Med Term 2 Flashcards

1
Q

ptyal/o

A

saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

-emesis

A

vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

-phagia

A

swallowing, eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

enter/o

A

intestine (usually small intestine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

proct/o

A

anus, rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

cholangi/o

A

bile vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

chol/e

A

bile, gall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

cholecyst/o

A

gallbadder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

choledoch/o

A

bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

-iasis

A

abnormal condition (produced by something specified)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

-osis

A

abnormal condition; increase (used primarily with blood cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

EGD

A

esophagogastroduodenoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

RGB

A

roux-en-Y gastric bypass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ascites

A

abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

cirrhosis

A

chronic liver disease characterized by destruction of liver cells that eventually leads to ineffective liver function and jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

diverticular disease

A

condition in which bulging pouches (diverticula) in the GI tract push the mucosal lining through the surrounding muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

dysentery

A

inflammation of the intestine, especially of the colon, which may be caused by chemical irritants, bacteria, protozoa or parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

fistula

A

abnormal passage from one organ to another, or from a hollow organ to the surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

GERD

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

GERD full def

A

backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to malfunction of the lower esophageal spincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

heratochezia

A

passage of stools containing bright red blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

hernia

A

protrusion or porjection of an organ or part of an organ through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Crohn disease

A

form of IBD that affects the ileum but may affect any portion of the intestinal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ulcerative eolitis

A

chronic IBD of the colon characterized by episodes of diarrhea, rectal bleeding and pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

jaundice

A

yellow discoloration of the skin, mucous membranes and sclerae of the eyes caused by excessive levels of bilirubin in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

obesity

A

condition in which a person accumulated an amount of fat that exceeds the body’s skeletal and physical standards, usually an increase of 20% or more above ideal body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

polyp

A

small tumor like benign growth that projects from a mucous membrane surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

colonic polyposis

A

polyps projecting from the mucous membrane of the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

polyposis

A

polyps develop in the intestinal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ulcer

A

open sore or lesion of the skin or mucous membrane accompanied by sloughing of inflamed necrotic tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

volvulus

A

twisting of the bowel on itself, causing obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

barium enema (BE)

A

radiographic examination of the rectum and colon after administration of barium sulfate into the rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

barium swallow

A

radiographic examination of the esophagus, stomach and SI after oral administration of barium sulfate; also called upper GI series

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

computed tomography (CT)

A

radiographic technique that uses a narrow beam of xrays that rotates in a full arc around the patient to acquire multiple views of the body that a computer interprets to produce cross sectional images of that body part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

endoscopy

A

visual examination of a cavity or canal using a specialized lighted instrument called an endoscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

upper GI

A

endoscopy of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

lower GI

A

endoscopy of colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum/anal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

magnetic resonance imaging MRI

A

radiographic techique that uses electromagnetic energy to produce multiplanar cross sectional images of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Stool guaiac

A

test performed on feces using the reagent gum guaiac to detect presence of blood in feces that is not apparent on visual inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ultrasonography US

A

imaging technique that uses high-frequency sound waves (ultrasound) that bounce off body tissues and are recorded to produce an image of an internal organ or tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

bariatric surgery

A

goup of procedures that treat morbid obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

nasogastric intubation

A

insertion of a nasogastric tube through the nose into the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

corpor/o

A

body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

orth/o

A

straight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

polyp/o

A

small growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

-oid

A

resembling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

cystoscopy

A

visual examination of the urinary tract using a systoscope inserted through the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

vesic/o

A

bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

vesicocele

A

hernial protrusion of urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

meatus

A

opening or tunnel through any part of the body, such as the external opening of the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

nephr/o

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

nephroma

A

tumor of the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

pyel/o

A

renal pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

pyeloplasty

A

surgical repair of renal pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

-emia

A

blood condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

-iasis

A

abnormal condition produced by something specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

ARF

A

Acute Renal Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

BNO

A

Bladder Neck Obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

BPH

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia; benign prostatic hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

BUN

A

Blood Urea Nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

CRF

A

Chronic Renal Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

DRE

A

digital rectal examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

ESRD

A

end-stage renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

ESWL

A

Extracoporeal Shock-wave Lithotripsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

EU

A

Excretory Urography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

IVP

A

intravenous Pyelogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

IVU

A

Intravenous Urogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

KUB

A

Kidney, ureter, bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

PKD

A

Polycystic Kidney Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

PSA

A

Prostate Specific Antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

RP

A

Retrograde pyelography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

TURP

A

Transurethral Resection of the Prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

UA

A

urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

VCUG

A

Voiding Cystourethrogram; voiding cystourethrography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

azoturia

A

increase of nitrogenous substances, especially urea, in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

diuresis

A

Increased formation and secretion of urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

end-stage renal disease (ESRD)

A

Kidney disease that has advanced to the point that the KD can no longer adequately filter blood and requires dialysis or transplant. also called CRF chronic renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

enuresis

A

involuntary discharge of urine after the age at which bladder control should be established, also called nocturnal enuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

hypospadias

A

Abnormal congenital opening of the male urethra on the undersurface of the penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

interstitial nephritis

A

condition associated with pathological changes in the renal intersititial tissue that is due to a toxic agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Uremia

A

Elevated level of urea and other nitrogenous waste products in the blood, occurs in renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Wilms tumor

A

Malignant neoplasm of the KD that occurs in young children, before age 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Pyelography

A

radiographic study of the KD, Ureters and bladder after injection of a contrast agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

IVP Intravenous Pyelography

A

Radiographic imagin in which a contrast medium is injected intravenously and serial xray films are taken to provide visualization of entrie urinary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

renal scan

A

Nuclear medicine imaging procedure that determines renal function and shape through measurement of a radioactive substance that is injected intravenously and concentrates in the KD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Urinallysis

A

physical, chemical and microscopic evaluation of urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

VCUG Voiding cystourethrography

A

Radiography of the BL and urethra after filly the bladder with a contrast medium and during the process of voiding urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Catheterization

