AAFP: Nonspecific Flashcards

1
Q

A 63 y/o male with a hx of alcoholism and compensated hepatic cirrhosis asks if there are pain medications he can use to treat his chronic low back pain and knee and hand osteoarthritis. He also has occasional headaches. He has not used alcohol for several years. Which one of the following medications is CONTRAINDICATED in this patient?

A. Acetaminophen

B. Gabapentin

C. Naproxen

D. Pregabalin (Lyrica)

E. Tramadol

A

C. Naproxen

Although pts with chronic mild liver disease may take NSAIDs, they should be avoided in all pts with cirrhosis, due to risk of precipitating hepatorenal syndrome.

Pregabalin and gabapentine are not metabolized by the liver.

Acetaminophen, while toxic in high doses, can be used safely in dosages of 2-3 g/day.

Tramadol is also safe in pts with cirrhosis.

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2
Q

Many of the changes that occur as part of aging affect pharmacokinetics. Which one of the following is INCREASED in geriatric patients?

a. Drug absorption
b. GFR
c. Lean body mass
d. Volume of distribution of water-soluble compounds such as digoxin
e. % of body fat

A

e. % of body fat

In older persons, there is a relative increase in body fat and relative decrease in lean body mass, which causes increased distribution of fat-soluble drugs such as diazepam. This also increases the elimination half-life of such medications.

The Vd of water-soluble compounds such as digoxin is decreased in older pts, which means a smaller dose is required to reach a given target plasma concentration.

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3
Q

A 45 y/o obtunded male is brought to the ER by ambulance. Slow, shallow respirations are noted. His wife tells you that he is being treated by a local pain specialist for chronic back pain stemming from a severe workplace injury 2 years ago. A urine immunoassay drug screen is negative for opioids. Which one of the following opioid medications would NOT be detected by this drug screen?

a. Codeine
b. Fentanyl
c. Hydrocodone
d. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
e. Morphine

A

b. Fentanyl

Synthetic opioid medications are generally not discovered when screening urine for opioids using an immunoassay method. These synthetic opioids include fentanyl, methadone, and oxymorphone.

Opioid reversal should still be considered in this patient, and a search for a fentanyl patch is indicated.

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4
Q

You see a 16 y/o white F for a preparticipation evaluation for volleyball. She is 183 cm (72 in) tall, and her arm span is greater than her height. She wears contacts for myopia. Which one of the following should be performed at this time?

a. EKG
b. Echo
c. Stress test
d. CXR
e. Coronary MR angiography

A

b. Echo

Marfan syndrome is an AD disease manifested by skeletal, ophthalmologic, and CV abnormalities. Men taller than 72 inches and women taller than 70 inches who have two or more manifestations of Marfan syndrome should be screened by echo for associated cardiac abnormalities. These signs and sx include cardiac murmurs or clicks, kyphoscoliosis, anterior thoracic deformity, arm span greater than height, upper to lower body ratio more than 1 SD below the mean, myopia, and ectopic lens.

Patients with Marfan syndrome who have echo evidence of aortic abnormalities should be placed on beta-blockers and monitored with echo every 6 mo.

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5
Q

In the U.S., cow’s milk is NOT recommended for children until the age of:

a. 4 mo
b. 6 mo
c. 9 mo
d. 12 mo
e. 15 mo

A

d. 12 mo

Whole cow’s milk does not supply infants with enough vitamin E, iron, and essential fatty acids, and overburdens them with too much protein, sodium, and potassium. Skim and low-fat milk lead to the same problems as whole milk, and also fail to provide adequate calories for growth.

Human breast milk or iron-fortified formula, with introduction of certain solid foods and juices after 4-6 months of age if desired, is appropriate for the first year of life.

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6
Q

A 17 yo male presents to the urgent care clinic 15 minutes after being stung by a wasp. He feels weak, his voice is hoarse, and he is beginning to have trouble breathing. Which one of the following should be administered first?

a. IM epinephrine
b. IV diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
c. IV famotidine (Pepcid)
d. IV methylprednisolone sodium succinate (Solu-Medrol)
e. IV bolus of NS

A

a. IM epinephrine

H1 and H2 histamine blockers and corticosteroids may be useful, but they are not the first-line treatments for an anaphylactic rxn to a Hymenoptera sting.

