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PMK > Navy CPO 1,2 > Flashcards

Navy CPO 1,2 Flashcards

1
Q

When was the first time Congress
passed legislation to purchase
arm naval vessels?

A

Oct 13 1775

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2
Q

Which, if any, of the following

factors defines naval presence?

A

Having a naval force in a

specific location

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3
Q

Deployments place naval forces in
position for which of the following
purposes?

A 
1. To provide protection and
support to Allied Forces in
time of war
2. To stop the advance of the
enemy as soon as possible
3. To engage the enemy promptly at
the start of hostilities
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4
Q

What requirement must U.S. naval
forces reflect to be effective in a
presence role?

A

Ready combat capability to

respond to any threat

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5
Q

Which of the following
responsibilities belongs to the
Navy during wartime?

A
  1. Functioning in a hostile
    environment
  2. Power projection
  3. Sea control
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6
Q

Sea control means having
simultaneous control over the
world’s international waters.

A

false

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7
Q

What basic military function
provides U.S. forces with the
ability to conduct sustained
operations abroad?

A

Sea control

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8
Q

Denying the enemy the ability to
advance close enough to use weapons
is called

A

sea control

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9
Q

An essential element of power
projection is identified by which
of the following requirements?

A

Amphibious ships

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10
Q

The use of fleet ballistic missile
submarines to provide a nuclear
strike is an example of sea
c o n t r o l .

A

false

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11
Q

The unrestricted global mobility of
naval forces is based on which of
the following items?

A

tradition

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12
Q

The Soviets restrict their naval
power projection to the waters
around the Soviet Union and the
East Coast of the United States

A

true

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13
Q

The German navy has upgraded NATO’s
air defense through the purchase of
which of the following aircraft?

A

F-104

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14
Q

Who is responsible for NATO’s
offensive and defensive capability
in the Norwegian and Mediterranean
Seas?

A

SACLANT

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15
Q

Which of the following areas of

responsibility belongs to NATO?

A

AFCENT

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16
Q

Which of the following areas of
responsibility is a Soviet theater
of operation?

A
  1. Northwestern TVD
  2. Southern TVD
  3. Western TVD
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17
Q

Why are the Soviets conducting a
long–range strategic nuclear
modernization program?

A

To comply with expected future
strategic arms reduction treaty
constraints

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18
Q

Which of the following choke points
is NOT applicable to Soviet ships
deploying from Severodvinsk?

A

Turkish Straits

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19
Q

The Soviet Black Sea Fleet could be
contained by sinking a ship in
which of the following choke
points?

A

Turkish Straits

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20
Q

Which of the following cities is
the home port of the Soviet Black
Sea Fleet?

A

Sevastopol

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21
Q

What is the primary mission of the

Soviet navy?

A

To provide support for Soviet

land–based forces

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22
Q

The bulk of Soviet naval air power
is derived by which of the
following methods of providing air
power?

A

Land–based aircraft

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23
Q

Which of the following Soviet

fleets contain aircraft carriers?

A

Pacific ocean fleet

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24
Q

Which of the following Soviet
fleets does NOT contain fleet
ballistic missile submarines?

A

Black Sea Fleet

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25
Q

Approximately 10 percent of the
world’s sea trade passes through
the Suez Canal at which of the
following points

A

Babel Mandeb

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26
Q

Persian Gulf states are building
overland oil–pipe routes to lessen
the importance of the Israeli
controlled Suez Canal.

A

false

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27
Q

USCENTCOM naval forces in the
Middle East and Southwest Asia are
under which of the following
commands?

A

Commander Sixth Fleet

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28
Q

Which, if any, of the following
statements describes why Africa is
strategically important to western
nations?

A 
1. It is very suitable for weapons
testing because large areas of
land are uninhabited
2. It has port facilities suitable
for naval bases
3. It has a wealth of natural
resources
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29
Q

Operation El Dorado involved which

of the following countries?

A

United States and Libya

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30
Q

The U.S. could lose Philippine
bases for which of the following
reasons?

A

The leases must be periodically
renegotiated with the
Philippine government

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31
Q

Which of the following factors
contribute(s) to deterrence in the
Pacific and East Asian regions?

A
  1. Bilateral defense treaties
  2. Weapons technology
  3. PACOM forces
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32
Q

Which of the following countries is
NOT working toward acquiring
nuclear weapons capability?

