WEEK #8 WEEK OF 03/11/13 PART I – FFP – COLLAPSE OPERATIONS PART II – DUNN CHAP. #18 & 19 PART III - AUC’s #310, 317, 323 & 325 PART IV - TB – FOAM EVOLUTIONS PART IV - SAFETY BULLETINS #56 - 71 INSTRUCTOR: CAPT KEN RUGGIERO

Question 1

1. Which choice below is an incorrect indicator/cause of a collapse? 1.4
   A. Fire destruction of wood, heating of cast iron, or unprotected steel.
   B. Cracking or groaning noises indicating a strain on structural members.
   C. Clean wood at the beam ends indicating a recently constructed structure.
   D. Faulty construction, improper alterations, or nearby excavations.

Answer 1

1. C

Question 2

2. While at MUD Lt. Klompus made the following statements about collapse operations and
   was only correct in which one statement? 2.3, 4.3, 4.4.1,
   A. It is the mission of the Dept. of Buildings and the Dept. of Labors OSHA Compliance Unit
   to determine the cause of the incident and whether any OSHA regulations have been violated.
   B. At least one tower ladder shall be special called to every collapse if none was assigned on
   the initial alarm.
   C. Conducting searches at the scene of a collapse is the single most important consideration
   during the operation.
   D. At all explosions and major collapses, first arriving units shall ensure the immediate area is
   monitored for the presence of radiological and chemical agents.

Answer 2

2. A

Note: At least one tower ladder shall be special called to every major collapse if none
was assigned on the initial alarm.

4.4.1 Safety at the scene of a collapse is the single most important consideration during
the operation.

Note: At all explosions and major collapses, SOC Units shall ensure the
immediate area is monitored for the presence of radiological/chemical agents.

Question 3

3. The first arriving engine company at a collapse should take a hydrant outside of the block
   and prepare to supply handlines and a large caliber tower ladder stream. It is never necessary for
   the first due engine to enter the block at a collapse operation. Do you: 5.3.1, 7.2.1
   A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 3

3. D

5.3.1 If possible, both first and second arriving engines should take separate hydrants
outside the block, each on separate mains, and prepare to supply handlines and a
large caliber tower ladder stream. The third and fourth engines should take
similar positions at the rear of the structure.

7.2 First Arriving Engine Company: Water Supply
7.2.1 Officer
 Supervise water supply activities / apparatus placement
Note: At times it may be necessary for the first arriving Engine to take a position
within the block for use of the apparatus master stream for fire control or
exposure protection. The Officer must ensure a continuous source of water
supply for such purposes.

Question 4

4. Which point made about the positioning of different units at the scene of a collapse
   operation is correct? 5.3.1, 5.3.2, 5.4.1, 5.4.2
   A. The 3rd and 4th Engine companies should take separate hydrants, on separate mains, and
   position at the rear of the collapsed structure.
   B. Initially the 1st arriving tower ladder should be the only unit in front of the collapse
   building. Subsequent arriving tower ladders should be positioned at a staging area to avoid
   clogging the street.
   C. Two of the second alarm engine companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street.
   The ECC’s of such units must only be assigned tasks that keep them in the vicinity of their
   apparatus in case they are needed to move the apparatus.
   D. At an incident involving a tall or long building, consider placing several tower ladders
   around the collapse. Aerial ladders should always be placed away from the building in a
   secondary staging area.

Answer 4

4. A

5.3.1 If possible, both first and second arriving engines should take separate hydrants
outside the block, each on separate mains, and prepare to supply handlines and a
large caliber tower ladder stream. The third and fourth engines should take
similar positions at the rear of the structure.

5.3.2 Two of the second alarm engine companies should be used to seal off the ends of
the street. The chauffeurs of these units must remain in the cab, able to move the
apparatus if directed by the IC. Remaining engine companies should be
positioned well away from the scene, for they will probably be responding for
personnel needs only.

