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PANCE review > cardiology > Flashcards

cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

Acronym for etiology of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

ABCD-PIG

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2
Q

5 components tetralogy of fallot

A
  1. pulmonary valve stenosis
  2. VSD
  3. over riding aorta
  4. right ventricle hypertrophy
  5. right sided aortic arch
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3
Q

crescendo-decrescendo, with a loud S2, cyanosis

A

tetralogy fallot

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4
Q

when does tetralogy of fallot become a problem

A

when the PDA closes, 2-10 days

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5
Q

tx for neonate coarctation short term/long term

A

prostaglandins, in tropes, give as little o2 as possible. will need surgery

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6
Q

restriction for coarctation

A

exercise and watch for bacterial endocarditis

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7
Q

murmur for ASD

A

fixed split S2, rumble

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8
Q

most common ASD

A

ostium secundum

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9
Q

tx for ASD

A

most close on own, others will have to be closed surgically

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10
Q

VSD murmur

A

holosystolic or pansystolic

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11
Q

heart sound for CHF

A

parasternal lift, enlarged, diminished first heart sound, S2 gallop

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12
Q

Tx of CHF

A
  1. ACE !!!!! (will decrease after load and help renal perfusion) make it easier for weak heart to pump b/c resistance is decreased.
  2. ARB
  3. BB (decrease catecholamine levels, that predispose to arrythmias)
  4. Diuretics
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13
Q

best dx test for CHF

A

ECHO

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14
Q

patient with CHF and EJ is less than 35= tx?

A

Pacer

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15
Q

acute pulmonary edema /decompensated CHF

A
  1. decreased L ventricle contractility 2. increase preload, 3. increase after load (resistance)
    USE CPAP or BIPAP!!!!
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16
Q

Acute exacerbation of CHF acronym

A

LMNOP (lasix, morphine, nitro, oxygen and position (elevate head of bed)

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17
Q

cushing syndrome features

A

buffalo hump, hyper pigmentation of striated and hypertension!!

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18
Q

tx for patient with HTN and chronic kidney dz

A

ACE (renal protective) until GFR goes bad & creatinine is 2=stop HTN.

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19
Q

Tx for HTN emergency

A

Reduce MAP by 25% in the first couple of hours, then gradually reduce over 24 hours using IV labetolol, Nipride, and Nicardipine, enalaprilat

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20
Q

only exception of HTN emergency 24 hour rule?

A

aortic dissection

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21
Q

tx for atherosclerosis

A

stop smoking, control HTN, DM and dyslipidemia, reduce weight, exercise and diet

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22
Q

what is metabolic syndrome

A
  1. abdominal obesity
  2. triglycerides >150
  3. HDL 110
  4. HTN
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23
Q

length and tx of stable angina

A

3 minutes and relieved with nitro

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24
Q

EKG finding of stable angina

A

ST depression and nonspecific t wave changes

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25
Q

definitive dx procedure for ischemic heart dz

A

coronary angiography

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26
Q

What two medications should all stable angina patients be on?

A

Aspirin and BB (ACE or CCB) can also be used for blacks, DM and renal patients

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27
Q

What is dressers syndrome

A

post MI, pericarditis, fever, leukocytosis, and pleural effusion. usually occurs 1-2 weeks after the event

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28
Q

define STEMI

A

ST elevation >1mm in two contiguous leads

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29
Q

Posterior leads

A

V1, V2

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30
Q

AnteroLateral leads

A

V4, V5, V6

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31
Q

time frame for coronary angiography PCI

A

90 mins

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32
Q

time frame for thrombolytics

A

3 hours (some benefit up to 12)

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33
Q

absolute contraindication for thrombolytics

A

stroke in last 3 mont, hemorrhagic stroke ever, acute bleeding, brain cancer, trauma, suspected aortic dissection, major surgery in the last 3 weeks, prolonged CPR, DM retinopathy, prey, and active PUD

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34
Q

relative risk of thromolytics

A

Bp>180 and anticoagulants

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35
Q

causes of aortic aneurysm

A

atherosclerosis is the most common, syphilis, giant cell arteritis, trauma and marfans

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36
Q

dx study for abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

US

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37
Q

dx study for thoracic aortic aneurysm

A

CT or MRI

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38
Q

Leriche syndrome

A

erectile dysfunction (with clogged iliac arteries

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39
Q

gold standard to dx peripheral vascular dz

A

angiography, other tests doppler US, ABI

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40
Q

the six Ps may be part of the arterial problem, what are they?

