephalic vein runs along the lateral aspect of the arm until terminating in the axillary vein just before it becomes the subclavian. The basilic vein runs along the medial aspect of the arm and terminates at the axillary vein. The brachial vein is located in the upper arm and eventually becomes the axillary vein at the level of the axilla.

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10
Q
All of the following veins contain internal valves EXCEPT the
A. Internal jugular vein
B. Brachial vein
C. Brachiocephalic vein
D. Cephalic vein
A

C. There are no internal valves located in the brachiocephalic veins. The internal jugular, brachial, and cephalic veins all contain internal valves.

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11
Q
Which perforators connect to the posterior accessory great saphenous vein and typically play a significant role in regard to venous stasis ulcers?
A. Paratibial perforator
B. Perforator of femoral canal
C. Superficial epigastric vein
D. Posterior tibial perforator
A

D. Posterior tibial perforators connect to the posterior accessory great saphenous vein near the gaiter zone just above the medial malleolus. They commonly play a significant role in venous stasis ulcerations.

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12
Q

During expiration, as abdominal pressure decreases and thoracic pressure increases
A. There is no significant change in venous blood flow return
B. Venous blood flow return in the lower extremities increases while decreasing in the upper extremities
C. Venous blood flow return in the lower extremities decreases while increasing in the upper extremities
D. Flow is suspended in both the upper and lower extremities

A

B. Flow always goes from an area of higher pressure to an area of lower pressure. The pressure in the abdomen decreases as a person exhales. This causes venous flow to increase in the lower extremities. At the same time the pressure in the chest increases causing venous flow in the upper extremities to decrease. The opposite is true when a person inhales.

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13
Q
Most deep venous thrombi become established in the 
A. Groin
B. Thigh
C. Calf
D. Foot
A

C. The majority of DVTs become established in the calf veins, specifically in the soleal sinusoids. However, DVT can develop in any deep vein.

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14
Q
The condition involving an outflow obstruction of the venous system that presents with extreme swelling, cyanosis, and reduced arterial inflow is known as 
A. Dependent rubor
B. Phlegmasia alba dolens
C. Phlegmasia cerulea dolens
D. Venous insufficiency
A

C. Phlegmasia cerulea dolens is an outflow obstruction with extreme swelling accompanied by cyanosis and reduced arterial inflow. Phlegmasia alba dolens is an outflow obstruction with extreme swelling without cyanosis and reduced arterial inflow.

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15
Q
Which location of DVT is more likely to travel to the lung as a pulmonary embolus?
A. Peroneal vein DVT
B. Common femoral vein DVT
C. Posterior tibial vein DVT
D. Gastrocnemius vein DVT
A

B. The common femoral vein DVT is more likely to travel to the lung as a pulmonary embolism because it is located above the knee. DVT located above the knee is more likely to become a PE.

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16
Q

The three predisposing conditions known as “Virchow’s Triad” are
A. Trauma, hypertension, and hypercoagulability
B. Trauma, sclerosis, and hypercoagulability
C. Thrombosis, stasis, and hypertension
D. Trauma, stasis, and hypercoagulability

A

D. The three conditions that make up Virchow’s Triad are trauma, stasis, and hypercoagulability.

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17
Q
All of the following are classic symptoms of deep vein thrombosis EXCEPT
A. Pain
B. Edema
C. Paralysis
D. Redness
A

C. Paralysis is a symptom more related to arterial disease or stroke like symptoms. Pain, edema, and redness are all symptoms related to DVT.

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18
Q
When the calf-muscle pump and venous valves become inadequate at returning blood back to the heart it leads to the pooling of blood in the lower extremities. A condition known as
A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Phlegmasia alba dolens
C. Phlegmasia cerulea dolens
D. Venous insufficiency
A

D. Venous insufficiency is the condition in which blood return back to the heart is inadequate. It leads to the pooling of blood in the distal veins which leads to increased pressure in the venous system.

