WEEK OF MAY 14th, 2012 PART I – FFP - STRUCTURAL COLLAPSE OPERATIONS PART II – FFP – VACANT BUILDINGS PART III – ERP ADD #3 (Operations at Explosive, Incendiary and Active Shooter Incidents) PART IV – AUC 151 (Brush Fire Operations) INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DALY

Question 1

1.
The first arriving BC at a collapse should place a high priority on street management. Which would be a correct action to take? (5.3.1, 5.3.2, 7.2.1, 10.1)
A.
Ensure the first arriving engine always positions within the block for use of their master stream for fire control.
B.
Ensure the second arriving engine uses the apparatus to seal off the street end, with the ECC remaining with the apparatus.
C.
Ensure access to the collapse sight for at least the first arriving Rescue Company and their associated Collapse Unit, as close as possible to the front of the building, but out of the collapse zone.
D.
Ensure third and fourth arriving engines take hydrants outside the block, on separate mains, and prepare to supply handlines/large caliber streams in front of the building.

Answer 1

1. C

Question 2

2. Aerial ladders, as well as SOC Support Ladders that have aerial ladders, should be kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area, unless needed for rescue purposes. (5.4.3, 5.4.4)
   A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Answer 2

2. A

Question 3

3. How many of the following general duties for units at a structural collapse are accurate? (7.2, 7.3, 7.5, 7.6)
4. First arriving engine-Water supply
5. Second arriving engine-Assist first engine, CFR-D duties as necessary
6. First arriving ladder-Reconnaissance, hazard assessment and control, surface victims, preliminary void search
7. Second arriving ladder-major priority is controlling utilities, can also augment search and rescue
   A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. ALL

Answer 3

3. D

Question 4

4. Once the first DC arrives on the scene of a 10-60, the first BC may be reassigned as? (8.3, 8.7.1)
   A. Victim Accounting Manager
   B. Victim Removal Leader
   C. Operations Section Chief
   D. Planning Section Chief

Answer 4

4. D

8.3 The first arriving Deputy Chief becomes the Incident Commander and the first arriving
Battalion Chief can be reassigned as the Planning Section Chief.

Question 5

5. If you are the BC assigned on a 10-60 and designated the Resource Unit Leader, you would report to __________, and remain in this position until relieved by __________? (8.7.2)
   A. the Operations Section Chief, the Incident Commander
   B. the Logistics Section Chief, the Officer of the Field Comm Unit
   C. the Planning Section Chief, the Officer of the Field Comm Unit
   D. the Incident Commander, the Situation Unit Leader

Answer 5

5. C

8.7.2 The BC designated as the Resource Unit Leader by the respective Borough
Dispatcher, shall report to the Planning Chief and begin tracking resources, both
assigned and operating, from all agencies involved. He/she shall remain at this
position until relieved by the Officer of the Field Communications Unit, who shall
assume that role upon his/her arrival. At this time, the BC shall report to the
Planning Section Chief for reassignment to either a Situation Unit Leader, or a
position necessary to support the Operation.

Question 6

6. A knowledgeable IC should know the capabilities of units under his/her command. Which is a correct statement concerning Collapse Rescue Operations? (10.1)
   A.
   Rescue companies are trained in Collapse Rescue Operations and will perform any victim removal that involves tunneling, trenching, shoring or cutting of structural members.
   B.
   Squad companies are not trained in Collapse Rescue Operations and may only assist a Rescue company.
   C.
   One Rescue Company will be assigned to all major collapses, and access to the collapse site must be ensured.
   D.
   At least one Rescue company should be deployed at each buried victim location, and if there are multiple victims, the IC must special call additional Rescue companies.

Answer 6

6. A

Question 7

7. A battalion chief in charge of operations at a bodega collapse made some errors in judgment when giving a few orders. In which decision was he correct? (10.1)
   A.
   Requested the response of a Collapse PODS (Portable On Demand Storage) for additional shoring equipment.
   B.
   When the PODS arrived, he requested the additional masonry breaking tools carried on the PODS be brought to the site of the victim removal.
   C.
   Assigned an engine company to assist the firefighter from the SOC Dewatering Unit in placing the pumps and providing the necessary hoses for discharging water from the scene.
   D.
   Assigned an additional ladder company the task of using the vacuum hose from the Con Edison Vacuum truck in trying to remove canned goods from a void.