A

Pallor, pain, pulselessness, parenthesis, poikilothermia and paralysis

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41
Q

tx of PAD

A

stop tobacco, control DM, HTN and hyperlipidemia, med=

BB, ACE, antiplatelets

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42
Q

tx for temporal art

A

1-2 month high prednisone steroids, taper and switch to aspirin

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43
Q

DVT is associated with

A

surgery, prolonged bed rest, oral contraceptives and inherited clotting disorder, most commonly =factor V Leiden

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44
Q

virchows triad

A

hypercoagbility, stasis, damage to the vein

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45
Q

what is S4

A

stiff as a board. Rushing blood against a hypertrophic, thick ventricle wall

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46
Q

are diastolic or systolic murmurs worse

A

diastolic are pathological murmurs

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47
Q

occurring during ventricle filling

A

diastolic murmurs

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48
Q

name the diastolic murmurs

A

mitral and triscupid stenosis and aortic/pulmonic regurg

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49
Q

what is S3

A

sack of beans, blood entering a dilated ventricle

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50
Q

Mitral stenosis

A

rumble, mid-diastolic holo

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51
Q

rheumatic fever should be linked to what murmur

A

mitral stenosis

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52
Q

widen pulse pressure, b/c blood is going back into the heart, early diasystolic decrescendo murmur

A

is aortic regurg.

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53
Q

most common valvular dz in the US?

A

Aortic stenosis

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54
Q

tx mitral stenosis

A

do not give fluids, do not give diuretics. GIVE med to help after load CCB, ACEI (prevent remodeling)
Ask the question why is valve stenosis?

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55
Q

Tx: Left sided endocarditis

A

give antibiotics

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56
Q

most frequency cause of mitral and aortic valve disorders

A

congential, rheumatic, connective tissue disorders, and infection

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57
Q

tx for aortic regurg?

A

surgery

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58
Q

murmur is described as “blowing”

A

regurgitation murmur

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59
Q

murmur is described as blowing and arterial pulses large and bounding

A

aortic regurg

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60
Q

unstable bradycardia–leading to hypotension tx with?

A

atropine and positive chronotropic: epi or dopamine

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61
Q

unstable tachy

A

Synchronized cardiovert and adenosine

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62
Q

SVT (first try)

A
  1. vagal
  2. adenosine
  3. synchronized cardiovert
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63
Q

a fib treatment

A

convert for instable pt.

stable pt if in a fib for more than 48 hour anticoagulant for 3-4 weeks. hour if risk of clot

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64
Q

medical management of rate control with afib

A

digoxin and amiodarone

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65
Q

chemical conversion of both aflutter and a fib use

A

ibutilide

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66
Q

treat for flutter

A

similar to fib, electro conversion or medical conversion

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67
Q

tx for V tach with hypotension or loss of consciousness

A

syn cardiovert, medical intervention includes amiodarone, lidocaine and procainamide

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68
Q

name the AV blocks

A

first (prolonged PR), second degree (mobitz one (prolonged until dropped) and two and complete 3rd degree block

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69
Q

explain 2 degree heart block type 2

A

rhythm is regular, but extra p’s are present not conducting QRS. The p interval is fixed.

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70
Q

osler nodes, janeway lesions, roth spots and splinter hemorrhage are associated with

A

Endocarditis

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71
Q

Dx endocarditis

A

2 sets of blood cultures 1 hour apart, and echo

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72
Q

top three bugs for endocarditis

A

strep viridan, staph aureus and enterococci

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73
Q

tx for endocarditis

A

gentamicin, vanco, rocephin

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74
Q

age range for mechanical vs. bioprostheses valve

A

younger than 65 get mechanical

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75
Q

do mechanical or bioprostheses valves need anticoagulants

A

mechanical The INR is 2.5-3.5 (they last longer too)

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76
Q

do patient’s with sustain v-tach have a better or worse survival rate after a CABG?

A

better, due to revascularization

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77
Q

type of fibrolytic that should not be given twice

A

streptokinanse (antibody build up)

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78
Q

both mitral and tricuspid regurg are blowing holosystolic murmurs, describe that difference in location?