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19
Q
An ascending venogram is used to evaluate for
A. Thrombosis
B. Venous insufficiency
C. Baker's cyst
D. Varicose veins
A

A. Ascending venograms are used to evaluate for an obstruction caused by thrombosis. Descending venograms are used to evaluate for incompetent valves.

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20
Q

After initial treatment of deep vein thrombosis patients are often treated with oral anticoagulation in an effort to
A. Serve as a thrombolytic
B. Prevent chronic scarring of the vein lumen
C. Prevent reoccurrence
D. Prevent post thrombotic syndrome

A

C. Oral anticoagulation is initiated after the initial treatment with heparin for a DVT in an effort to prevent reoccurrence. The duration of treatment will vary depending on the patient’s condition and circumstances. It cannot prevent scarring or post thrombotic syndrome nor can it serve as a thrombolytic.

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21
Q
All of the following are sonographic findings associated with chronic post thrombotic scarring EXCEPT
A. Partially compressible
B. Hyperechoic
C. Recanalization lumen
D. Dilated vein
A

D. Dilated vein is not a finding associated with chronic post thrombotic scarring. The findings that are associated with chronic changes are increase in echogenicity, attached to vein wall, larger collateral veins, contracted vein, and recanalization of vein.

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22
Q

While scanning a patient’s upper extremity veins you obtain a phasic spectral Doppler waveform within the right subclavian vein and a pulsatile spectral Doppler waveform within the left subclavian vein. What does this suggest?
A. An obstruction proximal to the left subclavian vein
B. An obstruction proximal to the right subclavian vein
C. An obstruction distal to the left subclavian vein
D. An obstruction distal to the right subclavian vein

A

B. Normally subclavian veins have pulsatile flow with some respiratory patterns. Lack of pulsatility in a subclavian vein indicates a proximal obstruction on the side with the phasic waveform.

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23
Q
Which veins of the upper extremity should have cardiac pulsations coupled with respiratory patterns normally?
A. Internal jugular vein
B. Brachiocephalic vein
C. Subclavian vein
D. All of the above
A

D. Veins that are in close proximity to the heart will have cardiac pulsations coupled with respiratory patterns. For the upper extremities this includes the internal jugular, brachiocephalic, and subclavian veins.

24
Q
Tailed thrombus with motion seen on duplex is a finding consistent with
A. Acute vein thrombosis
B. Chronic post thrombotic scarring
C. Venous insufficiency
D. Pulmonary embolism
A

A. When a clot appears to be poorly attached to a vessel wall it is always considered to be an acute thrombus. It is typically the most distal portion of the clot that has propagated upward in the leg. The other findings associated with acute thrombosis are low-level echogenicity, dilated veins, and noncompressible vein.

25
Q
The distention of the distal veins that occurs when a patient has venous insufficiency is a result of
A. Increased hydrostatic pressure
B. Abnormal vein walls
C. Pooling and stasis of blood
D. Both A and C
A

D. When a patient has venous insufficiency the distal veins start to dilate because of a markedly increased hydrostatic pressure as well as pooling and stasis of blood in these distal veins of the calf. Vein walls are normally very elastic and will stretch when under these types of pressures.

26
Q
When performing a PPG venous examination on a patient without a tourniquet you obtain an abnormal venous refill time. In order to determine where the insufficiency is occurring you proceed to apply a tourniquet just above the knee and get a normal venous refill time. Where is the patient's insufficiency occurring?
A. Deep system
B. Great saphenous vein
C. Small saphenous vein
D. There is no insufficiency
A

B. When an abnormal venous refill time (<20 seconds) is achieved it indicates that venous insufficiency is present. Tourniquets are often used in an effort to distinguish between deep venous reflux and superficial venous reflux. If an abnormal VRT is achieved without the tourniquet and a normal VRT is achieved with the tourniquet applied above the knee it must be the great saphenous vein that is the problem because its contributory flow has been eliminated by the tourniquet.

27
Q
The venous valves are attached to which layer of the vessel walls?
A. Tunica intima
B. Tunica media
C. Tunica adventitia
D. Tunica interstitial
A

A. The venous valves are attached to the innermost layer known as the tunica intima. They are bicuspid valves that assist in promoting blood flow in one direction toward the heart.

