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PRAXIS EXAM > V: Special Considerations in Speech-Language Pathology Practice (AAC & Audiology) > Flashcards

V: Special Considerations in Speech-Language Pathology Practice (AAC & Audiology) Flashcards

1
Q

AAC

AAC (1)

A

forms of communication that either supplement and/or replace more conventional means of communication (typically referring to speech)

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2
Q

AAC

F2F (1)

A

face-to-face communication (refers to spoken communication)

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3
Q

AAC

developmental and congenital disorders associated with need for AAC (7)

A

autism spectrum disorders (ASD), cerebral palsy (CP), down syndrome, severe and refractory phonological disorders, childhood apraxia of speech (CAS), intellectual disability, spina bifida

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4
Q

AAC

acquired disorders associated with need for AAC (8)

A

brain tumor, stroke (cerebrovascular accident or CVA), spinal cord injury (SCI), traumatic brain injury (TBI), multiple sclerosis (MS), guillain-barre syndrome (muscle weakness caused by PNS damage), huntington’s disease (HD), head and neck cancers (HNCs)

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5
Q

AAC

FAPE, 1975 (3)

A

free appropriate public education, guaranteed by rehabilitation act of 1973 and IDEA 1990, requires that children with disabilities receive support free of charge as is provided to nondisabled students

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6
Q

AAC

IDEA, 1990 (1)

A

individuals with disabilities education act, stipulates that assistive technology must be provided if it is required as a part of a child’s special education, related services or supplementary aids and serviced

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7
Q

AAC

assistive technology act amendments of 2004 (2)

A

PL-108-364, mandated assistive technology centers in each state and territory

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8
Q

AAC

ADA (2)

A

americans with disabilities act, hospitals must provide effective means of communication for patients, family members and hospital visitors who are deaf or hard of hearing

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9
Q

AAC

unaided vs aided (1::1)*

A

use of only the body to communicate without external aids or equipment :: use of external equipment to assist with communication

*aided AAC devices may be: no, low, mid and/or high-tech

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10
Q

AAC

dedicated vs nondedicated devices

A

sole purpose is to assist with communication (typically face-to-face) by providing speech output :: commercially available and support a range of functions in addition to speech output

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11
Q

AAC

iconicity (2)

A

the association a person makes between a symbol and its referent, can be: opaque (symbol does not resemble referent), translucent (symbol resembles referent), transparent (symbol can be readily guesses)

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12
Q

AAC

static vs dynamic displays

A

display doesn’t change :: screen changes following use input

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13
Q

AAC

cosmesis (1)

A

aesthetic appeal of a device and whether it can be modified/personalized (colors, designs)

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14
Q

AAC

direct selection vs alternate access

A

select via touch or other means (eye gaze) :: scan choices and the user indicates a choice using a predetermined signal

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15
Q

AAC

common scanning patterns (5)

A

circular (simplest type of scanning where icons highlight in a circle until a selection is made), linear (row-by-row, left to right), row-column, top-bottom, group item (icons grouped into themes)

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16
Q

AAC

selection control techniques (3)

A

direct (inverse) scanning (hold and release), automatic (regular) scanning (cursor moves automatically and a selection is made when switch is activated), step scanning (1:1 correspondence between cursor movement and switch activation)

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17
Q

AAC

partner-assisted scanning (1)

A

communication partner presents choices to the AAC use

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18
Q

AAC

auditory scanning (2)

A

used when visual interaction with the device is not possible, choices are provided auditorily

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19
Q

AAC

switches (3)

A

used with scanning to make selections, may use multiple switches to tailor functionality specific to the patient, types: mechanical, electrical, pneumatic (uses inhalation/exhalation to activate), electronic

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20
Q

AAC

switch site hierarchy (7)

A

hands -> head -> mouth -> feet -> lower extremities -> upper extremities -> mind

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21
Q

AAC

types of AAC communicators (4)

A

vary by skill while using device, types: emerging, contextual, independent

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22
Q

AAC

four main reasons for communicative interaction

A

communication of wants/needs, information transfer, social closeness, social etiquette

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23
Q

AAC

four core competencies of communicative competence for AAC user

A

linguistic, operational (maintenance of device), social, strategic (compensatory strategies to circumvent limitations of device)

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24
Q

AAC

types of rate enhancement (3)