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7
Q

In a woman with PCOS, the risk is increased the most for carcinoma of the:

a. breast
b. cervix
c. colon
d. endometrium
e. ovary

A

d. endometrium

Several disorders that are common in women with PCOS are associated with an increased risk for endometrial carcinoma.

Those disorders include: obesity, hyperinsulinemia, DM, anovulatory cycles, and high androgen levels

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8
Q

A 30 yo female is referred to you by a local optometrist after she was treated several times for anterior uveitis. You are concerned about an associated systemic disease. She feels well otherwise, and denies back or joint pain, rash, cough, or fever. A CXR reveals enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with her recurrent uveitis?

a. Cat-scratch disease
b. Lyme disease
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Syphilis
e. Tuberculosis

A

c. Sarcoidosis

Many patients w/ uveitis have an associated systemic disease. Some medications may cause secondary uveitis, and conditions such as ocular lymphoma and bloodborne infection may masquerade as primary uveitis.

In North America, the most common conditions associated with uveitis are:

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies, sarcoidosis, syphilis, RA, reactive arthritis

All the conditions listed may be associated with uveitis, but given the CXR findings and clinical scenario in this case, sarcoidosis is the most likely.

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9
Q

A 12 yo white male who lives in a household with several cats presents with axillary lymphadenopathy. Which one of the following is the best initial test for establishing a diagnosis of cat-scratch disease?

a. Lymph node biopsy
b. Blood cultures
c. IgG testing for Bartonella henselae
d. IgG testing for nontuberculous Mycobacterium species

A

c. IgG testing for Bartonella henselae
* Bartonella henselae* is the organism that causes cat-scratch disease. IgG titers over 1:256 strongly suggest active or recent infection. IgM elevation suggests acute disease but production of IgM is brief. Lymph node biopsy is reserved for cases where node swelling fails to resolve or dx is uncertain. The organism is difficult to culture and cultures are not recommended.

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10
Q

A 74 yo female presents to the ER in respiratory distress with slightly altered mental status. Her urine drug screen is positive for opioids. The patient and her family deny opioid use. You know this patient well and also doubt she is taking opioids. She has been taking dextromethorphan, guaifenesin, azithromycin (Zithromax), and pseudoephedrine. Which one of these could be causing a false-positive test for opioids on her urine drug screen?

a. Dextromethorphan
b. Guaifenesin
c. Azithromycin
d. Pseudoephedrine

A

a. Dextromethorphan

Dextromethorphan, diphenhydramine, ibuprofen, and even fluoroquinolones are among the many agents that can cause a false-positive urine drug screen for opioids.

Pseudoephedrine can cause a false-positive test for amphetamines.

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11
Q

A 20 yo male college student comes to the ER in January acutely short of breath and looking very ill, with tachypnea, tachycardia, nausea, and a headache. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of 100% on room air, and ABG measurement shows a PaO2 of 95 mm Hg. Of the following, which one is the most likely dx?

a. CO poisoning
b. ARDS
c. Methemoglobinemia
d. Lobar pneumonia
e. Viral pneumonia

A

a. CO poisoning

CO exposure most commonly results from fuel combustion in heaters, stoves, or automobiles, so it is most often seen during cold periods when people are in closed quarters. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, and weakness, and patients have a flushed complexion, so sx are commonly attributed to viral flu-like illnesses.

CO poisoning results in the formation of carboxyhemoglobin, which does not carry oxygen. All oxygen-carrying sites are occupied by CO, which has such a high affinity for hemoglobin, that oxygen cannot displace it. If a patient has a carboxyhemoglobin level of 25%, and their hemoglobin level is 12 mg/dL, their effective hemoglobin level is only 9 mg/dL since 25% of their hemoglobin is not carrying oxygen. Maximum oxygen saturation that can be attained is 75%. However, a pulse oximeter will show an oxygen saturation of 100% because the color of carboxyhemoglobin is bright red, which is what the pulse oximeter is detecting. Thus, pulse oximetry is not reliable in patients with CO poisoning.

Similarly, ABG measurements are based on oxygen gas tension (pO2) and not oxygen content or true oxygen saturation. The only ABG abnormality in CO poisoning may be metabolic acidosis, which is a consequence of inadequate oxygen delivery to peripheral tissues. This causes an anaerobic metabolism and lactic acid production, but is not seen early in CO poisoning.