5.4.1 Tower ladders should be placed in front of the collapsed structure, outside of the
collapse danger zone. Initially, the first arriving tower ladder should be the only
unit in front of the collapse building, unless there is a specific need for additional
units. Subsequent arriving tower ladders should be positioned to reach and
protect a different exposure. Additional units should be directed to a designated
staging area, unless required elsewhere

5.4.2 Tower ladders are limited in size to 95 feet. At incidents involving tall/long
buildings, consider placing several units around the collapse, or using aerial
ladders (100’ reach) if needed.

Question 5

5. The Incident Commander is the senior ranking fire officer on the scene. The 1st arriving
   Battalion Chief must evaluate the overall incident and determine incident priorities, and if
   necessary adjust operations of any and all personnel operating at the scene to reflect these
   priorities. Which action taken by the 1st arriving Battalion Chief at a collapse is incorrect?
   6.2, 6.1, 6.9
   A. Establish a staging area and assign a company officer to be the Staging Area Manager until
   replaced by a Battalion Chief.
   B. Ensure the ICP is located set back from the immediate vicinity of the incident site but
   outside of the collapse zone.
   C. Transmit a preliminary report regarding the location of the ICP and the Staging Area. The
   dispatcher can assist in identifying a staging area.
   D. Designate a debris examination area, which should be a paved area near the site and
   examined to ensure it does not contain any people, remains, or potential evidence before any
   debris is moved there.

Answer 5

5. B

6.1 Take command at the scene
Announce arrival and evaluate the ICP established by the initial IC. Ensure the ICP is
located at or in the immediate vicinity of the incident site, in an area outside of the
operations site and collapse zone. Keep in mind there are likely to be multiple
responding agencies whose ranking representatives need to be accommodated at the ICP.
The ICP must be clearly visible from the collapsed structure and accessible to incoming
units. On arrival of the Division, consider use of the Division tent. Establishment of a
Command Channel (Channel 2) is essential for effective communications at large incidents.

6.2 Staging Area
The initial IC establishes a staging area. Reevaluate the location and assign a company
officer to be the Staging Area Manager until replaced by a Battalion Chief. Transmit a
preliminary report regarding the location of the ICP and the staging area. The Dispatcher
can assist in identifying a staging area

Question 6

6. Please place the following Engine Company responsibilities (Engines on the 1st alarm) in
   the correct priority order from highest to lowest priority. 7.1
7. Protect Exposures.
8. Extinguish burning vehicles with in the vicinity of the collapse.
9. Extinguish active fire in the affected building.
10. Extinguish active fire in surrounding debris.
    A. 1, 3, 4, 2
    B. 4, 1, 3, 2
    C. 3 and 4, 1, 2
    D. 3, 1, 2 and 4
    E. 3, 2, 1, 4

Answer 6

6. C

Question 7

7. Which Engine Company arriving on the first alarm at a collapse should ensure a 3 ½”
   supply line is stretched to the first Tower Ladder? 7.3.1
   A. 1st
   B. 2nd
   C. 3rd
   D. 4th

Answer 7

7. B

Question 8

8. Which Engine Companies arriving on the first alarm at a collapse may perform CFR-D
   duties? (More than 1 correct). 7.3, 7.4
   A. 1st
   B. 2nd
   C. 3rd
   D. 4th

Answer 8

8. B, C, D

Question 9

9. Which Engine Companies arriving on the first alarm at a collapse may assist in the removal
   of lightly buried victims? (More than 1 correct). 7.4
   A. 1st
   B. 2nd
   C. 3rd
   D. 4th

Answer 9

9. C, D

Question 10

10. Which action taken by L-99, the 1st arriving truck at a collapse, was incorrect? 7.5
    A. The officer of L-99 split the company into separate teams to cover more area.
    B. As conditions permitted L-99 began searching areas where voids were found for possible
    survivors.
    C. Members of L-99 physically searched accessible voids however they did not cut, lift, or
    remove load bearing members.
    D. Lightly buried victims were removed and delivered to a casualty collection point and
    survivors were questioned regarding the number, location, and identity of other occupants.

Answer 10

10. C

o Visually search accessible voids - DO NOT cut, lift or remove load
bearing members. Call and listen.