A

prediction (autocorrect), coding (alpha, alphanumeric, letter-category, numeric codes), message coding (alpha-letter encoding, abbreviation expansion, icon prediction, color coding)

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25
Q

AAC

organization strategies using types of displays (3)

A

grid displays (fitzgerald key system, schematic grid, pragmatic organization dynamic display or PODD), visual scene displays, alphabet displays (QWERTY, ABCD, vowels on the left and consonants following)

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26
Q

AAC

CCN (1)

A

complex communication needs

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27
Q

AAC

participation model (2)

A

a systematic approach on assessment and intervention focusing meeting participation requirements for routines and activities of typical peers, identifies barriers of opportunity and access

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28
Q

AAC

opportunity barriers (5)*

A

policy, practice, knowledge, skill, attitude

*these barriers are external

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29
Q

AAC

tangible symbol systems (2)

A

aka symbol assessment, used to determine: most abstract level of symbol representation that can be reliably used, smallest size symbol(s) that can be reliably used

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30
Q

AAC

feature matching (1)

A

the process by which the skills and needs of the client are matched against the features of various AAC systems (process to find the best/most fitting device for the individual)

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31
Q

AAC

vocabulary selection (5)

A

critical component of AAC intervention, use of core vocabulary (high-frequency words and phrases that are highly functional for the individual, use of fringe vocabulary (words and phrases that are specific to a topic/activity/individual, not used as frequently as core), also includes: developmental vocabulary (new words installed for training/vocabulary growth), coverage vocabulary (basic needs)

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32
Q

AAC

keyguard (2)

A

a plastic/plexiglass overlay used to help isolate each key/cell to improve accuracy of icon selection (avoids selecting the wrong icon), useful for people who use pointers and/or have tremor

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33
Q

AAC

types of speech output (3)

A

synthesized speech (computerized, test to speech or TTS), digitized speech (prerecorded messages), hybrid

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34
Q

aud

outer ear (5)

A

pinna, external auditory meatus (EAM), tympanic membrane (TM), auditory function:collect sounds and channel them to the middle ear :: non auditory function:protection

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35
Q

aud

TM (4)

A

tympanic membrane, a thin oval membrane that forms a partition between the outer ear and the middle ear, three layers (lateral epidermal, intermediate fibrous, medial mucosal), transduces sound aka acoustic vibration transformed into mechanical energy

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36
Q

aud

parts of the middle ear (4)

A

a six-walled air-filled cavity within the petrous portion of the temporal bone, houses three bones (malleus, incus, stapes) held into an ossicular chain via tensor tympani and stapedius muscles, ossicular chain suspended in the middle ear via five ligaments, eustachian tube

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37
Q

aud

eustachian tube

A

a mucosal-lined pathway (part of the middle ear) that ventilates the middle ear through the connection to the nasopharynx

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38
Q

aud

middle ear function (2)

A

overall function is to compensate for impedance mismatch (loss of sound energy) between the acoustic signals from the outer ear and the cochlear fluids of the inner ear, middle ear muscles serve to increase sensitivity of the auditory system for speech (for example, stiffens in background noise)

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39
Q

aud

inner ear (6)

A

resides in the petrous portion of the temporal bone, two functions (sense of hearing:cochlea :: sense of balance:semicircular canals and otolithic organs), portions include: bony labyrinth, cochlear structures, organ of corti (outer and inner hair cells)

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40
Q

aud

osseous labyrinth (4)

A

aka bony labyrinth, includes: semicircular canals (three canals responsible for angular movement), vestibule (chamber of sensory organs responsible for detecting linear movement), cochlea (contains end-organ of hearing)

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41
Q

aud

cochlear structures (4)

A

bony canal (base of cochlea:largest turn :: apex:smallest turn), membranous labyrinth: scala vestibuli (upper canal containing perilymph), scala tympani (lower canal containing perilymph), scala media (middle canal containing organ of corti and endolymph)

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42
Q

aud

organ of corti (2)

A

outer hair cells (tube shaped):serves as a biologic modifier increasing or decreasing sensitivity to sounds by changing length of hair cells :: inner hair cells (flask shaped):serve to process frequency, time and intensity information to the auditory pathway

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43
Q

aud

inner ear membranes (3)

A

reissner’s membrane (forms roof of scala media, risk of erupting), basilar membrane (forms floor of scala media, high frequencies processed at the base and low frequencies processed at the apex), tectorial membrane (responsible for shearing the steriocilia of the hair cells)