A

france

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33
Q

Which of the following countries
was a joint partner with Israel in
developing nuclear weapons?

A

Soviet Union

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34
Q

What country(ies) conducted
preemptive strikes against an Iraqi
nuclear reactor?

A

Iran

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35
Q 
Which of the following arms
reduction talks resulted in an
antiballistic missile treaty
between the U.S. and the Soviet
Union?
A

SALT II

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36
Q

In arms reduction talks, the U.S.
will try to limit which of the
following items?

A

American–Soviet competition in

strategic nuclear forces

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37
Q

In the event of a nuclear war
between the U.S. and the Soviet
Union, what is the primary mission
of the Soviet navy?

A

To conduct nuclear strikes from
SSBNs operating in protected
waters

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38
Q

How far from the Soviet mainland do
the Soviet sea denial zones usually
extend?

A

2,000 kilometers

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39
Q

U.S national security is based on
deterrence, propositioning of
f o r c e s , and creating sea denial
zones.

A

false

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40
Q

How many diesel submarines, if any,
does the U.S. Navy maintain in
active service?

A

none

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41
Q

The U.S. submarine force includes
which of the following attack
submarine classes?

A

permit

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42
Q

Which of the following weapons
platforms do the Soviets use as
their primary platform for
conducting naval warfare?

A

Submarines

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43
Q

When compared to the U.S., the
Soviet submarine force has what
size and effectiveness?

A

Larger size, less effective

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44
Q

Which of the following types of
Soviet submarines carries cruise
missiles as a primary weapon?

A

SSGN

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45
Q

What is the principle weakness of

the Soviet navy?

A

A very low priority in
providing underway
replenishment

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46
Q 
What is the newest class of Soviet
aircraft carrier?
A

tbilisi

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47
Q

What stance does the U.S. take on

chemical and biological weapons?

A

We will do all we can to

prevent their use

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48
Q

Which of the following nerve agents
is most likely to be produced by a
third world country?

A

GA

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49
Q

Countries with known or suspected
chemical weapons capabilities
include which of the following
Middle Eastern countries?

A

Egypt, Iran, Syria, Libya,

I s r a e l , and Iraq

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50
Q

The United States supported Iraq

during the Iran-Iraq War.

A

true

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51
Q

The job of the U.S. Navy in the
Persian Gulf, from 1987 to 1988, is
best described by which of the
following statements?

A

The primary mission was to
ensure freedom of passage to
oil tankers

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52
Q

Which of the following countries
could be the United States most
formidable opponent in the Middle
East?

A

syria

53
Q

Which of the following countries
claims to be the victim of numerous
Iraqi chemical attacks?

A

iran

54
Q

Which of the following countries is
known to have stockpiles of Soviet
SS-1 missiles?

A

iraq

55
Q

The chemical agent distilled
mustard, HD, belongs to which of
the following families of agents?

A

blister

56
Q

The chemical agent diphosgene, DP,
belongs to which of the following
families of agents?

A

choking

57
Q

The chemical agent cyanogen
c h l o r i d e , CK, belongs to which of
the following families of agents?

A

blood

58
Q

VX belongs to what family of agents

A

nerve

59
Q

this chemical has a dark yellow apperance

A

Mustard–Lewisite, HL

60
Q

country capable of producing
organophosphorus pesticides can
produce which of the following
chemical agents?

A

Tabun

61
Q

Oghab is a version of which of

following weapons?

A

Chinese Type 53 artillery

rocket

62
Q

Which of the following countries is
thought to have nuclear weapons in
its arsenal?

A

I s r a e l

63
Q 
The Jerico 2 missile is a (a) type
with a (b) range
A

(a) Mobile (b) 1,500 kilometer

64
Q

When assigned as the preliminary
inquiry officer, you will usually
investigate which of the following
offenses?

A

Offenses under investigation by

a fact finding body

65
Q

The legal officer uses what part of
the Manual for Courts–Martial, 1984
in preparing a report chit?

A

Part IV

66
Q

The accused is informed of his or
her rights under which of the
following articles?

A

A r t i c l e 3 1 ( b ) o f t h e U n i f o r m

Code of Military Justice

67
Q

When serving as the preliminary
investigation officer, you should
remain impartial.

A

true

68
Q

What source of information provides

the best facts about the accused?

