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ET VOL > ET Vol 4 > Flashcards

ET Vol 4 Flashcards

1
Q

On an AO class ship, what radar is used as the primary surface search and navigation radar?

A
  1. AN/SPS-67(V)1 5450-5825 mhz, prf 75-, 1200,2400 ddg-51
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2
Q

Which of the following radars replaces a variety of small commercial radars?

A

AN/SPS-64(V)9, min dectect 40yrds, 3ft above water, 2d nav surface surce

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3
Q

Which of the following radars was developed to detect small surface targets from a range of 50 yards to the radar horizon?

A

. AN/SPS-55 MAX 50 NAUTICAL MILES

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4
Q

A technician must have formal training to work on which of the following equipments,

A

NONE

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5
Q

If you were unable to isolate a fault in your radar system, you could request assistance from which of the following sources?

A
  1. NAVSEACEN 2. MOTU 3. A tender
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6
Q

Which of the following radars performs navigation, station keeping, and general surface search functions on the DDG 51 class ship?

A

AN/SPS-67(V)3

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7
Q

An AN/SPS-67(V) radar operating in a short pulse mode will have what pulse repetition frequency?

A

2400

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8
Q

what are the pulse repetition freqs for sps-67

A
  1. Long 750 2. Meduim 1200 .25%sec 3. Short 2400 110%
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9
Q

The AN/SPS-10 antenna and pedestal assembly on your ship has just been replaced with a low-profile, nuclear-survivable antenna assembly. What new radar has been installed?

A

AN/SPS-67(V)3

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10
Q

At which unit of an AN/SPS-67(V) will the dummy load be mounted?

A

Receiver-transmitter unit

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11
Q

The AN/SPS-67(V)1 radar will NOT interface with which of the following systems?

A

AN/USQ-82(V)

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12
Q

Use of BIT circuitry in the AN/SPS–67(V) radar will have which of the following results?

A

It will locate 95% of failures to four possible modules within the receiver– transmitter and video processor

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13
Q

What Navy Enlisted Classification code, if any, applies to the AN/SPS–64(V)9 radar?

A

none

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14
Q

Which of the following information/support is available for the AN/SPS–64(V)9 technician?

A

Formal maintenance training

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15
Q

A radar video converter (RVC) modification of the AN/SPS–55 was developed for which class of ship

A

FFG–61

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16
Q

Which of the following missions is NOT supported by the AN/SPS–55 radar?

A

AAN

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17
Q

The AN/SPS–55 radar, without any modifications, will interface with which of the following systems?

A

AN/SLA–10

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18
Q

An operating AN/SPS–55 radar (NEC=1504) goes into standby mode and an indicator is activated at the RSC. What is the probable cause?

A

The magnetron has exceeded safe operating parameters

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19
Q

What is the primary function of an AN/SPS–49(V) radar?

A

Support AAW

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20
Q

Which of the following functions is/are collateral to the AN/SPS-49(V) radar’s primary function?

A
  1. ATC Air Traffics Control 2. AIC Air Intercept Control 3.ASAS Antisubmarine Aircraft Control
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21
Q

You are on an AEGIS cruiser and your 2D air search radar has been modified to have a direct digital interface with the AEGIS combat system. What is the nomenclature of your radar after the modification is complete?

A

AN/SPS–49(V)8

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22
Q

The AN/SPS–49(V) radar has how many variant configurations?

A

9 but 7 major units

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23
Q

If the AN/SPS–49(V) radar on your ship has ATD and no cooling system, which variant configuration is installed?

A

(V) 8

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24
Q

Which of the following variant configurations of the AN/SPS-49(V) radar interface(s) with the AN/SYS–2(V) IADT system?

A

(V)7

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25
Q

Which of the following Navy Enlisted Classification codes applies to the AN/SPS–49(V)1, (V)2, (V)3, (V)4, and (V)6 radars?

A

1503

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26
Q

Which of the following Navy Enlisted Classification codes applies to the AN/SPS–49(V) 5,7,8,9

A

1510

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27
Q

The AN/SPS–40B/C/D/E radar operates at what antenna rate for (a) high data rate capabilities and (b) long-range mode?