Question 11

11. Which Battalion Chief may be designated as the Fire Branch Director or Fire Sector/Group
    Supervisor? The Battalion Chief designated as the Resource Unit Leader will remain at this
    position until relieved by? After the RUL is relieved he can be expected to be possibly assigned
    as the? 8.65, 8.7.2
    A. 1st arriving BC/2nd arriving DC/Planning Section Chief
    B. 2nd arriving BC/Operations Section Chief/Safety Officer
    C. 2nd arriving BC/Field Comm Unit/Situation Unit Leader
    D. 1st arriving BC/Communications Unit Leader/Attack Chief

Answer 11

11. C

8.6.5 Fire Branch, Fire Sector or Fire Control Group
 The second arriving BC may be designated as the Fire Branch Director or
Fire Sector/Group Supervisor.

8.7.2 The BC designated as the Resource Unit Leader by the respective Borough
Dispatcher, shall report to the Planning Chief and begin tracking resources, both
assigned and operating, from all agencies involved. He/she shall remain at this
position until relieved by the Officer of the Field Communications Unit, who shall
assume that role upon his/her arrival. At this time, the BC shall report to the
Planning Section Chief for reassignment to either a Situation Unit Leader, or a
position necessary to support the Operation.

Question 12

12. Which of the following Branches/Sectors/Groups is part of the Operations Section? (More
    than one correct). 8.2, 8.6
    A. Fire Branch/Sector/Group.
    B. Search and Rescue Branch/Sector/Group
    C. Medical Group
    D. Law Enforcement Group
    E. Staging
    F. Safety Officer
    G. FAST Group
    H. Public Information Officer

Answer 12

12-A, B, C, D, E, G,

Question 13

13. A group of Captains studying for the upcoming Battalion Chiefs exam made the following
    points concerning operations at collapse incidents during a study group and were correct in
    which point? 8.1, 8.3, 8.6.3, 8.8.2
    A. If collapse conditions are present the signal 10-60 must be transmitted and the collapse
    rescue plan implemented.
    B. The 1st arriving Deputy Chief becomes the IC upon his/her arrival and the 1st arriving
    Battalion Chief can then be reassigned as the Operations Section Chief.
    C. The dispatcher will assign a Battalion Chief as the Staging Area Manager who will relieve
    the Company Officer who was designated the Staging Area Manager prior to the arrival of the
    Battalion Chief.
    D. The dispatcher will assign a Battalion Chief as the Street Coordination Manager who will
    establish contact with PD and EMS officers for traffic flow and coordinate apparatus staging
    areas.

Answer 13

13. C

8.1 If collapse conditions are present requiring an extensive rescue or search; the signal
10-60 must be transmitted and the Collapse Rescue Plan implemented.

8.3 The first arriving Deputy Chief becomes the Incident Commander and the first arriving
Battalion Chief can be reassigned as the Planning Section Chief. Upon arrival at the
scene, the Command Chief will assume the role as IC. The first arriving DC may then be
designated as the Operations Section Chief or the Search and Rescue Branch Director,
depending on conditions and other previous assignments

8.6.3 Staging
 The Dispatcher will assign a BC as the Staging Area Manager

8.8.2 Street Coordination Manager
 A company officer will be assigned as the Street Coordination Manager, with
the following responsibilities:
o The early assignment of a street management coordinator will prevent
needless congestion and repositioning of apparatus as an incident escalates.
o Establish contact with PD and EMS Officers for traffic flow.
o Ensure access/egress of essential vehicles.
o Position apparatus for most efficient use.
o Coordinate apparatus staging areas.
o Coordinate CCP with an EMS Officer.