A

Insertion of a catheter into a body cavity or organ to instill a substance or remove fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

hemodialysis

A

process of removing excess fluids and toxins from the blood by continually shunting the blood from the body into a dialysis machine for filtering, then returning the clean blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

peritoneal dialysis

A

Dialysis in which the patient’s own peritoneum is used as the dialyzing membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

amni/o

A

amnion (amniotic sac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

amniocentesis

A

surgical puncture of the amniotic sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

colp/o

A

vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

colposcopy

A

examination of the vagina and cervix with an optical magnifying instrument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

vaginocele

A

herniation into the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

gynec/o

A

woman/female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

hyster/o

A

uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

uter/o

A

uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

GU

A

Genitourinary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

TURP, TUR

A

transurethral resection of the prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

GC

A

Gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

cadidiasis

A

vaginal fungal infection caused by Candida ablicans; characterized by a curdy or cheeselike discharge and itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

cervicitis

A

inflammation of the uterine cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

endomentriosis

A

presence of endomentrial tissue outside the uterine cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

fibroid

A

benign neoplasm in the uterus that is composed largely of fibrous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

leukorrhea

A

which discharge from the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

oligomenorrhea

A

scanty or infrequent menstrual flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

PIH pregnancy induced hypertension

A

potentially life threatening; happens after week 20; edema and protein uria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

pyosalpinx

A

pus in the fallopian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

retroversion

A

turning or state of being turned back, especially an entire organ being tipped from its normal postion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Toxic Shock Syndrom TSS

A

rare and sometimes fatal staphylococcus infection that generally occurs in menstruating women who use vaginal tampons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

trichomoniasis

A

protozoal infestation of the vagina, urethra or prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

anorchism

A

congenital absence of one or both testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

balanitis

A

inflammation of the skin covering the glas penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

cryptorchidism

A

failure of one or both testicles to descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

epispadias

A

congenital defect in which the urethra opens on the upper side of the penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

hypospadias

A

Congenital defect in which the male urethra opens on undersurface of the penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

impotence

A

inability of a man to achieve or maintain penile erection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

phimosis

A

stenosis or narrowness of the preputial orifice so that the foreskin cannot be pushed back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

genital warts

A

warts in the genitalia caused by HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

gonorrhea

A

contagious bacterial infection that most commonly affects the genitourinary tract and occasionally the pharynx or rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

herpers genitalis

A

infection in females and males of the genital and anorectal skin and mucosa with herpes virus type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

syphilis

A

infections chronic STD characterized by lesions that change to a chancre and may involve any organ or tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

amniocentesis

A

obstetric procedure that involves surgical puncture of the amniotic sac and under ultrasound guidance to remove amniotic fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

hysterosalpingography

A

radiography of the uterus and oviducts after injection of a contrast medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

laparoscopy

A

visual exam of the abdominal cavity with a laparoscope through one or more small incisions in the abdominal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

mammography

A

radiography of breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

papanicolau PAP test

A

microscopic analysis of cells taken from the cervix and vaginal to detect the presence of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Digital rectal examination DRE

A

examination of the prostate gland by finger palpation through the anal canal and rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Prostate specific antigen PSA test

A

blood test to screen for prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

cerclage

A

obstertic procedure in which a nonabsorbably sutrue is used for holding the cervix closed to prevent spontaneious abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

dilation and curettage D&C

A

surgical procedure that widens the cervical canal so that the endometrium of the uterus can be scraped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

hysterosalpingo-oophorectomy

A

surgical removal of a uterus, a fallopian tube and a ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

lumpectomy

A

excision of a small primary breast tumor and some of the normal tissue around it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

pituitar/o

A

pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

thym/o

A

thymus gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

thyr/o

A

throid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

-dipsia

A

thrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

-trophy

A

development/nourishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

ACTH

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

ACTH Target Organ

A

Adrenal Cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

ACTH function

A

promotes secretions of some hormones by adrenal cortex, esp cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

ACTH disorder

A

hyposecretion is rare

hypersecretion causes Cushing Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

FSH

A

Follicle Stimulating Hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

FSH Target Organ

A

Ovaries and Testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

FSH Function

A

stimulate egg production/increase estrogen

stimulate sperm prodction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

FSH Disorder

A

Hyposecretion causes failure of sexual maturation

hypersecretion has no known effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

GH

A

Growth Hormone

Somatotropin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

GH Target Organ

A

Bone cartilage, liver, muscle, and other tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

GH function

A

stimulates somatic growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

GH Disorder

A

HYPO causes dwarfism

HYPER causes gigantism or acromeagaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

LH

A

luteninizing Hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

LH Target Organ

A

Ovaries and Testies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

LH Function

A

promotes ovulation, stiumlates estrogen and progesterone; in males promotion of testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

LH Disorders

A

HYPO failure of sexual maturation

HYPER No known effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Prolactin Organ/function

A

Breast, promotes lactation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Prolactin Disorders

A

HYPO poor lactation

HYPER galactorhhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

TSH

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

TSH organ

A

Thyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

TSH function

A

stimulates the secretion of thyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

TSH disorder

A
HYPO cretinism (infants) myxedema (adults)
HYPER Graves Disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

ADH

A

Antidiuretic Hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

ADH Target organ

A

Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

ADH function

A

increases water reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Oxytocin Organ and Function

A

Uterus-stimulates uterine contractions, initiates labor

Breasts-promotes milk secretion from the mammary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Calcitonin

A

Regulates calcium levels. secreted when calcium levels are high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

T4 and T3

A

Thyroxine and triiodothryronine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

T4 and T3 functions

A

Increases energy production from all food types

increases rate of protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Glucocorticoids

A

Body cells, promote gluconeogenesis, regulate metabolism of carbs, proteins and fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Mineralocorticoids