28
Q
The radial and ulnar veins join at about the level of the antecubital fossa to form which vessel?
A. Basilic vein
B. Axillary vein
C. Brachial vein
D. Brachiocephalic vein
A

C. The radial and ulnar veins join to form the brachial vein at the level of the antecubital fossa (at the elbow joint). The basilic vein is a portion of the superficial system and the axillary and brachiocephalic veins are portions of the deep system up in the axilla and chest areas.

29
Q
A study that is positive for reflux will demonstrate a flow reversal time of 
A. <5 seconds
B. >0.05 second
C. >0.5 second
D. >0.005 second
A

C. A flow reversal time that exceeds 0.5 second in the venous system is considered significant for reflux. There is some literature that allows longer flow reversal times for the deep system due to the large size of the veins and longer valve closure times. A flow reversal time that exceeds 1 second in the deep system would be considered significant for reflux.

30
Q
Varicosities that are a result of insufficiency that started in the deep system and extended into the superficial system by way of the perforator veins are known as
A. Primary varicose veins
B. Secondary varicose veins
C. Spontaneous varicose veins
D. First varicose veins
A

B. Secondary varicose veins are the result of an obstruction in the deep venous system. In some cases the pressure in the deep system gets so great that it backs up into the superficial system by way of the perforating veins. Primary varicose veins are isolated to the superficial system in the absence of a deep venous obstruction. Primary varicose veins are often due to congenital defects of the venous valves.

31
Q
All of the following are symptoms associated with chronic venous insufficiency EXCEPT
A. Varicose veins
B. Discoloration at the gaiter zone
C. Swelling
D. Heel ulceration
A

D. Heel ulcerations are typically an indication of peripheral arterial disease not peripheral venous disease. Varicose veins, discoloration, and swelling are all symptoms associated with venous insufficiency.

32
Q

What is the treatment known as sclerotherapy?
A. Surgical removal of superficial veins
B. Ablation of superficial veins by the use of radiofrequency-induced heating
C. Ablation of superficial veins through a series of injections with a chemical agent
D. Removal of superficial veins through mini surgical incisions

A

C. Sclerotherapy is a treatment for small superficial spider veins which involves the injection of chemical agents in an effort to ablate the vessel. Ablation and surgical removal of superficial veins are typically performed on the larger superficial veins such as the great saphenous vein and its branches. The ablation of veins with the use of radiofrequency is known as radiofrequency ablation or RFA. This can also be accomplished with lasers through endovenous laser treatment or EVLT.

33
Q

Sonographic findings consistent with acute thrombosis are
A. Hypoechoic, dilated, and noncompressible
B. Hyperechoic, dilated, and noncompressible
C. Hypoechoic, nondilated, and compressible
D. Hyperechoic, nondilated, and noncompressible

A

A. The findings consistent with acute thrombosis are hypoechoic/anechoic, dilated, and noncompressible.

34
Q
Which of the following is the longest vein in the body?
A. Small saphenous vein
B. Great saphenous vein
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Femoral vein
A

B. The great saphenous vein is the longest vein in the body. It runs from the saphenofemoral junction at the crease of the groin all the way down to the dorsum of the foot along the medial aspect of the leg.

35
Q
Varicose veins that occur when there is no DVT are called
A. Primary varicose veins
B. Secondary varicose veins
C. Cardinal varicose veins
D. Hydrostatic varicose veins
A

A. Primary varicose veins are isolated to the superficial system in the absence of a deep venous obstruction. Primary varicose veins are often due to congenital defects of the venous valves.

36
Q
Which of the following veins act as a reservoir for the "calf-muscle pump"?
A. Popliteal vein
B. Gastrocnemius vein
C. Small saphenous vein
D. Soleal vein
A

D. Soleal veins are venous sinuses that serve as reservoirs for the calf-muscle pump just before it contracts to propel blood back toward the heart.