Question 14

14. While operating at a collapse of a building under construction the Lieutenant of the 1st
    arriving truck is trying to obtain information about previous conditions pertaining to the building
    involved. Which two people listed below should the truck officer seek out to answer his
    questions? 9.1.6
    A. Building Engineer
    B. Construction Manager
    C. Building Owner
    D. Site Safety Manager

Answer 14

14. B, D

Question 15

15. The FDNY has adopted the standard emergency signaling system used by all FEMA Urban
    Search and Rescue Task Forces. These signals may be sounded on a hand held aerosol can or an
    apparatus air horn. Which signal(s) listed below is correct? 9.2.2
16. One long and one short blast = Evacuate the Area
17. Three short blasts = Resume operations
18. One long blast = Cease operations/All Quiet
    A. All
    B. None
    C. Only #1
    D. Only #2
    E. Only #3

Answer 15

15. E

 The following is the standard emergency signaling system used by all FEMA
USAR Task Forces, and adopted by this Department. It may be sounded on a
handheld aerosol can air horn, or on apparatus air horns. Each Safety Officer
and member monitoring a transit, as well as members positioned as lookouts
for hazard monitoring, will be issued an air horn.
1 Long Blast (3 seconds) Cease Operations/All Quiet
3 short blasts (1 second each) Evacuate the area
1 long and 1 short blast Resume Operations
 Those operating power tools may not hear the announcement over the HT.
Apparatus air horns may be beneficial after the initial HT announcement,
followed by another HT announcement after the air horns have ceased

Question 16

16. A number of special units, specializing in collapse rescue incidents may be automatically
    assigned or special called to any incident. Which special unit or units is incorrectly described
    below? 10.1
    A. Rescue Company members are trained in collapse rescue operations and will perform any
    victim removal activity that involves tunneling, trenching, shoring, or cutting of structural
    members.
    B. At least one Rescue Co. should be deployed at each buried victim site.
    C. Squad Co. members are not trained in collapse rescue operations. Squad Co.’s cannot be
    assigned to a site with a buried victim.
    D. Collapse rescue units carry heavy timbers and should be given priority access to the
    operational area.
    E. SOC support ladder companies are trained in collapse operations, void access and shoring
    techniques and can act as a second FAST unit working underneath the search and rescue branch.

Answer 16

16. C

Question 17

17. The FDNY has had great success with Con Ed Vacuum trucks when operating at incidents
    where large quantities of loose material had to be removed. The IC may direct who to operate
    the Con Ed Vacuum truck in conjunction with Con Ed? 10.1, Add 4
    A. Only trained Rescue Co. Members.
    B. Only trained members of SOC Support Ladders and SOC.
    C. Only trained members of SOC.
    D. No member can operate the Con Ed Vacuum truck.

Answer 17

17. C

Question 18

Use the following information to answer question 18.
1. Selected debris removal and tunneling.
2. Search of voids.
3. General debris removal.
4. Reconnaissance.
5. Accounting for and removal of surface victims.
18. Please place the five stages of the collapse rescue plan in the correct order. 11.1
A. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
B. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
C. 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
D. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5

Answer 18

18. C

The five stages of a collapse rescue operation are:
1. Reconnaissance
2. Accounting for and removal of the surface victims
3. Search of the voids
4. Selected debris removal and tunneling
5. General debris removal

Question 19

19. Rescue Paramedic Ambulance Units operate at the ALS level and are also Haz Tac trained.
    These units are trained to operate within major collapses and confined spaces. They are located
    in each borough. Which point made below concerning Rescue Paramedic Units is correct?
    10.1, 11.7, 11.8, 11.9
    A. Rescue paramedics are assigned on the transmission of a 10-60 or on the initial report of a
    major collapse.
    B. Crush syndrome is fundamentally based on three criteria: compromised local circulation,
    involvement of muscle mass, and prolonged compression usually 2 to 3 hours but possibly less
    than 30 minutes.
    C. Rescue Paramedics shall be given access to the patient as soon as the patient is sufficiently
    exposed to permit the establishment of an IV. Stability of the area around the patient is not
    important since these units are collapse trained.