A

Kidneys, increase blood levels of sodium and decrease blood levels of potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

sympathetic nervous system increase metabolic rate and heart rate and raise blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

cerebr/o

A

cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

encephal

A

brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

gli/o

A

glue; neuroglial tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

mening/o

A

meninges (membranes covering brain and spinal cord)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

meningi/o

A

meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

myel/o

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

-paresis

A

partial paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

-phasia

A

speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

-plegia

A

paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

ADH

A

antidiuretic hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

DM

A

diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

GH

A

growth hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

HRT

A

Hormone Replacement threapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

CNS

A

central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

LP

A

lumar puncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

CO

A

cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

EEG

A

electroencephalogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

EMG

A

electromyography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

AP

A

Anteroposterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

PA

A

posteroanterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

CT

A

computed tomography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Addison Disease

A

Uncommon chronic disorder caused by deficiency of cortical hormones that results when the adrenal cortex is damaged or atrophied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Cushing Syndrome

A

Cluster of symptoms cause by excessive amount of cortisol or ACTH in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

diabetes mellitus DM

A

chronic metabolic disorder of impaired carbohydrate, protein and fate metabolism due to insufficient production of insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Type 1 diabetes

A

ubrupt in onset, failure of pancreas to produce insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

type 2 diabetes

A

gradual in onset, results from the deficiency in production of insulin or resistance to the action of insulin by the body’s cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

exophthalmos

A

abnormal protrusion of the eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Graves disease

A

mulitsystem autoimmune disorder that involves growth of the thyroid associated with nypersecretion of thyroxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

insulinoma

A

tumor of the islets of langerhans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

myxedema

A

advancded hypothroidism, causing edema and increased blood volume and increased blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

obesity

A

20% or above ideal body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

morbid obesity

A

BMI of 40 or greater (100+lbs over ideal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

panhypopituitarism

A

total pituitary impairment that brings about a progressive and general loss of hormone activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

pheochromocytoma

A

small chromaffin cell tumor, usually located in the adrenal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

pituitarism

A

any disorder of the pituitary gland and its function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Alzheimer disease

A

chronic organic mental disorder that is a progressive form of a presenile dementia caused by atrophy of the frontal and occipital lobes of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Epilepsy

A

disorder affecting the CNS that is characterized by recurring seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

huntington Chorea

A

hereditary nervous disorder caused by the progressive loss of brain cells leading to bizarre involuntary dancelike movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

hydrocephalus

A

cranial enlargement caused by accumlation of fluid within the ventricles of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

MS multiple sclerosis

A

progressive degenerative disease of the central nervous system characterized by inflammation, hardening, and loss of myelin throughout the spinal cord and brain, which produces weakness and other muscle symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

neuroblastoma

A

malignant tumor composed principally of cells resembling neuroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

palsy

A

partial or complete loss of motor function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Bell Palsy

A

facial paralysis on one side of the face because of inflammation of a facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

cerebral palsy

A

bilateral, symmetrical, nonprogressive motor dysfunction and partial paralysis caused by damage to the cerebrum during gestation or birth trauma but can be hereditary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

parkinson disease

A

progressive, degenerative neurological disorder affecting the portion of the brain resposible for controlling movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

poliomyelitis

A

infammation of the gray matter of the spinal cord caused by a virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

sciatica

A

severe pain in the leg along the course of the sciatic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

seizure

A

convulsion or other clinically detectable event caused by sudden discharge of electrical activity in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

spina bifida

A

congenital neural tube defect characterized by incomplete colosre of the spinal canal through which the spinal cord and menninges may or may not protrude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

transient ischemic attack

A

temporary interference with blood supply to the brain lasting fa few minutes to a few hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

MRI magnetic resonance imaging

A

radiographic technique that uses electromagnetic energy to produce multiplanar cross sectional images of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

RAIU Radio active Iodine Uptake Test

A

imagin procedure that measures levels of radioactivity in the thryroid after oral or IV administraion of a radioactive iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

CSF Cerebrospinal Fluid analysis

A

CSF obtained via lumbar puncture is evaluated for clarity and color, cells and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

PET

A

Positron emission tomography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

PET Positron emission tomography

A

Radiographic technique combining computer tomography with radio pharmaceuticals that produces a cross sectional image of the body to revel areas where the material is being metabolized vs deficiency of metabolized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

adrenalectomy

A

surgical removal of one or both adrenal glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

craniotomy

A

surgical procedure that creates an opening in the skull to gain access to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

thalamotomy

A

partial destruction of the thalamus to treat psychosis or intractable pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT)

A

oral administration or injection of synthetic hormones to correct a deficiency in such hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

fasci/o

A

band, fascia (fibrous membrane supporting and separating muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

leiomy/o

A

smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

-asthenia

A

weakness, debility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

-rrhaphy

A

suture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

-sarcoma

A

malignant tumor of connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Flexion/Extension

A

bending and extension of a limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

abduction/adduction

A

movement away from and toward body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

rotation

A

circular movement around an axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

pronation/supination

A

turning had to a palm down or palm up position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

dorsifilexion/plantar flexion

A

bending the foot or toes upward or downward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

carp/o

A

carpus (wrist bones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

spondyl/o

A

vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

stern/o

A

sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

calcane/o

A

calcaneum (heel bone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

cyst/o

A

Bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

cystoscopy

A

visual examination of the urinary tract using a systoscope inserted through the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

vesic/o

A

bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

EU

A

Excretory Urography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

IVP

A

intravenous Pyelogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

IVU

A

Intravenous Urogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

PKD

A

Polycystic Kidney Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

PSA

A

Prostate Specific Antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

RP

A

Retrograde pyelography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

TURP

A

Transurethral Resection of the Prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

UA

A

urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

VCUG

A

Voiding Cystourethrogram; voiding cystourethrography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

azoturia

A

increase of nitrogenous substances, especially urea, in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

diuresis

A

Increased formation and secretion of urine

259
Q

dysuria

A

painful or difficult urination, symptomatic of systitis and other urinary tract conditions

260
Q

end-stage renal disease (ESRD)

A

Kidney disease that has advanced to the point that the KD can no longer adequately filter blood and requires dialysis or transplant. also called CRF chronic renal failure

261
Q

enuresis

A

involuntary discharge of urine after the age at which bladder control should be established, also called nocturnal enuresis

262
Q

hypospadias

A

Abnormal congenital opening of the male urethra on the undersurface of the penis

263
Q

interstitial nephritis

A

condition associated with pathological changes in the renal intersititial tissue that is due to a toxic agent.