37
Q
What is the most significant clinical concern for a patient with acute DVT?
A. Venous insufficiency
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Chronic post thrombotic scarring
D. Superficial thrombophlebitis
A

B. The single biggest clinical implication of acute DVT is the patient risk for a blood clot that travels to the lung known as a pulmonary embolism.

38
Q
All of the following veins are paired EXCEPT the
A. Posterior tibial
B. Anterior tibial
C. Peroneal
D. Small saphenous
A

D. The small saphenous vein is a portion of the superficial system and is not paired. It is also not paired with a corresponding artery. The posterior tibial, anterior tibial, and peroneal veins are all part of the deep venous system in the calf. They are all paired and have a corresponding artery associated with them.

39
Q

Which of the following statements about lower extremity venous duplex is always true?
A. If a vein fills with color flow then there is no presence of DVT
B. Graded compression should always be performed in the transverse plane
C. A continuous flow, steady waveform is indicative of a normal lower extremity venous waveform
D. Respiratory phasicity in the lower extremity veins is always abnormal

A

B. Graded manual compression is the single most reliable diagnostic factor in determining DVT and should always be performed in the transverse plane to prevent the rolling of the vessel outside the field of view. Absence or presence of color Doppler can be somewhat unreliable in terms of a definitive diagnosis with lower extremity venous duplex studies. Normal venous waveforms should have respiratory phasicity. Continuous venous flow indicates that there is a possible proximal obstruction.

40
Q
Which of the following is not a predisposing risk factor for DVT?
A. Trauma
B. Cancer
C. Pregnancy
D. Headache
A

D. Headache is not a predisposing risk factor for DVT. Trauma, cancer, and pregnancy all fall into one of the categories of “Virchow’s Triad.” “Virchow’s Triad” identifies trauma, stasis, and hypercoagulability as the three predisposing risk factors to the development of thrombosis. Patients with cancer are oftentimes considered to have an acquired hypercoagulability. Pregnant patients can often experience stasis in the lower extremity veins due to the weight of the fetus on the inferior vena cava.

41
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding lower extremity venous anatomy?
A. The small saphenous vein typically terminates at the peroneal vein
B. The great saphenous vein typically terminates at the deep femoral vein
C. The great saphenous vein typically terminates at the common femoral vein
D. The great saphenous vein is part of the deep venous system

A

C. The great saphenous vein is a superficial vein that typically terminates at the common femoral vein in the groin at the saphenofemoral junction. The small saphenous vein is also a superficial vein that typically terminates at the popliteal vein behind the knee.

42
Q

The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the
A. Superior vena cava and right heart
B. Left and right common iliac veins
C. External iliac vein and internal iliac vein
D. Portal venous system and systemic veins

A

B. The right and left common iliac veins join to form the inferior vena cava at the level of the umbilicus. The external and internal iliac veins join lower in the pelvis to form the common iliac veins on each side.

43
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of venous duplex over venography?
A. Venous duplex uses ionizing radiation
B. Venous dupex is noninvasive
C. Venous duplex uses an iodinated contrast agent
D. Venous angiography is painless

A

B. Lower extremity venous duplex is a noninvasive, painless examination that utilizes only sound waves (ultrasound) to produce an image. There is no contrast needed as with venography. For these reasons ultrasound has become the preferred method of assessment for the lower extremity veins over venography and other modalities.

44
Q
Venous stasis ulcers are most commonly located
A. In the proximal thigh
B. In the adductor canal
C. By the medial malleolus
D. In the popliteal fossa
A

C. Venous stasis ulcerations are most commonly located just above the medial malleolus in an area known as the gaiter zone. They are typically caused by an incompetent perforator in this area and can be very resistant to treatment.

45
Q
A patient presents with large varicose veins that have enlarged over the past few years and are becoming increasingly painful. What is the LEAST likely examination to be done to determine the cause of his disease?
A. Venous duplex
B. Photoplethysmography testing
C. Ascending venogram
D. Descending venogram
A

C. Varicose veins are a sign of venous insufficiency. Venous duplex, photoplethysmography, and descending venography can all be used to assess a patient for venous insufficiency. Ascending venography cannot be used to assess for venous insufficiency. Ascending venography is typically employed to evaluate for thrombosis.