Answer 7

7. C

Collapse PODS (Portable On Demand Storage)
The Department has staged for deployment 10 Collapse PODS Containers for storing
shoring equipment to be deployed at large scale emergencies.
 The containers are filled with shoring lumber, metal and concrete cutting saw blades,
and a cutting table with templates for fabricating shoring.
 They contain no tools.
 The containers are dispersed throughout the five boroughs, with two containers in
each borough.
 Only a Command Chief can request the response of the PODS.

Con Edison Vacuum Truck
They
may only be used by trained members of Special Operations Command, in conjunction
with the Con Ed operators and at the direction of the Incident Commander.

Question 8

8.
A BC in charge of a collapse of a building under construction or demolition should request who to respond to the Command Post during the reconnaissance stage? (11.2)
A.
Fire Safety Director
B.
Victim Accounting Manager
C.
Victim Removal Leader
D.
Construction Manager

Answer 8

8. A

Question 9

9.
Which of the following statements is accurate in regards to the various voids created after a collapse? (11.4)
A.
A lean-to void is created when one bearing wall fails, and persons who were on the floor below near the remaining wall have an excellent chance of survival.
B.
V-shaped voids are the result of a floor failing in the middle, and victims who are located in the voids along the perimeter have the least chance of survival.
C.
In a pancake collapse the floors fall in layers and stack up, making this the most difficult type of collapse to locate victims.
D.
An individual void, which may be located randomly throughout the structure, should not be searched until all surface victims have been removed.

Answer 9

9. A

11.4.4 Individual voids may be found in any type of collapse. Searching void spaces should be done immediately after
the surface victims have been removed, or simultaneously if sufficient personnel
are available.

Question 10

10. Members attempting to locate victims in a collapse can use which of the following correctly stated methods? (11.4.6)
    A.
    “Around-the-clock” method which has members calling out to the victim at different time intervals and determining if the voice is getting stronger or weaker.
    B.
    “Emergency Alert Tone Assisted Rescue” which can only be used if the trapped member is able to activate their alert tone on the HT.
    C.
    Thermal imaging camera to locate victims when the entire debris pile and everyone trapped in it is covered in the same color dust and is unrecognizable.
    D.
    Electronic Listening devices, which are located on all Collapse Rescue units, during the initial stages of the collapse when voices and sounds will be at their strongest amplitude.

Answer 10

10. C

If a voice is heard, it may be difficult to locate the source, since
debris within voids can distort sound. The “around-the-clock” method may be
useful: members position themselves at various locations around the area
where a voice is heard, and take turns calling out and listening for the victim,
in an attempt to triangulate their position

If the member is unable to activate the tone on their own, the IC can activate
the Emergency Alert Tone Assisted Rescue Procedure.

Electronic listening devices: Life Detection Systems are located on all
Collapse Rescue Units. When the probes are placed on top of the debris pile,
it detects sounds or vibrations from within the pile. These devices are quite
sensitive and can pick up sounds or vibrations for a considerable distance.
They are not practical to be used during the initial stages of a collapse, for
there is too much activity.

Question 11

11. The FDNY has specific shoring guidelines. Which of the following are incorrect statements about shoring in a building that has structural damage? (11.5.3)
    1.
    When human life is in danger, shoring provides a safe area for victims and rescuers.
    2.
    When there is no civilian life hazard, shore if it can be safely done at minimal risk to members and there is substantial property risk that can be safeguarded.
    3.
    Never shore in a vacant building.
    4.
    If a building is going to be demolished, even after shoring, it will only be shored to facilitate rescue operations or safe evacuation of occupants.
    5.
    Once installed, shoring will not be removed by members.
    A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 2, 4 and 5 C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 5

Answer 11

11. D

11.5.3 Shoring Guidelines: At times, the FDNY is asked by the Department of Buildings,
or Housing Preservation and Development to install shoring in structures that
have suffered structural damage. As a guideline, the FDNY will only install
shoring in the following instances:
 Whenever human life is in danger, to provide a safe area around
victims/rescuers.
 When shoring will permit a building to remain safe to occupy.
 Buildings in which there is no civilian life hazard will only be shored if the
shoring can be safely installed at minimal risk to members, and where there is
a substantial property risk that can be safeguarded by the shoring.
 A vacant or unoccupied building will not be shored when there is a substantial
risk to members installing the shoring, or the use of shoring is unlikely to
substantially improve the overall outcome.
 If the building is going to be demolished, even after shoring, it will not be
shored, except to facilitate rescue operations or the safe evacuation of
occupants.
 Once installed, shoring will only be removed when the load is otherwise
stabilized, or the situation permits the shores to be removed from a safe area.