Serious cases of pneumonia, ARDS, or methemoglobinemia would produce abnormalities on pulse oximetry or ABG measurements. To detect CO poisoning, it would be necessary to order either a CO level or a co-oximetry test.

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12
Q

Which one of the following has been shown to be effective for Lyme disease prophylaxis after removal of an engorged deer tick?

a. Amoxicillin
b. Ceftriaxone (Recephin)
c. Cefuroxime axetil (Ceftin)
d. Doxycycline
e. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)

A

d. Doxycycline

While all the abx listed have been used to treat Lyme disease, the only abx that has been shown to be effective for chemoprophylaxis is doxycycline.

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13
Q

A 72 yo male is brought to your office by a friend because of increasing confusion, irritability, and difficulty walking. This began shortly after the patient’s car broke down in a rural area and he had to walk a mile to get to a phone and call the friend. The temperature outdoors has been near 100 F. On exam, the patient has a rectal temperature of 103.1 F, pulse rate of 110 bpm, and a BP of 100/60 mm Hg. His shirt is still damp with sweat. Which one of this patient’s findings indicates that he has heatstroke rather than heat exhaustion?

a. Confusion
b. Sweating
c. His temperature
d. His HR
e. His BP

A

a. Confusion

Heat exhaustion and heatstroke are both on the continuum of heat-related illness. Heatsroke is a much more severe condition than heat exhaustion. Evidence of CNS dysfunction is evidence of heatstroke rather than heat exhaustion, even if other symptoms are not severe and point to heat exhaustion. Heatstroke is a medical E.

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14
Q

A 47 yo male is hospitalized for severe lower-extremity MRSA cellulitis. He is started on IV vancomycin and his home medications, which include metoprolol and escitalopram (Lexapro), are continued. On day 3, in preparation for discharge, he is transitioned to oral Bactrim. Two hours after taking his first dose he reports severe swelling of his lips, wheezing, hoarseness, and hives. His BP, which was previously normal, is now 84/62 mm Hg. You order emergent therapy with IM epinephrine, 0.3 mg; IV methylprednisolone sodium succinate, 125 mg; and IV diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 50 mg. However, no clinical improvement is noted after 15 min. Which one of the following should you recommend now?

a. Another dose of IM epi
b. Another dose of IV methylprednisolone
c. Another dose of IV diphenhydramine
d. IM glucagon
e. IM betamethasone sodium phosphate/betamethasone acetate

A

d. IM glucagon

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15
Q

A 45 yo male who is being treated for chronic alcohol dependence with monthly injections of naltrexone (Vivitrol) presents with significant pain due to a fractured ankle, and IV pain medication is required. Which one of the following medications would be most useful in this situation?

a. Fentanyl
b. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
c. Ketorolac
d. Meperidine (Demerol)
e. Morphine

A

c. Ketorolac

Naltrexone is given in 380-mg monthly injections for the chronic tx of alcohol and opioid dependence. It is an antagonist of mu-opioid receptors, and blocks the pain relief properties of opioid agonists. Regional anesthesia and/or non-opioid analgesics are indicated when urgent pain relief is needed in a patient on long-term naltrexone therapy.

Ketorolac is the only medication listed that is not an opioid agonist.

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16
Q

In a pt with sepsis, which one of the following would confirm a dx of septic shock?

a. A 1.0 mg/dL increase in the creatinine level
b. A platelet count of 20,000/mm3 (N 150,000-350,000)
c. A WBC count of 25,000/mm3 (N 4300-10,800)
d. A serum bilirubin level of 7.0 mg/dL (N < 1.0)
e. A serum lactate level of 2.0 mmol/L (N 0.5-1.0)

A

e. A serum lactate level of 2.0 mmol/L (N 0.5-1.0)

Diagnostic criteria:

  • Sepsis = leukocytosis
  • Severe sepsis = leukocytosis + organ dysfunction (increase in serum creatinine level >0.5 mg/dL, thrombocytopenia, and hyperbilirubinemia)
  • Septic shock = hyperlactatemia or hypotension refractory to IV fluids
17
Q

A 69 yo male sees you for a routine evaluation. He has been in good health and takes no medication other than tamsulosin (Flomax) for sx of BPH. He has never smoked. His BP is 121/78, pulse rate 72 bpm, and RR 18/min. His general physical exam is unremarkable, including cardiac and abdominal examinations. A DRE reveals mild enlargement of the prostate, without nodules. According to the USPSTF, the patient should be screened for:

a. elder abuse
b. aortic aneurysm
c. multifactorial fall risk
d. dementia
e. hepatitis C

A

e. hepatitis C

USPSTF recommends one-time screening for hepatitis C for individuals born between the years 1945 and 1965 (USPSTF B recommendation).