Answer 19

19. A

Question 20

20. In building collapses, void spaces are often created that could shelter victims. There are
    four common types of voids: lean to void, V shaped voids, pancake voids, and the individual
    void. In which of these voids would locating a victim at a collapse be simpler than the other
    voids because the victim is unlikely to be thrown? Which void listed above will be difficult to
    locate since they occur at random depending on layout of partitions and furniture?
    11.4.3, 11.4.4
    A. Pancake Void/Individual Void
    B. Individual Void/Lean to Void
    C. Lean to Void/V shaped Void
    D. Individual Void/Lean to Void

Answer 20

20. A

Question 21

21. At the scene of a collapse BC Ruth, the incident commander, used multiple methods to
    remove victims since enough manpower and equipment were on the scene and the stability of the
    debris pile was stable. He also ensured that communications between the two different teams
    operating was established and maintained. After hearing a report that shoring lumber and
    concrete saw cutting blades were needed to reach a victim BC Ruth had his aide request the
    response of a collapse POD. Do you: 10.1, 11.6.7
    A. Agree
    or
    D. Disagree with BC Ruth’s actions at this scene?

Answer 21

21. D

 Only a Command Chief can request the response of the PODS.

Question 22

22. Members are operating at a collapse of a 3 story row frame building in Greenpoint
    Brooklyn at 0400 hours. The building was an isolated corner building that has collapsed in a
    pancake collapse. The owner of the building lives across the street and states that the building is
    occupied by two families with a total of 8 people. 5 of the 8 people have been accounted for and
    removed from the collapse with 3 people still unaccounted for. Which action taken by units at
    this collapse was incorrect? 11.4.6
    A. After a voice was heard members used the around the clock method. Members were
    positioned around the area where the voice was heard and took turns calling out and listening for
    the victim in an attempt to triangulate their position.
    B. The collapse survivor interview form was used while talking with victims who were
    already accounted for. A certified/trained search dog was brought in to assist in the search.
    C. The officer of L-146 used his thermal imaging camera to help detect heat and look for
    movement of a victim as they breathe. The TIC is helpful since the entire debris pile and
    everyone in it is likely to be covered in the same exact color of dust.
    D. During the initial stage of the collapse Rescue 4 arrived and placed their electronic
    listening device into operation. The sensors were placed on the debris pile and moved in a grid
    pattern, allowing readings from multiple devices to be compared.

Answer 22

22. D

Electronic listening devices: Life Detection Systems are located on all
Collapse Rescue Units. When the probes are placed on top of the debris pile,
it detects sounds or vibrations from within the pile. These devices are quite
sensitive and can pick up sounds or vibrations for a considerable distance.
They are not practical to be used during the initial stages of a collapse, for
there is too much activity. It is appropriate to use these devices once the void
exploration phase is complete and all known victims have been removed
during the selected debris removal. It is necessary to remove all personnel
from the debris pile and shut down all moving equipment before they are put
into use. The sensors are placed on the debris pile and moved in a grid
pattern, allowing readings from multiple devices to be compared.

Question 23

23. At times the FDNY is asked by the Dept. of Buildings or Housing, Preservation, and
    Development to install shoring in structures that have suffered structural damage. Which is the
    only correct point below about shoring? 11.5.3
    A. In a building where there is no civilian life hazard, shoring will only be installed if it can be
    done safely at minimal risk to members and where there is any amount of property that can be
    safeguarded.
    B. Shoring will be installed whenever human life is in danger to provide a safe area around the
    victims and rescuers. Once installed shoring will not be removed by members of the FDNY.
    C. If a building is going to be demolished, even after shoring, it will not be shored, except to
    facilitate rescue operations or the safe evacuation of occupants.

Answer 23

23. C

11.5.3 Shoring Guidelines: At times, the FDNY is asked by the Department of Buildings,
or Housing Preservation and Development to install shoring in structures that
have suffered structural damage. As a guideline, the FDNY will only install
shoring in the following instances:
 Whenever human life is in danger, to provide a safe area around
victims/rescuers.
 When shoring will permit a building to remain safe to occupy.
 Buildings in which there is no civilian life hazard will only be shored if the
shoring can be safely installed at minimal risk to members, and where there is
a substantial property risk that can be safeguarded by the shoring.
 A vacant or unoccupied building will not be shored when there is a substantial
risk to members installing the shoring, or the use of shoring is unlikely to
substantially improve the overall outcome.
 If the building is going to be demolished, even after shoring, it will not be
shored, except to facilitate rescue operations or the safe evacuation of
occupants.
 Once installed, shoring will only be removed when the load is otherwise
stabilized, or the situation permits the shores to be removed from a safe area.