Question 12

12. During tunneling or trenching operations only the minimum number of trained members should be exposed, and they should be rotated out for rest at intervals of ______? (11.6.4)
    A.
    15 minutes
    B.
    20 minutes
    C.
    30 minutes
    D.
    45 minutes

Answer 12

12. C

11.6.4 Use extreme caution. This is an even more dangerous task than a void search,
since it might require you to move items supporting loads, possibly causing a
secondary collapse. Only collapse trained members of SOC units are to perform
tunneling or trenching involving the cutting of potentially load bearing structural
members. Expose only the absolute minimum number of personnel necessary to
perform each task and rotate these members out for a rest at frequent intervals-
30 minutes is the recommended maximum work time.

Question 13

13. A Rescue Paramedic must be given access to a trapped patient as soon as possible to treat for Crush Syndrome if trapped for how long? (11.6.8)
    A.
    More than 30 minutes
    B.
    More than 60 minutes
    C.
    More than 3 hours
    D.
    More than 12 hours

Answer 13

13. B

Question 14

14.
Crush Syndrome, also known as the “smiling death”, can occur in a victim subject to prolonged compression in_______? (11.8.1)
A.
usually 1-2 hours
B.
usually 2-4 hours, but possibly less than 30 minutes
C.
usually 4-6 hours, but possibly less than an hour
D.
usually 8-10 hours, but possibly less than two hours

Answer 14

14. A

Question 15

15.
Which is a true statement about Selected Debris Removal? (11.6.1, 11.13.2)
A.
Begins when all voids have been searched and all people have been accounted for.
B.
It is not a useful tactic if rescuers have no idea where victims are located.
C.
The Rescue Operations Battalion should be assigned as the Victim Accounting Manager to supervise this stage of the collapse rescue plan.
D.
Even if manpower and equipment are adequate, efforts should be focused on one avenue of access to the victim as to not waste resources.
E.
Heavy demolition equipment, such as cranes, are forbidden during this phase unless the speed of recovery outweighs the danger posed by their use.

Answer 15

15. B

11.6.1 The selected debris removal phase begins when all voids have been searched and
people are still unaccounted for. Selected debris removal is used to reach specific
locations where victims are located or suspected to be. It is not a useful tactic if
we have no idea where the victims are located. It may involve breaching a hole
through a wall, cutting through a roof or a floor or tunneling through mixed
debris.

Heavy demolition equipment (cranes, bulldozers, etc.) is
forbidden during the Selected Debris Removal stage.

Question 16

16.
Collapse survival rates see their most dramatic decline if the time of extrication exceeds_______? (11.7.1)
A.
1 day
B.
2 days
C.
3 days
D.
4 days

Answer 16

16. A

Question 17

17.
Demobilization procedures at a collapse site are incorrectly described in which choice? (12.)
A. FD will remain at the scene until debris removal phase is complete or until the IC is reasonably certain all victims have been removed.
B. An FD watchline shall be maintained as long as personnel are searching in the debris pile or performing an investigative function.
C. The IC must ensure a written log of all visitors and investigators entering the collapse site is maintained, and forwarded to the Chief of Operations upon completion.
D. Valuable tools and equipment used during the operation shall be retrieved as safety allows, and are not to be considered expendable.

Answer 17

17. D

Question 18

18. What does the following Search Assessment Marking indicate? (Add. 2 sec.4)
    Ladder 44
    A.
    Search operations are in progress by Ladder 44
    B.
    Ladder 44 has completed a primary search with negative results
    C.
    Ladder 44 has completed all searches in this area.
    D.
    Ladder 44 has suspended a search in this area due to atmospheric hazards.

Answer 18

18. A

Question 19

19. What does the following search assessment marking indicate? (Add. 2 sec.4)
    5/7/12
    1500
    R-3 open shaft
    0
    A. Rescue 3 had entered the void at 1500 hours to initiate a search, but has since exited.
    B. Rescue 3 has exited the void at 1500 hours and found zero readings on their atmospheric meters.
    C. Rescue 3 has exited the void at 1500 hours and found no victims.
    D. Rescue 3 has exited the void and has located a victim in an open shaft.