A

Supervisors and peers of the

accused

69
Q

Who has the greatest motive for

lying or distorting the truth?

A

accused, if guilty

70
Q

copy of the Ship’s Organization
and Regulations Manual (SORM) is considered
to be what type of evidence?

A

Documentary evidence

71
Q

The preliminary investigation
officer should conduct an interview
with the accused at which of the
following times?

A

After the accused has been
advised of article 31(b) of the
UCMJ and makes a waiver of
rights

72
Q

The United States Coast Guard is
assigned to the Navy at which of the
following times?

A
  1. Upon declaration of war

2. When directed by the president

73
Q

What is the primary regulatory

document of the Navy?

A

U.S. Navy Regulations

74
Q

Chapter 8 of U.S. Navy Regulations,
1990, applies to which of the
following people?

A

Commanding officers

75
Q 
Which of the following chapters of
U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990,
outlines the actions of U.S. naval
forces when in the vicinity of other
armed forces?
A

The Senior Officer Present

76
Q

Which chapter in U.S. Navy
Regulations, 1990, provides
information on detailing officers
and enlisted persons?

A

Precedence, Authority and

Command

77
Q 
The articles specifically enumerated
in article 137 of the Uniform Code
of Military Justice should be
explained to each enlisted person at
which of the following times?
A

After completion of six months

active duty

78
Q

Which of the following publications
is NOT required to be made available
to any person on active duty?

A

Pay and Personnel Procedures

Manual

79
Q

Which of the following statements
concerning the exercise of authority
is true?

A 
A second class petty officer on
active duty, capable of
discharging all duties may
exercise authority over all
subordinate personnel
80
Q 
When an enlisted person receives an
order that conflicts with a
previously received order, which of
the following actions should that
person take?
A

Obey the last order

81
Q

Which of the following officers
would have authority over all
persons embarked in a boat?

A

A Chief Warrant Boatswain

82
Q 
The department head assigns a job to
a chief. The chief is busy and
assigns the job to the leading petty
officer (LPO). The LPO forgets
about the job and goes on liberty.
Who was responsible for completing
the job?
A

The chief only

83
Q

A sentry would NOT have authority
over which, if any, of the following
persons on his or her post?

A

none

84
Q

When, i f e v e r , may a junior person
give an order to an officer who is
senior to him or her?

A

When the junior is an executive
officer executing an order of
the commanding officer

85
Q

When may an officer accept money

from an enlisted person?

A

When the officer has sold an
item of personal property to the
enlisted person

86
Q

A chief petty officer loans money to
another chief petty officer. What,
if any, is the maximum interest rate
that can be charged?

A

18%

87
Q

Which of the following persons may
inspect your record held by the
Chief of Naval Personnel?

A
  1. You

2. Your designated agent

88
Q

Which of the following Navy
personnel are required to report all
offenses to proper authority?

A
  1. Officers
    2 . Petty officers
  2. Nonrated personnel
89
Q

If you believe one of your personnel
has a communicable disease, who
should you report it to?

A

The command’s medical

representative

90
Q

Which, if any, of the following
statements concerning exchange of
duty is correct?

A 
You and the other person should
prepare a special request chit
requesting an exchange of duty
and route it throuqh proper
authority
91
Q

Which of the following statements
concerning Navy examinations is
correct?

A

none

92
Q 
Normally, a person in the Navy may
communicate with a member of
Congress with no restrictions.
However, should the service member,
in an official capacity, desire
congressional action of any type, he
or she must
A

inform the Secretary of the Navy
of the intention to communicate
and receive the former’s consent
to proceed

93
Q

A person may be denied the right to
communicate with a member of
Congress under which, if any, of the
following conditions?

A

When the communication would

violate security regulations

94
Q

When a request is not approved or
recommended, you should state the
reason on the request.

A

true

95
Q 
Meals served in the general mess are
sampled regularly by an officer
detailed by the commanding officer.
What course of action should the
officer take if discrepancies are
discovered?
A

Notify the commanding officer

96
Q

In which of the following
publications would you find the
definition for unity of command?

A

Standard Organization and

Regulations of the U.S. Navy

97
Q

Which of the following statements
concerning extra military
instruction (EMI) is true?

A

Only the commanding officer has

the authority to assign EMI

98
Q

Which, i f any, of the following
privileges can you, as a chief petty
o f f i c e r , withhold from your
subordinates?