18
Q

A 7 yo male is brought to your office with a 2 day hx of rash. He developed two itchy spots on his legs yesterday and today he has multiple purple, slightly painful lesions on his legs. A few days ago he was ill with cold-like symptoms, stomach pain, and a fever up to 101.2 F. He complained of leg pain at the time and his left ankle is now swollen. His fever resolved 2 days ago and he now feels fine but limps when he walks. On exam, he is afebrile with a normal BP and pulse rate. He is active in the exam room. Physical exam is normal except for purpuric lesions on his legs and buttocks and edema and mild pain of the left ankle. A urinalysis negative. Which one of the following would be most appropriate in the mgmt of this pt?

a. Acetaminophen
b. Amlodipine (Norvasc)
c. Amoxicillin
d. Cyclophosphamide
e. Prednisone

A

A. Acetaminophen

This pt meets the clinical criteria for HSP, an immune-mediated vasculitis found commonly in children under the age of 10. The clinical triad of purpura, abdominal pain, and arthritis is classic.

Almost 95% of children with HSP spontaneously improve, so supportive therapy is main intervention.

Acetaminophen or ibuprofen can be used for the arthritic pain. However, ibuprofen should be avoided in those with abdominal pain or known renal involvement.

Prednisone has been found to help in those with renal involvement or other complications of the disease such as significant abdominal pain, scrotal swelling, or severe joint pains. However, it is not effective for preventing renal disease or reducing the severity of renal involvement.

Patients with renal involvement and resultant HTN with HSP should be treated with CCBs such as amlodipine. This pt exhibits neither renal involvement or HTN.

19
Q

A 25 y/o male has developed a painless ulcer on the glans of his penis. After an appropriate exam and testing, you diagnose primary syphilis and treat him with 2.4 million units of benzathine penicillin IM in a single dose. Eight hours later, while you are working the evening clinic, he returns because he has a fever of 100.6 F and a bad headache, which he rarely gets. He says he “aches all over.” Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time?

a. Three blood cultures from different sites at 30 min intervals
b. CT of head
c. LP
d. Doxycycline, 100 mg orally BID for 14 days
e. Reassurance and antipyretics

A

e. Reassurance and antipyretics

This pt is experiencing the Jarisch-Herxheimer rxn–an acute, transient, febrile rxn that occurs within the first few hours after tx for syphilis. The condition peaks at 6-8 hrs and disappears within 12-24 hrs after therapy. The temperature elevation is usually low grade, and there is often associated myalgia, headache, and malaise.

The pathogenesis of the rxn is unclear, but it may be due to liberation of antigens from the spirochetes.

20
Q

Which one of the following medications is most likely to cause hypokalemia?

a. Albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin)
b. Doxazosin (Cardura)
c. Erythromycin
d. Felodipine (Plendil)
e. Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)

A

a. Albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin)

Beta-agonists activate potassium uptake by the cells. This includes bronchodilators and tocolytic agents. Other agents that can induce hypokalemia include pseudoephedrine and insulin.

Diuretics, particularly thiazides, can also cause hypokalemia as a result of the renal loss of potassium.

21
Q

A 65 yo female presents to the ER as directed by her PCP because of “high potassium” that was found today durnig routine laboratory monitoring. The pt has a PMH significant for diet-controlled DM, HTN, and asthma. She feels well and specifically denies palpitations, fatigue, changes in urine output, and muscle cramps. Which one of the following is the first additional test that should be obtained in the dx evaluation of this pt?

a. urinalysis
b. CBC
c. ABG
d. EKG
e. Renal U/S

A

d. EKG

Because hyperkalemia can have deleterious effects on the myocardium, an EKG is the first diagnostic test in the workup of a patient with hyperkalemia. Although not all pts with hyperkalemia will have an abnormal EKG, those who do need to be given IV calcium immediately to prevent arrhythmias and cardiac arrest.