Answer 19

19. C

Question 20

20. What does the following marking indicate? (Add. 2 sec.5)
    A.
    Unsearched void to the left of the marking
    B.
    Known or potential victim to the left of the marking
    C.
    Victim left the scene
    D.
    V-shaped collapse to left of the marking

Answer 20

20. B

Question 21

21. Once the victim location is confirmed, you should do what to this marking? (Add. 2 sec. 5)
    A.
    Paint the letter “C” over it.
    B.
    Paint a large square around it.
    C.
    Paint a circle around it.
    D.
    Paint a check mark adjacent to it

Answer 21

21. C

Question 22

22. What does the following Victim Location Marking indicate?
    A. The previously found victim/s have been confirmed deceased.
    B.
    The victim/s have been confirmed deceased and have been removed from the void, and all secondary searches are completed.
    C.
    The victim/s have been removed from the void, and all victims previously located have been removed.
    D.
    The void search has been completed and one victim has been located, but does not indicate secondary searches are complete.

Answer 22

22. C

Question 23

23. Which is a true statement about the Search Assessment Marking System? (Add. 2-1.5, 1.6, 2.1, 2.2)
    A. Markings are dynamic and should be updated as needed, with new markings made alongside old markings, with the old markings left in place.
    B. These markings are made similar to the traditional Vacant Building Marking System, drawing a square around the marking.
    C. Markings are made using the same lime-yellow reflective paint currently used to mark vacant buildings, with two cans carried on all apparatus.
    D. The markings consist of 18” lines that form the letter “X”, with designated markings in each quadrant.

Answer 23

23. C

Question 24

24. The department has adopted the standard emergency signaling system used by all FEMA USAR Task Forces throughout the country. Which of the following is incorrect? (9.2.2)
    A. These signals may be sounded on a handheld aerosol can air horn or on apparatus air horns.
    B. Each Safety Officer, member monitoring a transit, or members assigned as lookouts for hazard monitoring will be issued an air horn.
    C. One (1) long blast of 3 seconds indicates “Cease Operations-All Quiet”.
    D. Three (3) short blasts of 1 second each indicates “Resume Operations”.

Answer 24

24. D

1 Long Blast (3 seconds) Cease Operations/All Quiet

3 short blasts (1 second each) Evacuate the area

1 long and 1 short blast Resume Operations

remeber 1 long blast as
shhhhhhhhhhhhhhh

3 letters in RUN

1 long and 1 short
fuuuuuuk me, i have to keep digging

Question 25

1.
It is often possible at vacant building fires to conduct an interior attack to quickly extinguish a fire. This method of attack? (1.1.3, 1.4, 2.2.1, 8.1)
A.
is mandatory, as it is in an occupied building.
B.
is not mandatory, as it is in an occupied building.
C.
must be left to a chief officer to decide.
D.
will be considered only after determining the most important aspect, which is life hazard.

Answer 25

1. B

Question 26

2.
A lieutenant in E-99 was supervising BISP when the firefighters pointed out a vacant building across the street from the building they were inspecting. The vacant had no Hazard Identification marking on it. The vacant was also in the administrative district of L-100. Upon further inspection there did not appear to be any hazards, as the structure recently became vacant. The officer would be correct to take how many of the following actions?
(1.3.1, BISP MAN Chap. 5 Ref 6.2, Comm. Man. Chap. 4- 4.5.1)

1.
Not take any action at the scene, as only the administrative unit may mark their buildings, but notify L-100 on return to quarters.
2.
Enter a CIDS card on this structure, after checking E-CIDS on the intranet and discovering there isn’t one already filed.
3.
Not take any action at the scene, as Vacant Building markings cannot be made during BISP, but only during Annual Inspection of Vacants.
4.
Not take any action at the scene, as only vacant buildings that display a hazard to firefighting forces are required to be marked.
5.
Forward an A-8 to DOB to report a newly discovered vacant building.
A. Three B. Four C. All D. None

Answer 26

2. D

Question 27

3. Which is a true statement about the Hazard Identification Marking for vacant buildings? (1.3.2, BISP MAN Chap. 5 Ref 6.2)
   A.
   It is an 18”x18” square made with lime-yellow reflective paint, with the lines of the square 3” wide.
   B.
   The primary marking must be made directly on the front entrance door.
   C.
   For uniformity a template should be used and shall be carried on the apparatus, along with spray paint, at all times.
   D.
   Markings should be high enough for visibility, usually at eyesight with members on the ground.

Answer 27

3. C

Question 28

4. Which engine operation at a vacant building is correctly stated? (2.2.3, 3.1.6, 6.21, SB #57 Case #1)
   A.
   If there is no life hazard, position the hose stream between the fire and the most severely endangered exposure where fire is likely to spread.
   B.
   Usually only the officer and two firefighters are needed to advance the hoseline into the immediate fire area, with the other members remaining outside, readily available for relief.
   C.
   If an engine company arrives on the scene prior to other units, they may initiate an interior attack if the fire is localized.
   D.
   A 10’ length of 1 ¾” hose may be connected to the TL pipe and members may enter the structure this way to by-pass weakened stairs.