Question 24

24. Which statement(s) below is/are true? 11.6.1, 11.6.4, 11.12.1
25. The selected debris removal phase begins when all voids have been searched and people
    are still unaccounted for. It is a useful tactic if we have no idea where the victims are
    located. Use extreme caution as this phase is an even more dangerous task than a void
    search.
26. General debris removal is started after all other methods have been employed, people are
    still missing, and their location is unknown. This phase is begun when it is certain that
    there are no other survivors, all voids have been searched, and the selected debris removal
    and tunneling demonstrates there is no chance for survival for missing victims.
    A. Both B. Neither C. Only #1 D. Only #2

Answer 24

24. D

11.6.1 The selected debris removal phase begins when all voids have been searched and
people are still unaccounted for. Selected debris removal is used to reach specific
locations where victims are located or suspected to be. It is not a useful tactic if
we have no idea where the victims are located. It may involve breaching a hole
through a wall, cutting through a roof or a floor or tunneling through mixed
debris.

Question 25

25. During a drill about marking collapsed buildings using the search assessment marking
    system the following points were made. Which point is incorrect? Add 2
    A. The actual mark consists of a 2’ x 2’ letter X using lime yellow spray paint similar to the
    vacant building marking. A square should be drawn around the X. Two cans of line yellow
    spray paint should be carried on all apparatus.
    B. A single slash and the unit identity are made upon entry to the structure or area. The
    second crossing slash should be drawn when all personnel exit the structure or area.
    C. In the top quadrant of the X the date and time that the company/team left the structure or
    area is indicated.
    D. The right side of the X is used to indicate hazards within the structure of area. The bottom
    of the X is used to indicate the number of live or expired victims still inside the area or structure.

Answer 25

25. A

Question 26

26. While operating at a collapse scene the proby sees a V with a circle around it and a
    horizontal line through the middle of the V. He asks his Lieutenant what this means. The
    Lieutenant should answer? Add 2
    A. A known or potential victim is inside.
    B. The location of the potential victim has been confirmed.
    C. The confirmed victim is deceased.
    D. The victim has been removed from the specific location.

Answer 26

26. C

Question 27

1. The collapse search and rescue plan consists of 8 steps according to Dunn. Please place the
   steps listed below in the correct order. Dunn 18
2. Survey the site of the collapse.
3. Search for and remove surface victims first.
4. Start general rubble removal.
5. Secure the area.
6. Shut off all utilities.
7. Tunnel and trench.
8. Take a time out.
9. Search all voids and spaces created by the collapsed structure.
   A. 4, 1, 5, 2, 8, 7, 6, 3
   B. 7, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 3
   C. 1, 4, 2, 5, 8, 3, 7, 6
   D. 2, 8, 7, 5, 4, 1, 3, 6

Answer 27

1. C

Question 28

2. Several steps of a collapse rescue plan should not be carried out simultaneously since this
   can create confusion as to which steps were or were not completed. It is necessary to complete
   one step before starting the next step of the collapse rescue plan. Dunn 18
   A. True or B. False

Answer 28

2. B

Question 29

3. During afternoon drill members of L-100 were discussing shoring at collapse operations.
   Which point made by the members during the drill is correct? Dunn 18
   A. The important point when shoring is to move or attempt to move the unstable structure to
   its original position as this could prevent a collapse.
   B. An observer should be positioned at the point of the shoring to monitor the structural
   member continuously for further movement that might endanger members.
   C. A supporting object placed beneath an unstable structure should be placed tightly against
   the object it is supporting so as to prevent any movement.
   D. If an unstable wall leans further, or an unsupported floor appears to move rescue work can
   continue while additional shoring or removal is undertaken.