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44
Q

aud

inner ear function (6)

A

overall function is to change mechanical energy into hydromechanical energy and then into neural impulses: (1) stapes moves fluid in the scala vestibule to create a wave -> (2) fluid pushes on reissner’s membrane and creates a wave in scala media -> (3) tectoral and basilar membranes move and shear agains stereocilia -> (4) exciting hair cells converts energy to electrochemical -> (5) hair cells release neurotransmitter to create nerve impulses -> (6) neural impulses picked up by CN VIII

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45
Q

aud

coding frequency (3)

A

place theory (frequencies are encoded based on their place along the basilar membrane), temporal theory (auditory nerve is phase-locked to stimulus pattern and brain encodes that timing pattern), missing fundamental frequency (the absent fundamental frequency in a complex sound is what is heard)

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46
Q

aud

coding intensity (2)

A

as intensity increases: individual nerve fibers fire more often, a wider area of the basilar membrane is stimulated (greater number of nerve fibers activated)

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47
Q

aud

CN VIII (2)*

A

vestibulocochlear nerve (includes three fibers: inferior vestibular nerve, superior vestibular nerve, cochlear nerve), affarent fibers carry information (frequency, temporal, intensity) from the cochlea to the cochlear nucleus

*nerve innervation patterns: IHCs:one hair cell to many nerve fibers (divergent) :: OHCs:many hair cells to one nerve fiber (convergent)

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48
Q

aud

otoscopy (2)

A

a systematic visual inspection of the outer ear and surrounding tissue (external auditory meatus and tympanic membrane), pass criteria: normal appearance of all structures and no complaints of pain when pinna and/or surrounding tissue is manipulated

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49
Q

aud

intensity measures (4)*

A

decibel (dB – unit of measurement of intensity used in acoustics and audiometric testing), sound pressure level (dB SPL – intensity level based on absolute pressure measurement), hearing level (dB HL – reference of normal human hearing thresholds for each audiometric frequency tested), sensation level (SL – any measurement made above an individual’s threshold)

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50
Q

aud

audiogram x-axis vs y-axis

A

x-axis:aka abscissa expressed in Hz :: y-axis:aka ordinate expressed in dB HL

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51
Q

aud

frequency principals (4)

A

period (amount of time for one sine wave to complete cycle), pure tone (sound consisting of a single frequency), periodic sounds (repetitive and do note change, can be simple or complex), aperiodic sounds (cycles do not repeat, complex)

52
Q

aud

sensitivity principals (3)

A

absolute sensitivity (ability to detect a faint sound), differential sensitivity (aka acuity, ability to detect differences/changes of frequencies), threshold (level at which a stimulus is perceived, lowest intensity to respond to stimulus 50% of the time)

53
Q

aud

psychoacoustic and measurement principals (3)

A

intensity (magnitude/amplitude of a sound related to the perception of loudness), frequency (cycles per second of the signal in Hz, related to perception of pitch), sensitivity (ability to sense/detect stimulus)

54
Q

aud

audiometer (2)

A

instrument used to quantify hearing by producing sounds (pure tones, speech, noise) at calibrated intensities delivered using transducers (headphones, bone oscillator, sound field speakers)

55
Q

aud

broadband vs narrowband

A

broadband:signals that are complex aperiodic signals that contain all frequencies (aka white noise) :: narrowband:white noise with frequencies above and below a center frequency filtered out

56
Q

aud

speech noise (2)

A

broadband noise containing frequencies between 300 and 300 Hz, used for masking during speech audiometry

57
Q

aud

purpose of pure tone audiometry (5)

A

determines severity of hearing loss, helps to diagnosis type of hearing loss (conductive, sensorineural, mixed), helps to describe configuration of hearing loss, determines intensity level to use for audiological procedures, helps determine hearing aid/cochlear implant candidacy

58
Q

aud

air conduction vs bone conduction audiometry

A

stimulates entire peripheral auditory system including conductive and sensorineural portions :: bypasses the conductive mechanism via bone vibrator placed onto mastoid

59
Q

aud

audiogram (3)

A

documents air and bone conduction thresholds, one audiogram for each ear, x-axis:frequency in Hz :: y-axis:intnesity in dB HL