22
Q

You respond to a code blue in the obstetrics department. The pt is a 19 yo primigravida at 35 weeks gestation, hospitalized with severe preeclampsia. A nurse anesthetist has placed an oral airway and is administering 100% oxygen to the apneic pt. She reports no difficulty ventilating the pt with a bag and valve, and no gagging with oral airway insertion. The pt’s BP is 100/60 and her pulse rate is 70 bpm and regular. Her pupils are equal and sluggishly reactive, and she is flaccid and areflexic. The patient had been treated with a magnesium sulfate infusion and a recent bolus of labetalol. Which one of the following medications should you administer initially?

a. Calcium gluconate
b. Fosphenytoin
c. Labetalol
d. Lorazepam (Ativan)
e. Dopamine

A

a. Calcium gluconate

During the tx of severe preeclampsia with IV magnesium, the occurrence of apnea and areflexia is most consistent with magnesium toxicity. Calcium infusion is recommended as an antidote. Calcium gluconate is safer for peripheral IV site. Calcium chloride can be used if central line has been established.

23
Q

What is the specific antidote used to treat methanol poisoning?

a. Ethanol
b. Haloperidol
c. Lorazepam (Ativan)
d. Naloxone
e. Thiamine

A

a. Ethanol

Ethanol administration will inhibit the metabolism of methanol (competitive inhibitor of toxin metabolism and slows formation of metabolites, formaldehyde and formic acid

24
Q

Misleadingly low serum sodium can be caused by:

a. hyperglycemia
b. diuretic use
c. heart failure
d. renal disease

A

a. hyperglycemia

A decrease in serum sodium concentration does not always indicate a decrease in osmolality of body fluids. In cases of hyperglycemia, the main cause of the hyponatremia is the glucose-related increase in osmolality of extracellular fluid, followed by the movement of water from intracellular to extracellular fluid compartments and a subsequent loss of excessive extracellular fluid and electrolytes.

The serum sodium concentration is also decreased in pts with hyperlipidemia or hyperproteinuria because of the volume occupied by the lipids or proteins.

25
Q

A 58 y/o healthy white female sees you for a routine visit. She is monogamous with her husband, is a nonsmoker, has two alcoholic drinks a week, and has mild GERD. Her BMI is normal. She had a normal mammogram 1 mo ago and a negative colonoscopy at age 53. She has never had a DXA scan or screening for ovarian cancer. Her family hx is noncontributory. According to the USPSTF, you should recommend:

a. HIV screening
b. CA-125 testing for ovarian cancer
c. DXA for osteoporosis screening
d. Colonoscopy for CRC screening

A

a. HIV screening

The USPSTF and CDC recommend that all adults age 65 years and under be screened for HIV regardless of risk factors.

26
Q

A 32 yo primigravida at 36 weeks gestation complains of headaches. She denies vaginal bleeding, leakage of fluid and contractions, and the fetus is moving normally. Her BP is 155/100 mm Hg and a urinalysis shows 4+ protein. The rest of her examination is normal and a cervical exam shows 1 cm of dilation, 50% effacement, a soft consistency, anterior position, and -2 vertex station. Results of a preeclampsia panel are all in normal range. Which one of the following is the most appropriate mgmt for this pt?

a. Start labetolol and discharge home on best rest with close follow-up
b. Start magnesium sulfate and induce labor now
c. Start magnesium sulfate, administer corticosteroids, and induce labor in 48 hrs
d. Start magnesium sulfate, lower BP to 140/90 mm Hg, and induce labor at 37 weeks gestation
e. Arrange for urgent cesarean section

A

b. Start magnesium sulfate and induce labor now

This patient likely has severe preeclampsia based on her elevated BP with 4+ protein on her urinalysis. Patients with severe preeclampsia near term should be placed on magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures, and labor should be induced immediately.

Elevated BP can be managed with hydralazine and labetolol.

27
Q

What is Dengue hemorrhagic fever defined by?

Treatment?

A

mosquito Aedes aegypti

Thrombocytopenia, hemorrhagic manifestations, plasma leakage

Patients may have leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, hemoconcentration, elevated CPK, and elevated liver enzymes

Treatment consists of supportive care and avoidance of NSAIDs and aspirin due to their anticoagulant properties.