A

tricuspid is best heard left of the sternal border and mitral is best heard at the apex and radiates to the axilla

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79
Q

what is the most common primary tumor that metastasizes to the heart?

A

malignant melanoma

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80
Q

What is Thromboangitis obliterans or Buerger dz?

A

inflammatory dz affecting the small and medium arteries of distal extremities. Common in Asian men and smokers. Venous insufficiency and ulcers are also commonly seen in the LE

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81
Q

prominent U waves on EKG

A

hypokalemia

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82
Q

J point elevation

A

hypothermia

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83
Q

medication that help PAD

A

cilostazol

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84
Q

best study to further investigate PVC after an EKG has been done?

A

electrophysiology study

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85
Q

what is the most efficient way to increase cardiac output?

A

increase heart rate

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86
Q

patients with grade 1 or 2 systolic murmur with no symptoms can be followed with

A

EKG and Chest x rays

87
Q

patient with diastolic murmur or greater than grade 2 systolic murmur or any grade + symptoms can be followed with

A

ECHO

88
Q

If a patient has anginal symptoms the best next step is…..

A

coronary arteriogram or dobutamine stress tests

89
Q

patient has profound bradycardia and tachycardia =SA node dysfunction, another name for this is?

A

tachybrady syndrome

90
Q

Goal for INR before cardioversion

A

1.8 for 3 weeks

91
Q

What dysrhythmia can amiodarone cause?

A

sinus bradycardia and AV block

92
Q

what dysrhythmia can digoxin cause

A

junctional rhythm

93
Q

what dysrhythmia can adenosine cause

A

afib

94
Q

name two drugs indicated to prevent recurrent v-tach

A

Sotalol and amiodarone

95
Q

what is a physiological S2 split?

A

the ventricles closing at different times

96
Q

a fixed S2 split is heard in patients with …

A

ASD

97
Q

a prolonged S2 spilt is heard in patients with

A

pulmonary embolus and pulmonary valve stenosis

98
Q

patient is on diuretic that is not potassium sparing, what heart arrhythmia can occur

A

ventricular (tachycardia)

99
Q

venous stasis ulcers are

A

painless and erythematous

100
Q

arterial ulcers are

A

painful and pallor

101
Q

what is the difference between a physiological and paradoxical S2 split

A

paradoxical occurs during expiration phase and is associated with LBBB

102
Q

’s the define orthostatic hypotension?

A

drop in 20mmHg systolic and 10mmHg diastolic

103
Q

medication that can be used to control the ventricular rate during rapid atrial fib

A

BB

104
Q

major side effects of amiodarone are

A

thyroid, photo dermatitis, liver, CNS

105
Q

What is flecainde?

A

A big GUN. It potently blocks sodium channel current in the myocardium and is used in life threatening V-tach and V-fib or in refactory SVT

106
Q

what age should you start screen for cholesterol

A

20

107
Q

3 best meds to prolong life after an MI?

A

bb, ace, and aspirin.

108
Q

what is preload

A

ventricular end diastolic volume, it is the pressure that fills the ventricle during diastole

109
Q

how do you decrease preload

A

dilate veins, which slows the return of blood from the veins (nitrates) or use diuretics

110
Q

how do you increase preload

A

add intravascular volume

111
Q

what is afterload

A

think arteries…the resistance that the heart faces during systole.

112
Q

meds that decrease afterload

A

arterial dilators: ACEI and hydralazine

113
Q

inspiration makes negative pressure in the intrathoracic, how does this affect right atrial and ventricle preloads?

A

inspiration=increased preload (less pressure for venous return to face means more blood to the heart)

114
Q

you dx pt with pheo and massive HTN, med to use?

A

phentolamine

115
Q

med for true HTN emergency (encephalopathy)

A

IV nitroprusside, IV esmolol, they drop BP dramatically and suddenly

116
Q

Hyperkalemia, Lyme dz, MI and lithium can all cause what heart problem

A

AV block

117
Q

what is ibutilide used for and what is a major SE?

A

to cardiovert out of a fib or flutter. SE is torsades de pointes

118
Q

tx for constrictive pericarditis

A

pericardiectomy

119
Q

pt presents with tachycardia, tachypnea, narrow pulse pressure, JVD and pulses paradoxes…you should think

A

cardiac tamponade

120
Q

Electrical alternans define, this isdpathognomonic for?