60
Q

aud

pure tone average vs fletcher average

A

average threshold values based on thresholds obtained at 500, 1000, and 2000 Hz :: best two thresholds at 500, 1000, and 2000 Hz (supposedly more accurate)

61
Q

aud

CHL (4)

A

conductive hearing loss, normal bone conduction thresholds, air conduction thresholds outside of normal range, results from problems associated with the out and/or middle ear

62
Q

aud

SNHL (4)

A

sensorineural hearing loss, near-equal air and bone conduction thresholds (within 10 dB of each other), all thresholds outside of normal range, results from disorders of the cochlea and/or CN VIII

63
Q

aud

mixed hearing loss

A

bone conduction thresholds outside of normal range given that air conduction thresholds are poorer than bone conduction thresholds (creating an air-bone gap)

64
Q

aud

ABG (3)

A

air-bone gap, the difference between air and bone conduction thresholds of an audiogram revealing a mixed hearing loss, reflects the degree of conductive component contributing to the overall mixed hearing loss

65
Q

aud

speech audiometry (4)

A

verifies results following pure tone audiometry, helps to determine site of lesion, provides an estimate of communicative functioning to help determine goals/course of treatment, used to determine speech recognition threshold

66
Q

aud

SRT (2)

A

speech recognition threshold, the lowest hearing level of each ear in dB HL at which one can correctly recognize speech stimuli (usually spondees aka bisyllabic words with equal stress)

67
Q

aud

SRT-PTA agreement (2)

A

when speech recognition threshold and pure tone average are no more than 6 dB distant from each other, used to validate pure tone testing

68
Q

aud

SDT (2)

A

speech detection (awareness) threshold, lowest intensity level that speech can be detected in dB HL

69
Q

aud

speech/word recognition testing (4)*

A

used to estimate one’s ability to understand everyday speech, phonetically balanced (PB) words/other speech stimuli are presented at supra threshold level, client responds (open or closed response) to speech stimuli in an given environment (quiet, with noise), scores are presented as percentages per presentation level(s) used

*PB max:maximum word recognition score

70
Q

aud

clinical masking (3)

A

used to eliminate the participation of the nontest ear (by presenting noise) when evaluating the test ear to obtain valid thresholds, narrowband noise is used for masking during pure tone testing :: speech noise is used for masking during speech audiometry

71
Q

aud

IA (1)

A

intramural attenuation, amount of sound intensity needed before actual transmission of sound arriving at the nontest ear/cochlea occurs (aka crossover)

72
Q

aud

masking risks (5)

A

under masking, overmasking, shadow curve (test ear mimics responses from nontest ear), masking dilemma (masking when both ears have air-bone gaps), may result in errors in diagnosing

73
Q

aud

BOA (3)

A

behavioral observation audiometry, a type of pediatric testing strategy that involves providing a stimulus and observing behavioral responses (eye blink, startle response), for children 7 months and younger

74
Q

aud

VRA (3)

A

visual reinforcement audiometry, a type of pediatric testing strategy that involves conditioning a child to look at a visual reinforcer when a stimulus is presented and detected, for children 7 months through 2.5 years

75
Q

aud

CPA (3)

A

conditioned play audiometry, a type of pediatric testing strategy that involves conditioning a child to perform a task (for example, drop a block into bucket) when a stimulus is presented and detected, for children 2.5 years and older

76
Q

aud

occlusion effect (1)

A

when an individual resorts to speaking softly because their own voice sounds too loud

77
Q

aud

paracusis willisii (1)

A

ability to hear better in noisy environments

78
Q

aud

recruitment (2)

A

rapid growth of loudness perception one threshold is crossed, associated with sensorineural hearing loss

79
Q

aud

immittance measurement (2)

A

to assess middle ear function, to differentiate between cochlear (CN VIII) and retrocochlear (brain stem) disorders, associated with acoustic impedance and acoustic admittance

80
Q

aud

acoustic impedance vs acoustic admittance

A

opposition to the transfer of acoustic energy :: ease of sound flow through an acoustic system

81
Q

aud

tympanometry (2)

A

dynamic measure of energy flow through the tympanic membrane and displayed on a tympanogram (graph plotting variation in air pressure and tympanic membrane compliance), x-axis:change in pressure in decapascals (daPa) :: y-axis:acoustic immittance and tympanic membrane compliance (how much sound passes through the TM or is bounced back into the external auditory meatus)