264
Q

renal hypertension

A

HB pressure that results from KD disease

265
Q

Uremia

A

Elevated level of urea and other nitrogenous waste products in the blood, occurs in renal failure

266
Q

Wilms tumor

A

Malignant neoplasm of the KD that occurs in young children, before age 5

267
Q

BUN Blood Urea Nitrogen

A

Laboratory test that measures the amount of urea in the blood and demonstrates the KD ability to filter urea from the blood

268
Q

CT Compute tomography

A

radiographic technique that uses a narrow beam of Xrays that rotates in a full arc to acquire multiple views of the body that a computer interprets to produce cross section images of that part

269
Q

KUB Kidney, Ureter, Bladder

A

Radiographic examination to determine the location size shape and malformation of the KUB

270
Q

Pyelography

A

radiographic study of the KD, Ureters and bladder after injection of a contrast agent

271
Q

IVP Intravenous Pyelography

A

Radiographic imagin in which a contrast medium is injected intravenously and serial xray films are taken to provide visualization of entrie urinary tract

272
Q

renal scan

A

Nuclear medicine imaging procedure that determines renal function and shape through measurement of a radioactive substance that is injected intravenously and concentrates in the KD

273
Q

VCUG Voiding cystourethrography

A

Radiography of the BL and urethra after filly the bladder with a contrast medium and during the process of voiding urine

274
Q

dialysis

A

mechanical filtering process used to cleanse blood of high concentrations of metabolic waste productes

275
Q

hemodialysis

A

process of removing excess fluids and toxins from the blood by continually shunting the blood from the body into a dialysis machine for filtering, then returning the clean blood

276
Q

peritoneal dialysis

A

Dialysis in which the patient’s own peritoneum is used as the dialyzing membrane

277
Q

amni/o

A

amnion (amniotic sac)

278
Q

amniocentesis

A

surgical puncture of the amniotic sac

279
Q

cervicitis

A

inflammation of cervix uteri

280
Q

colp/o

A

vagina

281
Q

colposcopy

A

examination of the vagina and cervix with an optical magnifying instrument

282
Q

vagin/o

A

vagina

283
Q

vaginocele

A

herniation into the vagina

284
Q

galact/o

A

milk

285
Q

galactorrhea

A

discharge or flow of milk

286
Q

lact/o

A

milk

287
Q

lactogen

A

production and secretion of milk

288
Q

gynec/o

A

woman/female

289
Q

hyster/o

A

uterus

290
Q

uter/o

A

uterus

291
Q

mamm/o

A

breast

292
Q

mast/o

A

breast

293
Q

men/o

A

menses, menstruation

294
Q

metr/o

A

uterus; measure

295
Q

endometritis

A

inflammation of the endomentrium

296
Q

nat/o

A

birth

297
Q

oophor/o

A

ovary

298
Q

ovari/o

A

ovary

299
Q

oophoroma

A

ovarian tumor

300
Q

ovariorrhexis

A

rupture of an ovary

301
Q

vulv/o

A

vulva

302
Q

episi/o

A

vulva

303
Q

-arche

A

benginning

304
Q

menarche

A

initial menstrual period

305
Q

-cyesis

A

pregnancy

306
Q

-para

A

to bear (offspring)

307
Q

-tocia

A

childbirth/labor

308
Q

-version

A

turning

309
Q

andr/o

A

male

310
Q

balan/o

A

glans penis

311
Q

gonad/o

A

gonads, sex glands

312
Q

gonadotropin

A

hormone that stimulates the gonads

313
Q

varic/o

A

dilated vein

314
Q

varicocele

A

dialated or enlarged vein of the spermatic cord

315
Q

vas/o

A

vessel; vas deferens; duct

316
Q

vesicul/o

A

seminal vesicle

317
Q

CS C-section

A

cesarean section

318
Q

D&C

A

dialation and curettage

319
Q

GYN

A

gynecology

320
Q

HRT

A

hormone replacement therapy

321
Q

IUD

A

intrauterine device

322
Q

IVF

A

in vitro fertilization

323
Q

LMP

A

last menstrual period

324
Q

OCPs

A

oral contraceptive pills

325
Q

Pap

A

Papanicolaou

326
Q

PID

A

pelvic inflammatory disease

327
Q

PIH

A

pregnancy induced hypertension

328
Q

TAH

A

total abdominal hysterectomy

329
Q

TRAM

A

transverse rectus abdominis muscle

330
Q

TVH

A

Total Vaginal Hysterectomy

331
Q

BPH

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

332
Q

GU

A

Genitourinary

333
Q

GC

A

Gonorrhea

334
Q

cadidiasis

A

vaginal fungal infection caused by Candida ablicans; characterized by a curdy or cheeselike discharge and itching

335
Q

cervicitis

A

inflammation of the uterine cervix

336
Q

ectopic pregnancy

A

implantation of the fertilized ovum outside the uterine cavity

337
Q

endomentriosis

A

presence of endomentrial tissue outside the uterine cavity

338
Q

fibroid

A

benign neoplasm in the uterus that is composed largely of fibrous tissue

339
Q

leukorrhea

A

which discharge from the vagina

340
Q

oligomenorrhea

A

scanty or infrequent menstrual flow

341
Q

PIH pregnancy induced hypertension

A

potentially life threatening; happens after week 20; edema and protein uria

342
Q

pyosalpinx

A

pus in the fallopian tube

343
Q

trichomoniasis

A

protozoal infestation of the vagina, urethra or prostate

344
Q

anorchism

A

congenital absence of one or both testes

345
Q

balanitis

A

inflammation of the skin covering the glas penis

346
Q

cryptorchidism

A

failure of one or both testicles to descent

347
Q

epispadias

A

congenital defect in which the urethra opens on the upper side of the penis

348
Q

hypospadias

A

Congenital defect in which the male urethra opens on undersurface of the penis

349
Q

phimosis

A

stenosis or narrowness of the preputial orifice so that the foreskin cannot be pushed back