A

alternation of QRS complex amplitude or axis between beats and a possible wandering base-line. EFFUSION

121
Q

big difference between cardiac tamponade and right ventricle infarction?

A

only right ventricle will have Kussmaul

122
Q

one way to determine tx for pulmonary artery HTN is to do a vasodilator challenge, what med should be used if the PA pressure is reduced?

A

CCB-nifedipine

123
Q

if PAH doesn’t respond to vasodilators then what meds can be used?

A

bosentan, iloprost

124
Q

stage 1-4 heart disease

A 
class 1: symptoms but no affect on physical activity 
class 2: angina with activity
class 3 patients must limit activity due to angina
class 4 cannot carry on any physical activity
125
Q

A 70 year old female presents for a routine checkup. On physical exam you auscultate a murmur that radiates from the apex of the heart to the left axilla. Which heart murmur is most often associated with this description?

A

A murmur that radiates from the apex to the left axilla is consistent with mitral regurgitation.

126
Q

A 56 year old male with severe congestive heart failure is making modifications to his diet plan and asks you about sodium intake. Which of the following is the best advice to give this patient?

A

CHF patients should be counseled to limit their sodium intake to 2-3 grams or less to properly maintain fluid homeostasis.

127
Q

Although there may be many causes of hypertension, which of the following is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?

A

renal artery stenosis

128
Q

Which is more potent epi or Isoproterenol positively chronotropic agent?

A

Isoproterenol

129
Q

He states he has fatigue, shortness of breath, ankle swelling that gets worse during the day, and he sleeps on two pillows at night. He denies syncope or palpitations. Physical examination shows jugular venous distension, S3 gallop, hepatomegaly, and 2+ pitting edema of both legs and ankles. Left ventricular ejection fraction as determined by echocardiography is 35 percent. what Cardiomyopathy is suspected?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy may be defined as an ejection fraction of less than 40% in the presence of increased left ventricular dimension (left ventricular end-diastolic size more than 115% of that calculated for age and body surface area).

130
Q

Which of the following is the most important modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease in patients

A

smoking

131
Q

What heart rhythm abnormality can be caused by propranolol overdose?

A

AV block

132
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Amyloidosis

133
Q

Patients with a diagnosis of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus have a disposition toward acquiring which cardiac abnormality?

A

pericarditis

134
Q

What is the earliest sign or symptom of congestive heart failure?

A

Dyspnea on exertion

135
Q

are q waves always present in ST elevation MI?

A

no

136
Q

tachycardia is a regular, wide-QRS complex tachycardia with only one (“mono”) repeating QRS morphology.

A

monomorphic ventricular tachycardia

137
Q

ECG this morning shows inverted P-waves in the inferior leads. Which of the following would be this patient’s most likely rhythm?

A

When signals for the heart to contract originate from sources other than the SA node, the p-waves on ECG tend to be inverted. Inverted P-waves should make you think Junctional rhythm first.

138
Q

major criteria for rheumatic fever

A

The major criteria for rheumatic fever include: polyarthritis, carditis, erythema marginatum, chorea, subcutaneous nodules.

139
Q

Which of the following is the most common immediate complication following surgical repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A

MI

140
Q

Which of the following patients would benefit most from a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) procedure? what disease artery benefits the most from being bypassed

A

Those patients with proximal LAD involvement, triple vessel disease, or double vessel disease with concomitant diabetes have been shown to benefit most from CABG.

141
Q

the most common finding for a positive stress test?

A

ST segment depression of greater than 1 mm

142
Q

Which of the following cardiac serum markers will most likely be elevated within 1-3 hours following a myocardial infarction?

A

Though Troponin levels are more diagnostic of true infarction, myoglobin levels are the first to rise. Myoglobin usually rises within 1-3 hours and is usually the 1st cardiac enzyme marker to be elevated. The other cardiac enzymes begin elevating between 3 and 6 hours.

143
Q

What is the target INR for a patient with a mechanical heart valve?

A

2.5 to 3

144
Q

what is a normal corrected QT?

A

a normal corrected QT is generally defined as less than 450 and anything greater than this represents a prolonged QT interval, which increases the risk for ventricular tachycardia (in particular torsades de pointes

145
Q

A 37 year old male presents to the clinic with a red rash in ring form covering his trunk and portions of his lower extremities as well as a fever. He also complains of bumps under the skin of his arms and legs, that you recognize as subcutaneous nodules. Which of following heart murmurs is most commonly noted as a late sequelae of this disease?