82
Q

aud

acoustic reflex testing (3)

A

measure of the change in acoustic admittance of the ear caused by a contraction of the stapedius muscle when a high intensity is presented, helps to confirm middle ear disorders, helps to distinguish between sensory (cochlea) and neural (CN VIII) disease

83
Q

aud

OAEs (6)

A

otoacoustic emissions, low-intensity sounds generated by the cochlea that travel back through the middle ear and are recorded in the external auditory meatus by a microphone, can be present or absent, can be used to screen for hearing loss in newborns/infants, assists in differential diagnosis of sensory (cochlear) and neural (CN VIII) hearing loss, monitors for ototoxicity

84
Q

aud

present OAEs vs absent OAEs

A

if the OAE is present then it suggests normal cochlear function in the presence of normal middle ear function :: if the OAE is absent then it suggests there is some degree of hearing loss in the presence of normal middle ear function

85
Q

aud

TEOAEs

A

transient-evoked otoacoustic emissions, tested using a broadband click signal at 80-85 dB SPL to stimulate a range of frequencies in the cochlea, absent when cochlear hearing loss is greater than 30 dB HL

86
Q

aud

DP-OAEs

A

distortion-product otoacoustic emissions, tested using a pair of tones (F1 and F2) at 65 and 55 dB, absent when cochlear hearing loss is greater than 45 dB HL

87
Q

aud

AEPs (3)

A

auditory-evoked potentials, a series of bioelectric responses/waveforms measured using surface electrodes and then averaged, waveforms reveal neural activity in response to acoustic stimuli along the auditory pathways

88
Q

aud

ECochG (2)

A

electrocochleography, compares summating potential (response from cochlea due to basilar membrane and hair cell displacement) to compound action potential (neural response from CN VIII)

89
Q

aud

ABR (3)

A

auditory brainstem response, measures response using click and/or tone pip (filtered click) signal, NOT a true hearing test rather it is only used to predict hearing sensitivity by measuring neural activity in the auditory pathway

90
Q

aud

ASSR

A

auditory steady state response, a technique that uses a continuous frequency-specific signal (frequency modulated, amplitude modulated or both) to detect presence/absence of response

91
Q

aud

MLR (2)

A

middle latency response, reflects activity of the auditory thalamocortical pathway

92
Q

aud

anotia vs microtia

A

absent pinna :: small pinna

93
Q

aud

atresia vs stenosis

A

absent/blocked external auditory meatus :: narrowing of external auditory meatus

94
Q

aud

osteoma vs exostosis

A

benign bony tumor :: benign bony tumor due to swimming in cold water

95
Q

aud

tympanic membrane perforation vs tympanosclerosis

A

hole in TM due to trauma or infection :: scarring of TM due to multiple perforations

96
Q

aud

otitis media (2)

A

middle ear fluid, may be: infectious, chronic, acute

97
Q

aud

cholesteatoma (1)

A

nonmalignant growth (often a foreign body making its way into the middle ear)

98
Q

aud

ossicular discontinuity vs otosclerosis vs tympanosclerosis

A

trauma to one or more of the icicles (malleus, incus, stapes) :: stiffening of the ossicles :: formation of white plaques on tympanic membrane

99
Q

aud

barotrauma (1)

A

traumatic injury due to change in atmospheric pressure

100
Q

aud

glomus tumor (2)

A

neoplasm (mass of cells with vascular supply) in the middle ear, includes pulsatile tinnitus

101
Q

aud

middle ear disorders vs inner ear disorders

A

typically result in conductive hearing loss :: typically result in sensorineural hearing loss

102
Q

aud

damage to outer hair cells vs damage to inner and out hair cells

A

mild to moderate sensorineural hearing loss :: severe to profound sensorineural hearing loss

103
Q

aud

autoimmune hearing loss (1)

A

associated with autoimmune disorders where the body may produce antibodies against its own tissues

104
Q

aud

temporary vs permanent threshold shift

A

short-term shift in hearing sensitivity due to acoustic trauma/noise :: long-term shift in hearing sensitivity due to acoustic trauma/noise

105
Q

aud

ototoxicity (1)

A

hearing loss caused by therapeutic agents or chemical substances

106
Q

aud

longitudinal vs transverse fracture

A

disarticulation of ossicular chain :: temporal bone fracture that damages the membranous labyrinth of the cochlea