350
Q

genital warts

A

warts in the genitalia caused by HPV

351
Q

gonorrhea

A

contagious bacterial infection that most commonly affects the genitourinary tract and occasionally the pharynx or rectum

352
Q

herpers genitalis

A

infection in females and males of the genital and anorectal skin and mucosa with herpes virus type 2

353
Q

syphilis

A

infections chronic STD characterized by lesions that change to a chancre and may involve any organ or tissue

354
Q

amniocentesis

A

obstetric procedure that involves surgical puncture of the amniotic sac and under ultrasound guidance to remove amniotic fluid

355
Q

hysterosalpingography

A

radiography of the uterus and oviducts after injection of a contrast medium

356
Q

laparoscopy

A

visual exam of the abdominal cavity with a laparoscope through one or more small incisions in the abdominal wall

357
Q

mammography

A

radiography of breast

358
Q

papanicolau PAP test

A

microscopic analysis of cells taken from the cervix and vaginal to detect the presence of cancer

359
Q

Digital rectal examination DRE

A

examination of the prostate gland by finger palpation through the anal canal and rectum

360
Q

Prostate specific antigen PSA test

A

blood test to screen for prostate cancer

361
Q

cerclage

A

obstertic procedure in which a nonabsorbably sutrue is used for holding the cervix closed to prevent spontaneious abortion

362
Q

dilation and curettage D&C

A

surgical procedure that widens the cervical canal so that the endometrium of the uterus can be scraped

363
Q

hysterosalpingo-oophorectomy

A

surgical removal of a uterus, a fallopian tube and a ovary

364
Q

lumpectomy

A

excision of a small primary breast tumor and some of the normal tissue around it

365
Q

mastecomy

A

complete or partial excision of one or both breasts, most commonaly preformed to remove a malignant tumor

366
Q

transurethral resection of the prostate TURP

A

surgical procedure to relieve obstruction casued by benign prostatic hyperplasia by insertion of a resctoscope into the penis and through the urethra to chip away at prostatic tissue

367
Q

gonadotropin

A

hormonal preparation used to increase sperm count

368
Q

-dipsia

A

thrist

369
Q

-trophy

A

development/nourishment

370
Q

ACTH

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

371
Q

ACTH Target Organ

A

Adrenal Cortex

372
Q

ACTH function

A

promotes secretions of some hormones by adrenal cortex, esp cortisol

373
Q

ACTH disorder

A

hyposecretion is rare

hypersecretion causes Cushing Disease

374
Q

FSH

A

Follicle Stimulating Hormone

375
Q

FSH Target Organ

A

Ovaries and Testes

376
Q

FSH Function

A

stimulate egg production/increase estrogen

stimulate sperm prodction

377
Q

FSH Disorder

A

Hyposecretion causes failure of sexual maturation

hypersecretion has no known effects

378
Q

GH

A

Growth Hormone

Somatotropin

379
Q

GH Target Organ

A

Bone cartilage, liver, muscle, and other tissues

380
Q

GH function

A

stimulates somatic growth

381
Q

GH Disorder

A

HYPO causes dwarfism

HYPER causes gigantism or acromeagaly

382
Q

LH

A

luteninizing Hormone

383
Q

LH Target Organ

A

Ovaries and Testies

384
Q

LH Function

A

promotes ovulation, stiumlates estrogen and progesterone; in males promotion of testosterone

385
Q

LH Disorders

A

HYPO failure of sexual maturation

HYPER No known effects

386
Q

Prolactin Organ/function

A

Breast, promotes lactation

387
Q

Prolactin Disorders

A

HYPO poor lactation

HYPER galactorhhea

388
Q

TSH

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone

389
Q

TSH organ

A

Thyroid gland

390
Q

TSH function

A

stimulates the secretion of thyroid hormone

391
Q

TSH disorder

A
HYPO cretinism (infants) myxedema (adults)
HYPER Graves Disease
392
Q

ADH

A

Antidiuretic Hormone

393
Q

ADH Target organ

A

Kidney

394
Q

ADH function

A

increases water reabsorption

395
Q

Oxytocin Organ and Function

A

Uterus-stimulates uterine contractions, initiates labor

Breasts-promotes milk secretion from the mammary glands

396
Q

Calcitonin

A

Regulates calcium levels. secreted when calcium levels are high

397
Q

T4 and T3

A

Thyroxine and triiodothryronine

398
Q

T4 and T3 functions

A

Increases energy production from all food types

increases rate of protein synthesis

399
Q

Glucocorticoids

A

Body cells, promote gluconeogenesis, regulate metabolism of carbs, proteins and fats

400
Q

Mineralocorticoids

A

Kidneys, increase blood levels of sodium and decrease blood levels of potassium

401
Q

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

sympathetic nervous system increase metabolic rate and heart rate and raise blood pressure

402
Q

cerebr/o

A

cerebrum

403
Q

encephal

A

brain

404
Q

gli/o

A

glue; neuroglial tissue

405
Q

mening/o

A

meninges (membranes covering brain and spinal cord)

406
Q

meningi/o

A

meninges

407
Q

myel/o

A

bone marrow

408
Q

neur/o

A

nerve

409
Q

-paresis

A

partial paralysis

410
Q

-phasia

A

speech

411
Q

-plegia

A

paralysis

412
Q

ADH

A

antidiuretic hormone

413
Q

BG

A

Blood Glucose

414
Q

BS

A

Blood sugar

415
Q

GH

A

growth hormone

416
Q

HRT

A

Hormone Replacement threapy

417
Q

CNS

A

central nervous system

418
Q

AP

A

Anteroposterior

419
Q

PA

A

posteroanterior

420
Q

Addison Disease

A

Uncommon chronic disorder caused by deficiency of cortical hormones that results when the adrenal cortex is damaged or atrophied

421
Q

Cushing Syndrome

A

Cluster of symptoms cause by excessive amount of cortisol or ACTH in the blood

422
Q

diabetes mellitus DM

A

chronic metabolic disorder of impaired carbohydrate, protein and fate metabolism due to insufficient production of insulin