A

The mitral valve is most commonly affected in rheumatic heart disease, the late sequelae of acute rheumatic fever. Mitral stenosis is the classic valvular complication associated with rheumatic heart disease, which is noted to have a low-pitched diastolic rumble, possibly with opening snap early in the course of the disease

146
Q

Which of the following ECG changes indicates that transmural ischemia is occurring?

A

ST elevation

147
Q

the test of choice in this unstable patient presenting with likely acute thoracic aortic dissection.?

A

Gated CT chest angiography i

148
Q

what is worse a fib or atrial flutter?

A

Atrial flutter generally has a rate of 250-350 bpm, has the risk of transferring that rate to the ventricles, sending the patient into ventricular tachycardia. A fib, with the rate well over 350 bpm, generally does not transfer that high a rate to the ventricles, and therefore is the most common chronic sustained arrythmia.

149
Q

Which characteristics is classically associated with monomorphic ventricular tachycardia?

A

Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia is a regular rhythm, wide-QRS complex tachycardia with only one (“mono”) repeating QRS morphology.

150
Q

treatment of choice for recurrent cases of Rheumatic fever

A

Monthly injections of benzathine penicillin

151
Q

what test is used to evaluate the excitability of the myocardium, and may also reproduce the tachycardia. good for patient who most likely has a diagnosis of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. WPW is a syndrome of excitability in which re-entry pathways lead to tachyarrhythmias.

A

Electrophysiology study

152
Q

what is Thromboangiitis obliterans, or Buerger’s disease,

A

is a rare vasculitis in which inflammation causes obstruction of blood vessels in the hands and feet resulting in the listed symptoms, often associated with smoking. Raynaud’s phenomenon is similar in presentation to Buerger’s disease and may be difficult to initially distinguish.

153
Q

best drug for patient with cardiogenic shock. There are multiple causes for cardiogenic shock which result in pump failure.

A

Dobutamine is a vasopressor that enhances myocardial contractility and decreases the cardiac workload, and therefore is the drug of choice in this condition

154
Q

At times congestive heart failure patients are placed on dopamine to yield diuretic effects. Dopamine, however produces different peripheral responses depending on the dose administered. At what dosing level does dopamine exert the desired effect of diuresis?

A

2-5 ug/kg/min administered intravenously

155
Q

does Digoxin help with mortality or symptoms of CHF

A

symptoms

156
Q

In coronary artery bypass grafting, which vessel has been shown to yield the greatest longevity after the procedure?

A

internal mammary

157
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to modify the heart rate in a patient who presents with an irregularly irregular rhythm on ECG?

A

Diltiazem

158
Q

Which of the following medications is most important when treating a patient with dilated cardiomyopathy and an ejection fraction of 50%?

A

ACE

159
Q

Diffuse ST segment elevation is indicative of

A

pericarditis.

160
Q

This ECG finding is characteristic of Prinzmetal’s angina.

A

Transient ST segment elevations

161
Q

True or False, Serial Troponins that are negative rule out all causes of acute coronary syndrome.

A

False

162
Q

Total occlusion of a coronary artery is a characteristic of ST elevation MI?

A

Yes

163
Q

A 55-year old male presents with acute onset right flank pain radiating to his periumbilical area for the past 2 hours. He states his pain causes urinary urgency but he cannot urinate. He has had several episodes of nonbilious vomiting. BP 165/87, P 105, RR 22, O2Sat 99% room air, T 98.7F. Abdomen is nontender. Urine dipstick reveals only large hematuria. Which of the following is the next best step in diagnosing this patient’s condition?

A

possible kidney stones get a KUB

164
Q

What type of valvular disease can rheumatic fever cause?

A

mitral STENOSIS

165
Q

how do you increase the hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmur?

A

valsalva

166
Q

Bumetanide (Bumex)

A

strong loop diuretic, used in moderate to severe CHF

167
Q

What heart rhythm abnormality can be caused by propranolol overdose?