Answer 28

4. B

When a vacant building is heavily involved on arrival, place hose streams
between the involved building and the most severe LIFE EXPOSURE

6.21 A full length of hose carried by engine companies, and connected directly to the TL pipe
and operated from the basket. Members may enter rooms for extinguishing or
overhauling, by-passing weakened stairs or fire escapes.

2. No unit should operate alone in a vacant building. Call for help immediately

Question 29

5. If a tower ladder stream is to be put into operation at a vacant building that is a weakened structure, all firefighters shall be removed? (6.18)
   A.
   from the immediate fire area to an area of safe refuge on the fire floor
   B.
   to the hallways and landings between the fire floor and the floor below
   C.
   to the floor below
   D.
   outside of the building

Answer 29

5. D

Question 30

6.
Which of the following is not listed as an advantage of in-line pumping? (3.1.1)
A.
Pumper in position for master stream application
B.
Shorter and faster hand stretches
C.
Lower engine pressures required
D.
Pumper capable of attaining full pump capacity

Answer 30

6. D

Question 31

7.
Ladder company duties at a vacant building fire are correctly described in how many choices? (2.2.6, 4.1, 4.2.1, 4.6, 6.5)
1.
Operations are generally devoted to facilitating the engine company getting water on the fire.
2.
Members should adapt a no-rush approach and devote more time than usual to a size-up of the building.
3.
Searches should be conducted after the building has been evaluated and the fire has been largely extinguished.
4.
One member on the roof shall monitor HT transmissions from a quiet area if saws are being used, and two members shall be assigned to search all floors below the fire floor.
A. One B. Two C. Three D. All

Answer 31

7. D All

Question 32

8. In order to assist with future operations, which is the most correct action to indicate that the roof has been cut opened prior to leaving the scene? (6.15)
   A.
   Spray paint the words “Roof Open” next to the primary marking on the front of the building.
   B.
   Spray paint the letters “RO” next to the primary marking on the front of the building.
   C.
   Spray paint the letters “RO” next to the primary marking on the front of the building and inside and outside the bulkhead.
   D.
   Spray paint the letters “RO” above the primary marking on the front of the building, and inside and outside of the bulkhead

Answer 32

8. D

Question 33

1.
The greatest threat faced by first responders at an explosion of an IED is? (2.2)
A.
The explosive agent itself.
B.
The possibility that it contains hazardous chemicals.
C.
The possibility that it contains biological agents.
D.
The possibility that it contains radiological materials.

Answer 33

1. A

Question 34

2.
After a fire was extinguished in a multiple dwelling a firefighter discovered what appeared to be a small IID (Improvised Incendiary Device) which was not yet burned. The officer would be correct to take which action? (4.1, 6.1)
A.
Have a firefighter remove the device to the exterior of the building using a long-handled shovel to prevent ignition inside the structure.
B.
Insure that notifications are made to the NYPD for Bomb Squad response and the FDNY Bureau of Fire Investigation.
C.
Have a precautionary hoseline stretched and have members stage in the room where they can see the device for continuity of evidence.
D.
Have a firefighter move the device only if life safety is a concern.

Answer 34

2. B

Question 35

3.
What should a company officer take as a first immediate action when discovering a clandestine lab in an occupancy his/her unit is operating in? (5.3, 5.7)
A.
Determine the type of lab (chemical, drug or explosive) to determine the next action to take.
B.
Immediately stop, do not touch anything, and retrace steps while backing out of area.
C.
Make only the same notifications as would be done for the discovery of an incendiary device.
D.
Confront the occupant to determine the type of lab discovered.

Answer 35

3. B

Question 36

4.
When discovering a firearm at the scene of a fire, the IC should take which actions? (6.1)
1.
When consistent with safety, have members safeguard the evidence until the arrival of the NYPD or fire marshals.
2.
If the firearm will be disturbed by overhauling, have one officer supervise one firefighter who is familiar with the handling of firearms, and move the weapon to a secure location within the residence.
3.
Not permit anyone to stand in line with the muzzle or breech of any firearm.
4.
Establish an isolation area and evacuate civilians as necessary.
A.
1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4