423
Q

Type 1 diabetes

A

ubrupt in onset, failure of pancreas to produce insulin

424
Q

type 2 diabetes

A

gradual in onset, results from the deficiency in production of insulin or resistance to the action of insulin by the body’s cells

425
Q

exophthalmos

A

abnormal protrusion of the eyeball

426
Q

Graves disease

A

mulitsystem autoimmune disorder that involves growth of the thyroid associated with nypersecretion of thyroxine

427
Q

insulinoma

A

tumor of the islets of langerhans

428
Q

myxedema

A

advancded hypothroidism, causing edema and increased blood volume and increased blood pressure

429
Q

obesity

A

20% or above ideal body weight

430
Q

morbid obesity

A

BMI of 40 or greater (100+lbs over ideal)

431
Q

panhypopituitarism

A

total pituitary impairment that brings about a progressive and general loss of hormone activity

432
Q

pheochromocytoma

A

small chromaffin cell tumor, usually located in the adrenal medulla

433
Q

pituitarism

A

any disorder of the pituitary gland and its function

434
Q

Alzheimer disease

A

chronic organic mental disorder that is a progressive form of a presenile dementia caused by atrophy of the frontal and occipital lobes of the brain

435
Q

Epilepsy

A

disorder affecting the CNS that is characterized by recurring seizures

436
Q

huntington Chorea

A

hereditary nervous disorder caused by the progressive loss of brain cells leading to bizarre involuntary dancelike movements

437
Q

hydrocephalus

A

cranial enlargement caused by accumlation of fluid within the ventricles of the brain

438
Q

MS multiple sclerosis

A

progressive degenerative disease of the central nervous system characterized by inflammation, hardening, and loss of myelin throughout the spinal cord and brain, which produces weakness and other muscle symptoms

439
Q

neuroblastoma

A

malignant tumor composed principally of cells resembling neuroblasts

440
Q

palsy

A

partial or complete loss of motor function

441
Q

Bell Palsy

A

facial paralysis on one side of the face because of inflammation of a facial nerve

442
Q

cerebral palsy

A

bilateral, symmetrical, nonprogressive motor dysfunction and partial paralysis caused by damage to the cerebrum during gestation or birth trauma but can be hereditary

443
Q

parkinson disease

A

progressive, degenerative neurological disorder affecting the portion of the brain resposible for controlling movement

444
Q

poliomyelitis

A

infammation of the gray matter of the spinal cord caused by a virus

445
Q

seizure

A

convulsion or other clinically detectable event caused by sudden discharge of electrical activity in the brain

446
Q

spina bifida

A

congenital neural tube defect characterized by incomplete colosre of the spinal canal through which the spinal cord and menninges may or may not protrude

447
Q

transient ischemic attack

A

temporary interference with blood supply to the brain lasting fa few minutes to a few hours

448
Q

MRI magnetic resonance imaging

A

radiographic technique that uses electromagnetic energy to produce multiplanar cross sectional images of the body

449
Q

RAIU Radio active Iodine Uptake Test

A

imagin procedure that measures levels of radioactivity in the thryroid after oral or IV administraion of a radioactive iodine

450
Q

CSF Cerebrospinal Fluid analysis

A

CSF obtained via lumbar puncture is evaluated for clarity and color, cells and proteins

451
Q

lumbar puncture

A

insertion of a needle into the subarachnoid space of the spinal column at the level of the fourth intervetebral space to withdraw cerebral spinal fluid

452
Q

PET

A

Positron emission tomography

453
Q

PET Positron emission tomography

A

Radiographic technique combining computer tomography with radio pharmaceuticals that produces a cross sectional image of the body to revel areas where the material is being metabolized vs deficiency of metabolized

454
Q

adrenalectomy

A

surgical removal of one or both adrenal glands

455
Q

craniotomy

A

surgical procedure that creates an opening in the skull to gain access to the brain

456
Q

thalamotomy

A

partial destruction of the thalamus to treat psychosis or intractable pain

457
Q

Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT)

A

oral administration or injection of synthetic hormones to correct a deficiency in such hormones

458
Q

fasci/o

A

band, fascia (fibrous membrane supporting and separating muscles

459
Q

fibr/o

A

fiber

460
Q

leiomy/o

A

smooth muscle

461
Q

-asthenia

A

weakness, debility

462
Q

-rrhaphy

A

suture

463
Q

-sarcoma

A

malignant tumor of connective tissue

464
Q

Flexion/Extension

A

bending and extension of a limb

465
Q

abduction/adduction

A

movement away from and toward body

466
Q

rotation

A

circular movement around an axis

467
Q

pronation/supination

A

turning had to a palm down or palm up position

468
Q

dorsifilexion/plantar flexion

A

bending the foot or toes upward or downward

469
Q

spondyl/o

A

vertebra

470
Q

calcane/o

A

calcaneum (heel bone)

471
Q

patell/o

A

kneecap/patella

472
Q

radi/o

A

radiation, xray; radius lower arm bone, thumside)

473
Q

tibi/o

A

tibia larger bone of lower leg

474
Q

ankyl/o

A

stiffness, bent crooked

475
Q

arthr/o

A

joint

476
Q

chondr/o

A

cartilage

477
Q

lamin/o

A

lamina

478
Q

myel/o

A

bone marrow

479
Q

-desis

A

binding, fixation

480
Q

physis

A

growth

481
Q

HNP

A

herniated nucleus pulposus

482
Q

AIDS

A

acquired immune deficiency syndrom

483
Q

Orth, Ortho

A

orthopedics

484
Q

THR

A

total hip replacement

485
Q

CTS

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

486
Q

muscular dystrophy

A

group of hereditary diseases characterized by gradual atrophy and weakness of muscle tissue

487
Q

myasthenia gravis MG

A

autoimmune neuromuscular disorder characterized by severe muscular weakness and progressive fatigue

488
Q

sprain

A

trauma to ta joint that causes injury to the surrounding ligament accompanied by pain and disability