28
Q

What medication has been shown to lower the risk of preeclampsia in pregnancy?

A

Aspirin

29
Q

A previously healthy 59 yo male is brought to the ER by his wife, who describes symptoms of confusion and ataxia. She also says that he has had a fever and cough for the past 2 weeks. On exam, he has a temperature of 102.2 F, HR of 125 bpm, RR of 25/min, BP of 85/46 mm Hg, and O2 sat of 88%.

Lab findings include WBC count of 15,5000/mm3 (N 4300-10800), a GFR of 45%, and hemoglobin of 9.1 g/dL (N 13-18). CXR reveals large LLL infiltrate. You start pt on abx regimen. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment of this patient’s hypotension?

a. Dobutamine
b. Dopamine
c. Norepinephrine
d. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
e. Packed rbc transfusion

A

d. Aggressive fluid resuscitation

This pt meets the criteria for severe inflammatory response syndrome (fever > 38.5 C, HR > 90 bpm, RR >20/min, WBC count > 12000/mm3).

He also meets the criteria for severe sepsis, with a positive chest radiograph and evidence of organ hypoperfusion (mental status changes), as well as septic shock (MAP < 60 mm Hg).

The most appropriate initial tx for patients with hypotension in septic shock is fluid resuscitation. While vasopressor therapy is certainly appropriate in septic shock, it should be initiated only after fluid resuscitation fails to restore MAP (>65 mm Hg) or when there is evidence of continued organ hypoperfusion.

30
Q

What does insulin do to phosphate and glucose?

[Refeeding syndrome]

A

Stimulates cells to uptake phosphate and glucose

Severe hypophosphatemia = medical E

In poorly nourished patients, refeeding syndrome can occur (weakness, confusion, dysrhythmias, respiratory failure, HF, hypotension, ileus, metabolic acidosis, seizures, coma, sudden death)

31
Q

BMI ranges for children ages 2-18

A
  • <5th: underweight
  • 5th-85th: healthy
  • 85th-94th: overweight
  • >95th: obese
32
Q

What are the two most common causes of serious bacterial infection in children 3-36 months of age?

A

Pneumonia and UTI

33
Q

A 24 yo gravida 2 para 1 presents to your office for her first prenatal visit at 7 weeks gestation. You review her vaccine records and note that she received Tdap 1 year ago. When should you recommend that she get her next Tdap?

a. Post partum
b. At this visit
c. Anytime after the first trimester
d. Between 27 and 36 weeks gestation
e. 10 years after the last dose

A

d. Between 27 and 36 weeks gestation

Due to the increasing incidence of pertussis, the CDC recommends that all pregnant women receive Tdap vaccine during every pregnancy regardless of when their last dose was. It is ideally administered between 27 and 36 weeks gestation to maximize the maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the infant.

34
Q

Pregnancy screens:

11-16 weeks

24-28 weeks

35-37 weeks

A
  • 11-16 weeks: Asymptomatic bacteriuria
  • 24-28 weeks: Diabetes
  • 35-37 weeks: GBS
35
Q

Most common bacterial organisms in child younger than 29 days with fever?

Treatment?

A

GBS + E Coli

Ampicillin and cefotaxime

36
Q

A 36 yo white female calls you to report that she removed a small blood-engorged tick from her upper arm the previous evening, 3 days after returning from a camping trip in the mountains of New Hampshire. Which one of the following would you recommend?

a. A single 200-mg dose of doxycycline
b. Doxycycline, 100 mg twice daily for 7 days
c. Azithromycin, 500 mg daily for 7 days
d. No treatment unless she develops the typical erythema migrans rash

A

a. A single 200-mg dose of doxycycline

In areas where there is at least a 20% rate of tick infection, 200 mg of doxycycline within 72 hrs of tick removal is appropriate as prophylaxis for Lyme disease if the tick is engorged or is suspected to have been attacked for at least 36 hours.

37
Q

In a woman whose GBS status is unknown, what is a risk factor requiring empiric intrapartum abx prophylaxis against early-onset GBS infection in her newborn?

A

Prematurity (i.e. delivery at less than 35 weeks gestation)