46
Q
The normal response to venous flow during the Valsalva maneuver is
A. Cessation of flow
B. Augmentation of flow
C. Reversal of flow
D. Increase in flow
A

A. The normal response of venous flow during the Valsalva maneuver is cessation of flow followed by augmentation upon release. Reversal of flow during the maneuver would indicate venous reflux.

47
Q
The muscular layer of a blood vessel is the
A. Tunica media
B. Tunica adventitia
C. Tunica intima
D. Tunica externa
A

A. The tunica media layer is the middle layer of the blood vessel wall that is composed of smooth muscle and fiber.

48
Q
Which of the following is not included in Virchow's Triad?
A. Hypercoagulability
B. Trauma
C. Stasis
D. Edema
A

D. Virchow’s Triad identifies the three most common predisposing risk factors for thrombosis and they are trauma, stasis, and hypercoagulability. While edema is not a predisposing risk factor for thrombosis it can be a symptom of it.

49
Q
Which of the following is the most accurate method to rule out DVT?
A. Graded compression
B. Spectral Doppler
C. Color Doppler
D. CW Doppler
A

A. Graded compression is the single most reliable method used when evaluating for DVT. Spectral and color Doppler can be used to further confirm the diagnosis.

50
Q
Wet ulcers in the gaiter zone are indicative of 
A. Deep venous thrombosis
B. High blood pressure
C. Pulmonary embolus
D. Venous insufficiency
A

D. Wet ulcers that are commonly found in the gaiter zone are often referred to as venous stasis ulcers and are an indication that the patient has venous insufficiency.

51
Q
Which of the following is not normally paired?
A. Peroneal vein
B. Posterior tibial vein
C. Anterior tibial vein
D. Great saphenous vein
A

D. The great saphenous vein is a portion of the superficial system and is not paired. It is also not paired with a corresponding artery. The posterior tibial, anterior tibial, and peroneal veins are all part of the deep venous system in the calf. They are all paired and have a corresponding artery associated with them.

52
Q
A catheter-based procedure where thrombolytic agents are introduced to the vein at the area of a clot in an effort to dissolve it and reduce the chances of postthrombotic syndrome is known as
A. Thrombectomy
B. Thrombolysis
C. Anticoagulation
D. Phlebectomy
A

B. Thrombolysis is a catheter-based procedure where thrombolytic agents are introduced into the vein to dissolve a clot and prevent further damage to the vessel lumen and internal valves. A thrombectomy is the surgical removal of a clot.

53
Q
Which of the following is NOT a potential limitation of a lower extremity venous duplex examination?
A. Patient body habitus
B. Venous access lines
C. Bony anatomy
D. Recent incision
A

C. Patient body habitus, a venous access line in the area of interest, and a recent incision from surgery are all potential limitations of a venous duplex examination. Bony anatomy is not a limiting factor for a lower extremity venous duplex examination; however, it can be for the central veins during an upper extremity duplex examination.

54
Q
During a PPG examination for the evaluation of venous reflux a normal venous refill time is
A. 20 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 5 seconds
A

A. During a PPG examination the venous refill time (VRT) should be 20 seconds or more to rule out venous reflux. Anything less than 20 seconds would be considered positive for reflux. A VRT less than 10 seconds indicates severe venous reflux.

55
Q
The majority of patients have how many perforating veins in each leg?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 50
D. More than 100
A

D. There are typically more than 100 perforating veins connecting the superficial system to the deep system. They are typically small in size (<3mm) and not always visualized during a routine ultrasound.

56
Q

Proper positioning of a patient for a lower extremity duplex examination is
A. Supine with leg slightly bent at the knee and internally rotated
B. Prone with leg slightly bent at knee and externally rotated
C. Prone with leg slightly bent at knee and internally rotated
D. Supine with leg slightly bent at knee and externally rotated

A

D. The proper position during a lower extremity venous duplex examination is with the patient supine with the leg of interest externally rotated. This allows for access to all the lower extremity veins.