489
Q

strain

A

trauma to a muscle from over use or excessive forcible stretch

490
Q

talipes equinovarus

A

congenital deformity of the food also called club foot

491
Q

tendinitis

A

inflammation of a tendon

492
Q

torticollis

A

spasmodic contraction of the neck muscles causing stiffness and twisting of the neck, wryneck

493
Q

CTS carpal tunnel syndrome

A

pain or numbness resulting from compression of the medial nerve within the carpal tunnel

494
Q

contracture

A

fibroisis of connective tissue in the skin, fascia, muscle or joint capsule that prevents normal mobility of the related tissue or joint

495
Q

crepitation

A

grating sound made by the movement of bone ends rubbing together

496
Q

Ewing Sarcoma

A

malignant tumor that develops from bone marrow, usually in long bones or the pelvis

497
Q

gout

A

hereditary metabolic disease that is a form of acute arthritis, characterized by excessive uric acid in the blood and around the joints

498
Q

herniated disk

A

herniation or rupture of the nucleus pulposus between two vertebrae

499
Q

osteoporosis

A

decrease in bone density with an increase in porosity causing bones to become brittle and increasing the risk of fractures

500
Q

Paget Disease

A

skeletal disease affecting elderly people that causes chronic inflammation of bones, resulting in thickening and softening of bones and bowing of long bones

501
Q

RA

A

chronic systemic inflammatory disease affecting the synovial membranes of multiple joints

502
Q

subluxation

A

partial or complete disclocation

503
Q

sequestrum

A

fragment of a necrosed bone that has become separated from surrounding tissue

504
Q

ankylosing spondylitis

A

chronic inflammatory disease of unknown origin that firsts affects the spine and characterized by fusion and loss of mobility of two or more vertebrae

505
Q

kyphosis

A

increased curvature of the throacic region of the vertebral column, leading to ta humpback posture; also called hunchback

506
Q

lordosis

A

forward curature of the lumbar region, leads to swayback

507
Q

scoliosis

A

abnormal sideward curvature of the spine

508
Q

spondylolisthesis

A

partical forward dislocation of one vertebra over the one below it

509
Q

arthrocentesis

A

puncture of a joint space with a needle to remover fluid

510
Q

rheunmatoid factor

A

blood test to detect the presence of the rheumatiod factor

511
Q

arthroplasty

A

surgical reconstruction of a painful degenerated joint to restore movement

512
Q

blephar/o

A

eyelid

513
Q

conjuctive/o

A

conjuctiva

514
Q

choroid/o

A

choroid

515
Q

corne/o

A

cornea

516
Q

cor/o

A

pupil

517
Q

core/o

A

pupil

518
Q

pupill/o

A

pupil

519
Q

dacry/o

A

tear, lacrimal apparatus

520
Q

dlacrim/o

A

tear, lacrimal apparatus

521
Q

dipl/o

A

double

522
Q

irid/o

A

iris

523
Q

kerat/o

A

horny tissue; hard; cornea

524
Q

ocul/o

A

eye

525
Q

ophthalm/o

A

eye

526
Q

opt/o

A

eye, vision

527
Q

retin/o

A

retina

528
Q

scler/o

A

hardening; sclera

529
Q

opia

A

vision

530
Q

opsia

A

vision

531
Q

-ptosis

A

prolapse, downward displacement

532
Q

-tropia

A

turning

533
Q

acous/o

A

hearing

534
Q

audi/o

A

hearing

535
Q

myring/o

A

tympanic membrane (ear drum)

536
Q

typman/0

A

ear drum

537
Q

ot/o

A

ear

538
Q

salping/o

A

tube

539
Q

-acusis

A

hearing

540
Q

achromatopsia

A

congenital deficiency in color preception/ color blindness

541
Q

astigmatism

A

defective curvature of the cornea and lens

542
Q

cataract

A

degenerative disease in which the lens of the eye becomes progressively cloudy

543
Q

conjunctiveitis

A

inflammation of the conjunctiva that can be cause by bacteria, allergy, irritation or a foreign body; pinkeye

544
Q

diabetic retinopathy

A

retinal damage marked by aneurysmal dilation and bleeding of blood vessels or the formation of new blood vessels causing visual changes.

545
Q

glaucoma

A

condition in which the aqueous humor fails to drain and accumulates in the anterior chamber of the eye causing evlevated pressure

546
Q

hordeloum

A

small purulent inflammatory infection of a sebacceous gland of the eyelid; sty

547
Q

macular degeneration

A

breakdown of the tissues in the macula, resuling in a loss of central vision

548
Q

photophobia

A

unusual intolerance and sensitivity to light

549
Q

strabismus

A

muscular eye disorder in which the eyes turn from the normal position so that they can deviate in different directions

550
Q

acoustic neuroma

A

benign tumor that develops from the 8th CN and grows within the auditory canal

551
Q

Meniere Disease

A

rare disorder of unknown etiology within the labyrinth of the inner ear that can lead to a progressive loss of hearing

552
Q

Otitis media (OM)

A

inflammation of the middle ear

553
Q

otosclerosis

A

progressive deafness due to ossification in the bony labyrinth of the inner ear

554
Q

tinnitus

A

ringing in the ear

555
Q

tonometry

A

procedure used to detect glaucoma

556
Q

visual acuity test

A

standard eye test

557
Q

audiometry

A

test that measures hearing acuity at various frequencies

558
Q

otoscopy

A

visual exam of the external auditory canal and ear drum

559
Q

Rinne Test

A

Hearing test performed with a vibrating tuning fork

560
Q

radi/o

A

radiation, xray; radius lower arm bone, thumside)

561
Q

ankyl/o

A

stiffness, bent crooked

562
Q

arthr/o

A

joint

563
Q

chondr/o

A

cartilage

564
Q

lamin/o

A

lamina

565
Q

myel/o

A

bone marrow

566
Q

orth/o

A

straight

567
Q

physis

A

growth

568
Q

HNP

A

herniated nucleus pulposus

569
Q

muscular dystrophy

A

group of hereditary diseases characterized by gradual atrophy and weakness of muscle tissue