Answer 36

4. C

Question 37

5.
When an FDNY unit arrives on the scene of a suspected explosive device prior to the arrival of the NYPD, how many of the following would be appropriate courses of action to follow? (7.3.1)
1.
Refrain from entering structure to search for explosive device
2.
Evacuate persons from exposed areas
3.
Have personnel and apparatus take a standby position, avoiding possible heavy window glass fallout
4.
Make necessary notifications, such as to FD dispatcher
5.
Inform the NYPD IC, upon their arrival, of actions taken
6.
Establish an ICP, and if required a Staging Area, out of the line of sight of the device and away from any secondary threats.
A.
Three B. Four C. Five D. All

Answer 37

5. D

Question 38

6. Members should be extremely aware of any type of radio frequency around a suspected explosive device. Which guideline correctly indicates the minimum distance required for operating near a suspected device? (7.3.1)
   A.
   Post radios shall not be operated within 300 feet of a suspected device.
   B.
   Handie-talkies shall not be used within 200 feet of a suspected device.
   C.
   Cell phones shall not be used within 300 feet of a suspected device.
   D.
   Apparatus and Marine radios shall not be operated within 400 feet of a suspected device.

Answer 38

6. A

HT and cell phones shall not be used within 150 feet of a suspected device,
and Apparatus, Post and Marine radios should not be operated within 300 feet
of a suspected device. These distances are only guidelines and should not
normally hamper FDNY operations since the isolation zone surrounding
a device would generally exceed 300 feet.

Question 39

7.
When FD units arrive on scene of a suspected explosive device, and PD is on scene, who is the IC according to CIMS? (AUC 276, 7.2.3)
A.
FDNY
B.
NYPD
C.
Unified Command
D.
OEM

Answer 39

7. B

Question 40

8.
When FD and PD are both on scene and an explosion occurs, who is designated the IC? (AUC 276 sec. 4.2)
A.
NYPD
B.
FDNY
C.
Unified Command (FDNY & NYPD)
D.
OEM

Answer 40

8. C

Question 41

9.
If FD units are informed by the PD that a suspected device is now confirmed as an explosive, what action should the FD IC take? (7.3.3.A, G, 7.3.4)
A.
Notification to the Fire Marshals.
B.
Stand fast with the resources from the original alarm assignment.
C.
Have engine companies take hydrants in the immediate vicinity of the incident to provide for shorter, more rapid hose stretches.
D.
Have units staged for a one-sided approach in the event of a detonation, this provides closer supervision of units.

Answer 41

9. A

Question 42

10.
If a detonation occurs when FD units are in a standby mode, what action would the IC need to take? (7.4.1, 7.4.2, 7.5.4)
A.
Notify the dispatcher on the department radio, via a mixer-off message, what has exploded, size-up if a building is involved, approximate number of injured, and requests for additional units/alarms as needed.
B.
Utilize radio ten-code signals as much as possible to shorten the amount of time transmitting.
C.
Have incoming units’ firefighters immediately exit the apparatus with SCBA facepieces donned and proceed to the staging area prior to conducting a 360 degree survey.
D.
Ensure immediate metering and monitoring is conducted to evaluate for other potential hazards, such as chemical or radiological.

Answer 42

10. B

7.4 Post-Detonation IC Responsibilities
7.4.1 Notifications
Using plain language on Department radio, notify the dispatcher and advise
incoming units that an explosion has occurred. It is imperative that this
information is transmitted to the dispatcher with the “mixer on” so all units are
aware of the situation. The following information shall be transmitted:
 What has exploded.
 If a building is involved, give height, dimensions and construction.
 Approximate number of injured.
 Request additional units and/or transmit signals as needed.
7.4.2 Scene Safety
 Conduct a 360 degree survey when dismounting apparatus.
 Consider the risk to responder versus reward before undertaking rescue and
offensive operations.
 Ensure immediate metering and monitoring of the atmosphere.
 Ensure scene is safe of secondary threats.
 Commit limited personnel to area until considered safe.
 Ensure members don appropriate PPE.
 Establish perimeter based on recommended distances (appendix).
 Evaluate for other hazards, (i.e., chemical, radiological

7.5.4 Safety of Members
 Approach all explosions as if it was a deliberate act.
 Don appropriate PPE. Do not don SCBA facepiece unless there are
indications of respiratory danger. The reduced vision while wearing a
facepiece could become a safety issue

Question 43

11.
If a fire results from the explosion, and secondary devices are deemed possible, what tactics should the FD IC implement? (7.5.2, 7.5.4)
A.
All fires should be allowed to burn until the area is surveyed by bomb squad personnel.
B.
Small, incipient fires should be left to burn, while personnel are withdrawn to a safe area pending bomb squad assessment.
C.
Large area or room fires may be attacked using heavy streams from points of safety using distance/safety factor.
D.
Locked doors should not be forced due to the time members are exposed to a possible secondary device, but unlocked doors shall be opened and rooms searched for fire extension and/or victims.