A

(a) 15 rpm (b) 7.5 rpm

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28
Q

What Navy Enlisted Classification code applies to the AN/SPS–40B/C/D radar with field change 11?

A

1511

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29
Q

How often will antenna and pedestal restoration be performed on the AN/SPS–40B/C/D/E radar?

A

Every 10–15 years

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30
Q

The AN/GPN–27 radar antenna group provides constant radiation altitude coverage of how many degrees above the peak of the beam?

A

30 degrees

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31
Q

In the AN/GPN–27, which of the following video signals are provided to the processor unit by the receiver?

A
  1. Normal video 2. Log video 3. Moving target indicator video
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32
Q

Which of the intercommunication system stations are located in the transmitter building group of the AN/GPN–27 radar?

A

One master station and one slave station

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33
Q

Where is the 16–inch maintenance ppi for the AN/GPN–27 located?

A

Transmitter building

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34
Q

The operator of which type of radar is able to control the antenna when searching in a target sector?

A

3D air search

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35
Q

Which of the following statements describes the radiated frequency of a 3D air search radar during electronic scanning?

A

It changes in discrete steps at each elevation angle

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36
Q

Which of the following radars is a Precision Approach Landing System (PALS)?

A

AN/SPN–46(V)

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37
Q

Which of the following systems iss installed at naval air stations for PALS training of flight crews, operators, and maintenance personnel

A

AN/SPN–46(V)2

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38
Q

How many aircraft can the AN/SPN–46(V) control simul– taneously and automatically during the final approach and landing phase of carrier recovery operations?

A

2

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39
Q

In which mode(s) of operation does the AN/SPN-46(V) transmit command and error signals via Link 4A for automatic control?

A

MODE 1

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40
Q

In which mode(s) of operation does the AN/SPN-46(V) provide manual control of the aircraft?

A

Mode 2 and 3

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41
Q

During Mode II operation of the AN/SPN–46(V), the pilot receives command and error information via what medium?

A

Cockpit display

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42
Q

Which of the 26 units in the AN/SPN–46(V)1 is/are not used by the AN/SPN-46(V)2?

A

MK 16 stable elements (units 17 and 18)

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43
Q

Which unit of the AN/SPN–46(V) automatically switches the AN/TPX–42(V)8 into a master computer configuration of the CCS?

A

Central computer group (unit 12)

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44
Q

Which unit of the AN/SPN-46(V) provides a maintenance intercom for troubleshooting purposes?

A

PRI-FLI indicator control (unit 5)

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45
Q

Which of the following units of the AN/SPN–46(V) is NOT designed to test the system or to aid in troubleshooting?

A

MLV (unit 13)

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46
Q

Of the following radars, which would be used at a naval air station to replace the PAR portion of the AN/CPN–4 family of equipment?

A

1.AN/FPN-63(V) 2.AN/MPN–23(V)

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47
Q

Which of the following items are generated by the AZ–EL range indicator of the AN/FPN–63(V)?

A
  1. Cursors 2. Range marks 3. Internal map
48
Q

Which of the following radar repeaters, if any, has range–only capability?

A

A scope

49
Q

Which of the following inputs is/are required for a radar repeater to be able to display a detected target at the correct range and bearing?

A
  1. Video 2. Triqger 3. Antenna position
50
Q

A printed–circuit board in the CV–3989/SP Signal Data Converter is faulty. The replacement value of the PCB is $627.00. Who, if anyone, will repair the PCB?

A

Depot level maintenance personnel ($500 or more)

51
Q

The electronic bearing circle displayed around the AN/SPA–25G has bearing markers labeled numerically at what points?

A

Every 10°

52
Q

The AN/SPA-25G will interface with which of the following systems?

A

Any Navy air search radar system . Any Navy surface search radar system (any search)

53
Q

The CV–3989/SP provides a RADDS data stream containing which of the following data?

A
  1. Ship’s heading 2. Stabilized radar antenna azimuth 3. Dead–reckoning information
54
Q

The SB/4229/SP Switchboard can accept many signal inputs. Which of the following statements is most correct about its input capabilities?