570
Q

myasthenia gravis MG

A

autoimmune neuromuscular disorder characterized by severe muscular weakness and progressive fatigue

571
Q

rotator cuff injuries

A

injuries to the capsule of the shoulder joint which is reinforced by muscles and tendons

572
Q

sprain

A

trauma to ta joint that causes injury to the surrounding ligament accompanied by pain and disability

573
Q

strain

A

trauma to a muscle from over use or excessive forcible stretch

574
Q

talipes equinovarus

A

congenital deformity of the food also called club foot

575
Q

torticollis

A

spasmodic contraction of the neck muscles causing stiffness and twisting of the neck, wryneck

576
Q

CTS carpal tunnel syndrome

A

pain or numbness resulting from compression of the medial nerve within the carpal tunnel

577
Q

contracture

A

fibroisis of connective tissue in the skin, fascia, muscle or joint capsule that prevents normal mobility of the related tissue or joint

578
Q

crepitation

A

grating sound made by the movement of bone ends rubbing together

579
Q

Ewing Sarcoma

A

malignant tumor that develops from bone marrow, usually in long bones or the pelvis

580
Q

gout

A

hereditary metabolic disease that is a form of acute arthritis, characterized by excessive uric acid in the blood and around the joints

581
Q

herniated disk

A

herniation or rupture of the nucleus pulposus between two vertebrae

582
Q

osteoporosis

A

decrease in bone density with an increase in porosity causing bones to become brittle and increasing the risk of fractures

583
Q

Paget Disease

A

skeletal disease affecting elderly people that causes chronic inflammation of bones, resulting in thickening and softening of bones and bowing of long bones

584
Q

RA

A

chronic systemic inflammatory disease affecting the synovial membranes of multiple joints

585
Q

subluxation

A

partial or complete disclocation

586
Q

sequestrum

A

fragment of a necrosed bone that has become separated from surrounding tissue

587
Q

ankylosing spondylitis

A

chronic inflammatory disease of unknown origin that firsts affects the spine and characterized by fusion and loss of mobility of two or more vertebrae

588
Q

kyphosis

A

increased curvature of the throacic region of the vertebral column, leading to ta humpback posture; also called hunchback

589
Q

lordosis

A

forward curature of the lumbar region, leads to swayback

590
Q

scoliosis

A

abnormal sideward curvature of the spine

591
Q

spondylolisthesis

A

partical forward dislocation of one vertebra over the one below it

592
Q

arthrocentesis

A

puncture of a joint space with a needle to remover fluid

593
Q

rheunmatoid factor

A

blood test to detect the presence of the rheumatiod factor

594
Q

arthroplasty

A

surgical reconstruction of a painful degenerated joint to restore movement

595
Q

blephar/o

A

eyelid

596
Q

conjuctive/o

A

conjuctiva

597
Q

choroid/o

A

choroid

598
Q

corne/o

A

cornea

599
Q

cor/o

A

pupil

600
Q

core/o

A

pupil

601
Q

dacry/o

A

tear, lacrimal apparatus

602
Q

dlacrim/o

A

tear, lacrimal apparatus

603
Q

dipl/o

A

double

604
Q

irid/o

A

iris

605
Q

kerat/o

A

horny tissue; hard; cornea

606
Q

ocul/o

A

eye

607
Q

ophthalm/o

A

eye

608
Q

opt/o

A

eye, vision

609
Q

retin/o

A

retina

610
Q

scler/o

A

hardening; sclera

611
Q

opia

A

vision

612
Q

opsia

A

vision

613
Q

-ptosis

A

prolapse, downward displacement

614
Q

-tropia

A

turning

615
Q

acous/o

A

hearing

616
Q

audi/o

A

hearing

617
Q

audit/o

A

hearing

618
Q

myring/o

A

tympanic membrane (ear drum)

619
Q

typman/0

A

ear drum

620
Q

ot/o

A

ear

621
Q

salping/o

A

tube

622
Q

-acusis

A

hearing

623
Q

achromatopsia

A

congenital deficiency in color preception/ color blindness

624
Q

astigmatism

A

defective curvature of the cornea and lens

625
Q

cataract

A

degenerative disease in which the lens of the eye becomes progressively cloudy

626
Q

conjunctiveitis

A

inflammation of the conjunctiva that can be cause by bacteria, allergy, irritation or a foreign body; pinkeye

627
Q

diabetic retinopathy

A

retinal damage marked by aneurysmal dilation and bleeding of blood vessels or the formation of new blood vessels causing visual changes.

628
Q

glaucoma

A

condition in which the aqueous humor fails to drain and accumulates in the anterior chamber of the eye causing evlevated pressure

629
Q

hordeloum

A

small purulent inflammatory infection of a sebacceous gland of the eyelid; sty

630
Q

macular degeneration

A

breakdown of the tissues in the macula, resuling in a loss of central vision

631
Q

photophobia

A

unusual intolerance and sensitivity to light

632
Q

retinal detachment

A

separation of the retina from the choroid which disrupts vision and results in blindness if not repaired

633
Q

strabismus

A

muscular eye disorder in which the eyes turn from the normal position so that they can deviate in different directions

634
Q

acoustic neuroma

A

benign tumor that develops from the 8th CN and grows within the auditory canal

635
Q

hearing loss

A

decreased ability to perceive sounds compared to what the individual or examiner would regard as normal

636
Q

Meniere Disease

A

rare disorder of unknown etiology within the labyrinth of the inner ear that can lead to a progressive loss of hearing

637
Q

Otitis media (OM)

A

inflammation of the middle ear

638
Q

otosclerosis

A

progressive deafness due to ossification in the bony labyrinth of the inner ear

639
Q

presbycusis

A

impairment of hearing that results from the aging process

640
Q

tonometry

A

procedure used to detect glaucoma

641
Q

visual acuity test

A

standard eye test

642
Q

audiometry

A

test that measures hearing acuity at various frequencies

643
Q

otoscopy

A

visual exam of the external auditory canal and ear drum

644
Q

Rinne Test

A

Hearing test performed with a vibrating tuning fork