A 
AV block
Propranolol is a beta blocker. Due to the ability of this drug class to slow the heart, an overdose could cause an AV block or sinus bradycardia.
168
Q

“Tet spells” are presumed to be due to acute increase in pulmonary vascular resistance, clinically manifesting as acute episodes of systemic cyanosis followed by syncope, which may result in hypoxia and death. The treatment of a “tet spell” is to increase systemic vascular resistance to allow for temporary reversal of the shunt. name a vasopressor

A

Phenylephrine is a vasopressor that increases systemic vascular resistance.

169
Q

what is the most common cause of CHF?

A

coronary artery disease

170
Q

a bnp below what level rules out CHF

A
171
Q

2 dx that need prophylactic antibiotics

A

prosthetic valve, prior endocarditis, cyanotic heart defect

172
Q

what are the three major criteria for endocarditis

A

2 positive blood cultures
positive ECHO
new murmur

173
Q

what are the minor criteria for endocarditis

A

Fever
Embolic event (janeway)
Immunological event (osier)
Positive blood culture

174
Q

gold standard for dx myocarditis

A

myocardial biopsy

175
Q

what is the first line tx for pericarditis

A

aspirin and nsaids

176
Q

normal BMI

A

18.5-24.9

177
Q

3 dx when paradoxical pulse is mentioned

A

pericarditis, pleural effusion, and cardiac tamponade and obstructive lung dz.

178
Q

a pathologic S3 is most often associated with?

A

CHF

179
Q

mid systolic click, you should think

A

mitral valve prolapse

180
Q

name 3 medications used for pharmacological stress test

A

adenosine, dobutamine, and dipyridamole

181
Q

two valve disorders common with marfans

A

aortic regurgitation and mitral valve prolapse

182
Q

2 most common causes of aortic stenosis

A

bicuspid valve + calcification and CAD

183
Q

Elderly person presents with dypnea, angina, syncope, but EKG is normal. What is the dx

A

aortic stenosis

184
Q

aortic valve is best heard when pt is in what position?

A

sitting up and leaning forward

185
Q

what is tietze syndrome

A

costochondritis

186
Q

James bundle, think

A

lown-ganong-levine syndrome

187
Q

subacute endocarditis is most often what bug

A

strep viridans

188
Q

A blalock procedure corrects what congenital heart condition

A

tetralogy of fallot

189
Q

a “3” sign and rib notching =

A

coarctation of the aorta

190
Q

name 4 things that constitute a positive stress test

A

a drop in blood pressure, a new arrhythmia, an increases in angina symptoms, ST depression

191
Q

can you use clot busting drugs in a new LBBB

A

yes within 3 hours

192
Q

RSR prime in leads V1 or V2, you should think

A

RBBB

193
Q

patient is taking aldosterone antagonist (aka spirolactone )what labs must to watched

A

K+ (may become hyperkalemic)

194
Q

what does digoxin do?

A

helps with cardiac contractility

195
Q

Inferior MI what artery is blocked

A

RCA

196
Q

Anterior MI what artery is blocked

A

LCA

197
Q

Posterior MI what artery is blocked

A

posterior descending artery off the RCA

198
Q

Bundle of kent : think?

A

WPW

199
Q

biphasic P wave, should make you think of

A

left atrial enlargement

200
Q

U waves

A

hypokalemia

201
Q

spironlactone SE

A

gynecomastia

202
Q

Lead 1 has a positive QRS and AVF has a negative QRS, what is the axis?

A

left axis deviation

203
Q

when taking statins measure the creatinine kinase due to

A

rhabdomyolysis

204
Q

what is ezetimibe

A

lowers LDL by decreasing intestinal absorption of cholesterol

205
Q

counting rate on an EKG what are line values

A

300, 150, 100, 75, 60

206
Q

what two leads determine the axis of the heart

A

Lead 1 and AVF

207
Q

RSR prime in V5 or V6

A

LBBB

208
Q

what meds lower trigycerides

A

fibrin acid derivatives

209
Q

Lateral wall MI is caused by the blockage of what artery?

A

LEFT CIRCUMFLEX artery

210
Q

describe junctional rhythm

A

50 beats per minute, QRS is narrow and no P wave

211
Q

most common cause of sudden cardiac death

A

v-fib

212
Q

patient is taking ACE, must watch

A

serum creatinine and potassium

213
Q

what does ST depression represent

A

ischemia

214
Q

You note a tachycardic rhythm with three different P-wave morphologies, and R-wave progression across the precordial leads. name the rhythm

A

Multifocal atrial tachycardia

PANCE review (19 decks)

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