A

It can accept aignals from 16 radar sets and 5 interrogator sets

55
Q

SB-4229/SP can accept RADDS data stream inputs from how many separate signal data converters?

A

16

56
Q

A total of how many different operators can select input sensors from the SB-4229/SP for display at their indicator?

A

9

57
Q

Which of the following radar indicators is used to obtain altitude information?

A

RHI range height indicator

58
Q

On an rhi, which of the following is an indication of a target?

A

A vertical blip

59
Q

How do you determine the target height when using an rhi?

A

Adjust height line; then read it from the altitude counters

60
Q

You are on an NTDS–equipped ship. What function, if any, does the AN/SPA-25G perform

A

Backup radar indicator

61
Q

Which radar repeater is used primarily by maintenance personnel to evaluate the operation of a radar?

A

A-scope

62
Q

Which of the following radar display and distribution system configurations will be found on 90% of Navy ships?

A

AN/SPA–25G, CV–3989/SP, SB–4229/SP

63
Q

Of the following information, which could be provided by modern IFF systems?

A
  1. Mission of the target 2. What squadron the target belongs to 3. The altitude of an aircraft (side number)?
64
Q

What are the three basic steps of the IFF identification process

A

Challenge, reply, and recognition

65
Q

The spacing between IFF interrogation pulse pairs is determined by which of the following factors?

A

Mode of IFF operation

66
Q

When you use IFF, a dashed line just beyond the target on your radar screen indicates which of the following craft?

A

A friendly craft

67
Q

The Mark XII IFF aystem is capable of how many modes of operation?

A

5

68
Q

Which IFF unit provides the control signals that determine the MK XII mode of operation?

A

Video decoder

69
Q

Which of the following modes of IFF operation is NOT a selective identification feature (SIF) mode?

A

C

70
Q

The transponder of a pilotless aircraft, responding to a SIF mode interrogation, would send which of the following replies?

A

X-pulse

71
Q

Which of the following codes could be selected as an IFF transponder reply code for mode 1 operation?

A

4300 (first 0-7) (second 0-3) (remaining 2 digits 0’s)

72
Q

A major failure in your radio room has knocked your communications off the air. Which of the following codes should you set in the IFF transponder for mode 3/A replies?

A

7600

73
Q

What reply code in IFF is 7700?

A

civilian emergency

74
Q

what reply code in IFF is 7777?

A

interceptors on active ait defense missions

75
Q

what reply code in 3/A mode withh trigger FAA towers?

A

7500,7600,7700,7777

76
Q

Which of the following IFF mode 3/A reply codes may your ship use in U.S. national air space?

A

5011, (50XX, 54XX,61XX,64XX

77
Q

Which of the following IFF mode C reply codes will your ship use?

A

0000

78
Q

A commercial airliner using TCAS could mistake your ship’s IFF mode C reply for which of the following structures?

A

A small aircraft flying at about 10,000 feet

79
Q

general aircaft fly below how many feet

A

12,500?

80
Q

Under which of the following circumstances may you operate IFF in mode C when your ship is in or near port?

A

When testing with the antenna disconnected

81
Q

The MK XII IFF system requires triggers to initiate interro– gations. Where do they come from?

A

The pulse generator of the IFF interrogator

82
Q

You would find direct altitude readouts for IFF mode C replies on which of the following displays?

A

Intratarget data indicator

83
Q

All the indicators on your ship that are interfaced with IFF have ring-around. Which of the following places will the problem most likely be found?

A

Primary radar antenna

84
Q

The antenna pedestal assembly is being rotated at 21 rpm. To what mode of operation is your IFF manual pedestal set?

A

Slave (2-30 rpm)

85
Q

What are the different Mode of operations for the manual pedestal set?

A
  1. Free-Run (15RPM) 2.Slave(2-30RPM) 3.Manual (any Azimuth)
86
Q

Which of the following modes of IFF operation does/do NOT require that reply codes be set by thumbwheel switches?

A

4

87
Q

You would need written permission from the Skipper to work on which of the following units without formal training?

A

KIT–1A/TSEC, ,KIR-1,KIK-18

88
Q

Which of the following agencies is/are involved in agreements made under the AIMS program?