Answer 43

11. C

 Use the reach of stream to avoid placing members in a danger area

 Refrain from opening doors, lockers, pails, etc

Question 44

12.
FDNY members shall not operate at an active shooter incident unless an extreme threat to life safety exists and? (7.6.4)
A. We are requested by law enforcement and approval is given by the FD Deputy Chief.
B. Approval is given by the FDNY IC who is the rank of Battalion Chief or higher.
C. We are requested by law enforcement and approval is given by the FD Staff Chief.
D. We are requested by law enforcement and FD and PD operating personnel are on the same designated HT frequency until the location and number of shooters is known.

Answer 44

12. C

7.6.4 FDNY members shall not operate at an active shooter incident unless an extreme
threat to life safety exists and our assistance is specifically requested by law
enforcement. Prior to operating, the following conditions must be addressed:
 Staff Chief approval must be given prior to commencing such an operation.
 The location and number of shooters is known.
 The path to and from and the area where the FDNY members will operate has
been secured and is protected by law enforcement personnel.
 Personnel and duration of operation shall be kept to a minimum.
 Operating personnel shall participate in a briefing where the plan will be
vetted and expected actions specifically stated.
 FDNY and NYPD operating personnel shall all be on the same designated HT
frequency (ex. TAC “U”).
 The FDNY Operations Section Chief shall remain within arms distance of the
NYPD Operations Section Chief for the duration of the incident while
maintaining radio contact with operating FDNY members.
 The IC shall request and ensure law enforcement provide armed force
protection for FDNY personnel operating at, or assigned to such an incident.
This request shall include the Incident Command Post, and if established, the
Operations Post and Staging Area.

Question 45

13.
FD units are operating at a confirmed explosive device. The FD IC is informed by the PD IC that the device is concealed in a suitcase lying on the sidewalk at an intersection. The FD IC, knowing that we are tasked with structural evacuation according to CIMS, should? (Appendix 4)
A.
Evacuate all people inside and outside buildings within 110 feet of the device, and preferably move them 1850 feet away.
B.
Evacuate all people inside and outside buildings within 150 feet of the device, and preferably move them 1700 feet away.
C.
Evacuate all people inside and outside buildings within 150 feet of the device, and preferably move them 1850 feet away.
D.
Evacuate all people inside and outside buildings within 110 feet of the device, and preferably move them 1900 feet away.

Answer 45

13. C

Question 46

1.
FD units operating at a brush fire must understand the proper terminology used to describe various sectors of the fire. Which is listed correctly? (3.3)
A. The leading edge of a moving fire is called the “front”.
B. The side opposite the “front” is the “stern”.
C. Looking at the fire from the “front” moving towards you, the left side is called the left flank while the right side is called the right flank.
D. Long, thin sections of fire extending out from the main blackened area are called “fingers”.
E. Isolated small fires downwind from the main fire are called “lead fires”.

Answer 46

1. D

3.3.1 The head of the fire is the leading edge of a moving fire.
3.3.2 The rear of the fire is the side opposite the head.
3.3.3 Looking at the fire from the rear of the blackened area, the left side is called the
left flank while the right side is called the right flank.
3.3.4 Fingers are strips of long, thin sections of fire extending outward from the main
blackened fire area.
3.3.5 Spot fires are isolated small fires downwind from the main fire that are caused by
brands carried by the wind.

Question 47

2.
There are 3 main types of brush fires discussed in this AUC. Which one of the following is not listed correctly? (3.4)
A. Surface Fires, which are fast moving, burning grass, leaves and weeds, and are the most common type in NYC.
B. Crown Fires, which burn along the tops of trees, spreading by heat waves and direct flame contact, and occur at most brush fires in NYC.
C. Bog Fires, which burn downward into soft, spongy ground, common in dried out swamp or marshlands. They burn slowly, generally smoldering underground, and require copious amounts of water.