A

none of these (Special liberty
2 . Exchange of duty
3. Special services events)

99
Q 
You are required to have your ship
ready to get underway in the
morning. I t is nearing liberty call
and most of the work has not been
accomplished. Which of the
following administrative actions
should you apply?
A

Extension of working hours

100
Q

You have a basic responsibility to
recognize initiative and exemplary
performance of your subordinates.

A

true

101
Q

Which, i f any, of the following
chapters in the SORN contain
organizational requirements for
aviation units?

A

Standard unit organization

102
Q 
You are a work center supervisor and
would like to find out what your
LCPO responsibilities consist of.
Which, i f any, of the following
chapters in the SORN would provide
guidance?
A

The unit organization

103
Q

Which of the following chapters in
the SORN should the departmental
duty officer review?

A

2 . The unit organization

3. Watch organization

104
Q

A person departing on leave must
possess which of the following
documents?

A
  1. Properly validated leave papers
    and ID card
  2. Armed forces liberty pass
105
Q

Without proper authority, a person
shall not remove which of the
following items from the regular
place of stowage or location?

A
  1. First–aid equipment
  2. Stores and foodstuffs
  3. Hull and damage control fittings
106
Q

Which of following statements is NOT

true concerning berthing?

A

You may turn on white lights in
berthing any time you want
between reveille and taps

107
Q

You pass the ship’s library after
taps and notice some Sailors playing
monopoly. Which of the following
actions should you take?

A

Remind the Sailors it is against
regulations to engage in games
of any type after taps and
ensure they quit

108
Q

While in a liberty status aboard
ship, you may wear civilian clothes
while dining in the crew’s mess.

A

true

109
Q 
Aboard ship mess gear is often found
in the work center. By regulation,
which of the following persons
is/are charged with ensuring the
mess gear is immediately returned to the mess decks
A

The senior petty officer in

charge of the space

110
Q

Which of the following statements
concerning uniforms and clothing is
true?

A

No names or marks may be placed
on foul weather clothing except
the number prescribed for
official designation

111
Q

Each person is responsible for
keeping his or her locker locked at
all times

A

true

112
Q

You may bring your personal camera
aboard ship without first obtaining
permission

A

false

113
Q

Which of the following statements
is/are applicable to the plan of the
day?

A 
1. It will be posted on division
bulletin boards
2. In port, it will be read at
quarters
3. It will be published daily by
the XO
114
Q

The use of profane, obscene, or
vulgar words or gestures aboard
naval units is an accepted practice
and doesn’t violate any regulations.

A

false

115
Q

Chapter 7 of the SORN covers which

of the following topics?

A

Safety

116
Q

What chapter in the SORN covers
guidelines for establishing
operational bills?

A

Unit Bills

117
Q

What is the equal right of

jurisdiction called?

A

Concurrent jurisdiction

118
Q

When a military member is tried in a
U.S. court, the military will pay
the attorney fees and court cost.

A

true

119
Q

American troops are stationed in
Europe for which of the following
reasons

A

To recognize the need for

collective strength

120
Q

Status of Forces Agreements only
apply to active duty military
personnel.

A

false

121
Q

Status of Forces Agreements are a
package of which of the following
agreements

A
  1. Treaties
    2 . Protocol agreements
  2. Executive agreements
122
Q

What is the primary purpose of the

Status of Forces Agreements?

A

To allow the host country
jurisdiction over foreign
personnel

123
Q

You are stationed aboard a ship in a
foreign port. When are you exempt
from prosecution by local
authorities?

A

When you come back aboard after
going on liberty
2 . When ashore on official business

124
Q

Experience has shown that sentences
imposed by foreign courts on U.S.
service members are unusually harsh.

A

false

125
Q

Which of the following privileges
are allowed. under SOFA, by special
consent of the host country?

A
  1. Use of a U.S. driver’s license
  2. Waiver of taxes or import duty
    on household goods
  3. Entering and leaving the country
    on military orders
126
Q

Which of the following topics are

generally covered by SOFAs?

A
  1. Freedom of troop movement

2 . Exchange privileges

127
Q

When did countries first recognize
the need to develop Status of Forces
Agreements?

A

During World War II

128
Q

Our Allies want us to remove our

troops from Europe.

A

false

PMK (2 decks)

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