A
  1. The Air Force 2. The Navy 3. The FAA
89
Q

You are at a shore installation and your DAIR system alarms when the target strays ±300 feet from the controller–assigned altitude. What type of DAIR system do you have?

A

type-10 radar

90
Q

What are the different types of DAIR(direst altitude and identify readout)

A

Type 8 CArrier Type 10 Radar Type 12 Amphibous

91
Q

A controller using a CATCC DAIR system has which of the following information available at his/her console?

A
  1. Flight identity 2. Flight altitude 3. Ship’s barometric pressure
92
Q

As an aircraft leaves the CATCC controller’s area of respon– sibility, it is passed to which of the following controllers?

A
  1. Another CATCC control position 2. CIC 3. ACLS/PALS
93
Q

Which type of DAIR system would be used for amphibious operations?

A

Type 12

94
Q

Each DAIR system provides information to allow control of aircraft within a given area. Which type has a responsibility area of 50 nautical miles surrounding the ship?

A

Type 8 catcc pair cv18

95
Q

Which type of DAIR system has the AOA as its responsibility area?

A

Type 12 AATC (V)12

96
Q

On board your carrier you have just updated your AN/TPX–42A(V)8 to a (V)12. Which additional system can now interface with your DAIR?

A

ITAWDS (Integrated Tactical Amphibous Warfare Data System) SDMS(Shipboard Data Muliplex System)

97
Q

A technician trained to maintain a RATCF DAIR system will have what NEC?

A

ET-1578

98
Q

A technician trained to maintain an AIMS Mk XII IFF system will have what NEC?

A

ET–1572

99
Q

A technician trained to maintain an AATC DAIR system will have what NEC?

A

ET-1576

100
Q

Which of the following systems, if any, integrates other systems and subsystems to perform detection and entry functions?

A

NTDS(Naval Tactical Data Systems)

101
Q

What are combat system functions controlled by NTDS?

A
  1. Tracking and identification 2. Threat evaluation and weapon assignment 3. Engagement and engagement assessment
102
Q

As an ET you are responsible for maintenance on which of the following NTDS-related equipment?

A

Video and sync amps, Radar, Antenna, Radar Switch Boards

103
Q

What publication, if any, provides information on radar and NTDS as an integrated system on your ship?

A

CSTOM Combat Systems Technical Operation Manual

104
Q

The Combat Systems Technical Operations Manual provides information required to take which of the following actions?

A
  1. Define the limitations of the NTDS system 2. Operate the NTDS system 3. Maintain the material readiness of the NTDS system
105
Q

Which of the following are CRT safety hazards?

A
  1. Violent implosion if broken 2. Toxic phosphor coating 3. Very high voltage
106
Q

what are the electrical safety rubber gloves ratings?

A

Class 0 (750 Watts) Class I (3000 watts) Class II (4000 Watts) Class III (5000 watts)

107
Q

In which section of the tag-out log would you place a tag-out record sheet that has been cleared after completion of radar PMS

A

section 5

108
Q

RADHAZ labels indicate an RF electromagnetic field intense enough to do which of the following damage?

A
  1. Cause spark ignition of fuel 2. Produce harmful biological effects in humans 3. Actuate electroexplosive devices
109
Q

When you are in port, who must give you permission to test operate your radar system?

A

The supervisor in charge of operations

110
Q

Which of the following hazard conditions is most critical during a refueling operation?

A

HERF (Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Fuels)

111
Q

Which of the following hazard conditions is most critical when a person is working aloft?

A

HERP (Hazards of Electromagnetic Personal)

112
Q

Which of the following hazard conditions is most critical during an ammunition off–loading operation?

A

HERO (Hazards of Electromagnetic of Ordnance)

113
Q

What parameter(s) is/are used to determine safe limits associated with electronic equipment?

A
  1. Power density of the radiation beam 2. Exposure time of the human body
114
Q

Which of the following requirements pertain(s) to a safety observer for a technician working on energized equipment?

A
  1. Must be CPR qualified 2. Must know the location of all cut–off switches 3. Must have a nonconductive device to pull the technician from a circuit
115
Q

How often is the required PMS performed on a safety harness?

A

Each time it is used

ET VOL (7 decks)

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