Answer 47

2. B

3.4.3 Crown fires burn along the tops of trees, extending by direct flame contact and
heat waves. They rarely occur in New York City

Question 48

3.
A newly assigned lieutenant to a Staten Island engine company should know that certain equipment shall be carried on the apparatus due to brush fire potential. Which is listed incorrectly? (4.1.1)
A.
Four Indian Pumps
B.
Four Fire Brooms
C.
1” Lightweight Yellow Forestry Hose

Answer 48

3. A

4.1.1 All engine companies assigned to Staten Island shall carry:
 Two Indian Pumps
 Four Fire Brooms
 1” Forestry Hose

Question 49

4.
A captain responding to a 2nd Alarm brush fire was redirected by the dispatcher to pick up BFU 1 at the quarters of Engine Company 164, and respond to the fire. In which action while operating with the BFU was the captain correct? (4.5, 4.5.5.A, C, 4.5.4)
A.
Once in the BFU the captain attempted to acknowledge the response on the MDT.
B.
While operating at the scene the captain contacted the West Sector Supervisor via HT, stating, “BFU- 164 to West Sector Supervisor”.
C.
One member was slightly injured by a fallen tree limb while operating, so the captain instructed one member to get the first aid equipment, while another member got the chain saw to clear the fallen limb.
D.
Once back in the quarters of E-164, the captain entered the response in E-164’s Fire Record Journal.

Answer 49

4. C

BFUs do not have MDTs,
they are dispatched by radio.

A separate Fire Record Journal shall be kept for
each BFU. All responses by the BFU shall be recorded in this Fire Record
Journal regardless of how the BFU was staffed, either independently or by an
engine company. When staffed independently, the officer working in the BFU is
responsible for Fire Record Journal and NYFIRS entries.

Question 50

5.
Which of the following answers are listed as capabilities of a BFU at an incident? (4.5.10.B, 4.5.14, 4.5.16.D, 4.5.17 and 4.5.9)
1. The winch may be used to remove an engine company stuck in the mud.
2. They can knock over trees and traverse streams do to their high chassis and four wheel drive capability.
3. They can operate at dewatering operations, as all BFU’s carry a portable dewatering pump.
4. They can respond to a car fire with an associated ladder company in lieu of an engine company.
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 4 D. 3 and 4

Answer 50

5. D

Question 51

6. An engine company is operating 1” Forestry hose at an expanding brush fire, which has now extended to a house. Can these firefighters attempt to make an interior attack in the structure in order to save it? (4.7.3)
   A. YES or B. NO

Answer 51

6. B

4.7.3 Forestry hose is intended for outside wildland operations only, and is not to be
used for any other type of operation.

Question 52

7. A covering Battalion Chief in a Staten Island battalion should know that the mini-manifold carried in all S.I. Bn’s can convert a 2 ½” supply line into how many 1” forestry lines? (4.7.4)
   A. Two
   B. Three
   C. Four
   D. Five

Answer 52

7. C

Question 53

8. Which tactic at a brush fire is correctly stated? (5.4.2, 5.2.1, 5.4.7, 5.4.5, 5.4.6)
   A. All responding engines shall hook up to a hydrant to insure a positive water source.
   B. Additional resources shall be called early to quickly overwhelm the fire.
   C. Heavy reliance should be put on the use of handlines in the initial stages of attack.
   D. Employ a frontal attack from in front of the fire to quickly stop fire extension.

Answer 53

8. B

If necessary, the first officer to arrive should
immediately request additional resources. Successful brush fire operations call
for quickly overwhelming the fire.

5.4.2 Initial attack operations should concentrate on mobility. Avoid hooking up to
hydrants, except to protect exposures.

5.4.7 Stretching handlines is labor intensive. Often, fire spread is so rapid, that
stretching handlines is ineffective. By the time the line is in position and charged,
the fire has consumed all fuel within reach and has moved on. Handlines should
be considered when protecting exposures, when cutting off forward fire travel,
and for deep seated fire

5.4.5 In general, avoid attacking from or operating in front of the fire.

5.4.6 If necessary to operate in front of the fire (only to protect life), sufficient charged
lines must be in place and capable of protecting operating forces. An on-rushing
wall of fire can endanger operating forces

Question 54

9. When should handlines not be used at a brush fire? (5.4.7, 5.4.11, 5.4.8)
   A. Protecting exposures
   B. Deep seated fires (Bog fires)
   C. Cutting off forward fire travel from the flanks
   D. From the blackened out area chasing the fire

Answer 54

9. D

Handlines should
be considered when protecting exposures, when cutting off forward fire travel,
and for deep seated fires.

Question 55

10. The majority of brush fires are controlled with members using Indian Pumps and brooms. How should firefighters operate when attacking a brush fire in this manner? (5.4.14)
    A. In teams of four with a frontal attack
    B. In teams of two with an attack from the uphill side
    C. In teams of two along the flanks near the head of the fire.
    D. In teams of four attacking spot fires first so they don’t spread

Answer 55

10. C