107
Q

aud

perceptual consequences of cochlear hearing loss (4)

A

loudness recruitment (disproportionate increase in sensitivity to loudness), dysacusis (difficulty understanding speech), diplacusis (one sound heard as two), phonemic regression (difficulty with word recognition)

108
Q

aud

meniere’s disease

A

results from overproduction of inner ear fluid, causes vertigo (balance) and nausea, remediated via: surgery, medications, therapy

109
Q

aud

retrocochlear disorders (1)*

A

associated with CN VIII, brain stem, vascular and/or cortical damage

*red flags: unilateral high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss, unilateral tinnitus

110
Q

aud

vestibular schwannoma (2)

A

aka acoustic tumors, typically one-sided

111
Q

aud

APD (4)

A

central auditory processing disorder, difficulty interpreting auditory information even with normal peripheral hearing sensitivity, interventions include enhancement of signal-to-noise ratio, children benefit from auditory training therapy and compensatory strategies

112
Q

aud

ANSD (3)

A

auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder aka auditory neuropathy/auditory dys-synchrony occurring in newborns/infants/children, evidence of normal cochlear function but abnormal auditory nerve function, cause unknown

113
Q

aud

basic hearing aid components (4)

A

microphone (omnidirectional, directional, multi), amplifier (analog or digital), receiver (coverts electric signal into acoustic signal to ear), battery

114
Q

aud

electroacoustic characteristics of hearing aids (5)

A

gain (amount of amplification), frequency response (amount of gain across frequency range), output sound pressure level (OSPL – maximum output), linear sound processing (when dB increase is equal at all levels), nonlinear sound processing (amount of gain is dependent on incoming sound)

115
Q

aud

hearing aid styles (3)

A

behind the ear (receiver in ear, receiver in canal), in the ear (full shell, half shell, in the canal, completely in the canal), contralateral routing of signal (CROS – can be bilateral CROS)

116
Q

aud

purpose of ear molds (5)

A

attaches behind the ear hearing aid, amplification, modifies hearing aid frequency response, prevents feedback, can be modified: venting (channel that runs through earmold), damping (acoustic filter), horn effect (enhancement of high-frequency response)

117
Q

aud

basic cochlear implant components (4)

A

microphone, external sound processor (converts sound to digital), internal unit (converts digital to electrical), electrode array (implanted into scala tympani next to round window to stimulate CN VIII and auditory pathways)

118
Q

aud

ABI (2)

A

auditory brainstem implant, only used for adults with neurofribromatosis (damaged auditory nerve)

119
Q

aud

BAI (2)

A

bone anchored implants, components: microphone, externally worn processor (converts energy into vibration), titanium abutment and fixture (implanted surgically – soft headband used for children <5)

120
Q

aud

FM vs IR systems for assistive hearing

A

frequency-modulated:uses wireless radio waves for signal :: infrared:uses wireless light waves for signal

121
Q

aud

HAT (5)

A

hearing assistive technology, alerting devices (doorbells, for example), listening devices (amplifiers), text devices (captioning), vibrotactile aids (vibrations)

122
Q

aud

terms for persons with hearing differences (6)

A

deaf and hard of hearing, audiometrically deaf, Deaf, hearing loss, hearing impaired/hearing impairment, hard of hearing

123
Q

aud

manual communication options (3)

A

american sign language (ASL), bilingual-bicultural (Bi-Bi), manually coded english (MCE)

124
Q

aud

PSE (2)

A

pidgin sign english, combines: american sign language, signed english, fingerspelling

125
Q

aud

auditory assessment tools (10)

A

ling six sound test, early speech perception (ESP) test battery, meaningful auditory integration scale (MAIS – infant-toddler version available), parent’s teaacher’s evaluation of aural/oral performance of children (P/TEACH), glendonald auditory screening procedure (GASP!), the listening comprehension test-2, test of auditory comprehension (TAC), speech perception instructional curriculum and evaluation for children with cochlear implants and hearing aids (SPICE)

126
Q

aud

auditory hierarchy of listening (4)

A

detection -> discrimination -> recognition and identification -> comprehension

127
Q

aud

classroom acoustics (3)

A

noise (internal or external), reverberation, distance (between sound source and listener)

PRAXIS EXAM (5 decks)

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