Answer 29

3. D

Question 30

4. During the time out step of the collapse rescue plan safety hazards are reexamined and
   locations of buried victims are determined. During this time a conference will be held between
   the IC and all but which of the following members? Dunn 18
   A. Operation Officer
   B. Planning Officer
   C. Public Information Officer
   D. Victim Tracking Officer

Answer 30

C

Question 31

5. Which operation, tunneling or trenching, is slower, safer, and has a less of a chance of a
   secondary collapse? After surface victim removal and void search what percent of survivors
   have been found? Is it better to have more or fewer members engaged in rescue work when the
   exact location of a victim is known? Dunn 18
   A. Tunneling / 50%/More
   B. Trenching / 75%/More
   C. Tunneling / 50%/Fewer
   D. Trenching / 75%/Fewer

Answer 31

5. D

Question 32

6. General debris removal is the last step of the collapse rescue plan. Which point below is
   incorrect concerning the general debris removal step? Dunn 18
   A. General debris removal is done after all victims are discovered, accounted for, and all
   pinpointed locations of tunneling and trenching have been reached.
   B. The FDNY will remain in charge of the scene during this entire phase. Since there is little
   chance of survivors’ mechanical pay loaders and cranes may be used.
   C. Even if all victims are accounted for, general debris removal will be carried out.
   D. Each load of wreckage should be spread out on the ground and examined by the employees
   of the company conducting the removal of debris along with the medical examiner.

Answer 32

6. D

Question 33

7. BC McMeister is working a day tour in Battalion 44 and is operating at a fire on the first
   floor of a two story house which is attached to another two story house. The houses are attached
   but separated by a firewall between the buildings. Members of E-100 and L-100 are operating in
   the original fire area which is the left side of this attached house when viewing it from the street.
   L-101 and E-102 are operating in the right side (EXP 4 side) of the attached house. The officer
   of L-100 calls BC McMeister and tells him that the first floor joists are pulling away from the
   masonry wall supports and that he is hearing creaking and cracking sounds from the structure.
   The officer of L-101 tells BC McMeister that everything is fine in the attached house and there is
   no fire extension just a light smoke condition. Based on these reports BC McMeister should take
   which action below? Dunn 19
   A. Evacuate members of E-100 and L-100.
   B. Evacuate members of E-100, L-100, E-102, and L-101.
   C. Wait for the Deputy Chief to arrive.
   D. Have units continue to fight the fire from a safe area inside the building.

Answer 33

7. B

Question 34

9. In some instances the IC may order a partial withdrawal of members to a safe location
   inside the building and interior firefighting continued. This practice can only be allowed when?
   Dunn 19
   A. The construction of the building is known in detail.
   B. Partial collapse will not cause the entire structure to fail.
   C. Both
   D. Neither

Answer 34

9. C

Question 35

10. BC Knowitall is operating at a fire in a two story taxpayer. The fire is on the first floor
    with some extension to the second floor. While operating at this fire if BC Knowitall gets a
    report of a dangerous condition he should be guided by which one point below? Dunn 19
    A. If a report of a known minor danger is received by the BC he must acknowledge the report
    and must take action to address the situation.
    B. At night the IC (BC Knowitall) may order increased lighting. A flood light may be
    directed on a cracked wall or a spot light may illuminate the entire area in front of a burning
    building where a defect exists.
    C. The IC may order a firefighter to investigate a reported danger. The firefighter investigates
    the condition and advises the chief on whether to continue or discontinue operations in the
    vicinity of the danger.
    D. Another chief or fire officer may be directed to operate in the danger area to increase the
    supervision of firefighter from a position close to the operation.

Answer 35

10. D

Question 36

11. Captain Carter and his company, L-100, are operating at a box where a masonry chimney is
    leaning and in danger of collapse. The proby is in the process of cordoning off the danger area.
    Which action taken by the proby is incorrect? Dunn 19
    A. The rope or tape was tied around the apparatus, building parts, or utility poles.
    B. The rope was placed waist to head high above the ground.
    C. Continuous monitoring is required to ensure the roped off area is not entered by civilians or
    firefighters.
    D. The area was cordoned off using utility rope or orange marking tape.

Answer 36

11. B

Question 37

12. Which warning sign listed below is a cause for an IC to withdraw firefighters from a
    building? Dunn 19
    A. An explosion.
    B. A large body of fire on several floors in an old combustible building.
    C. A terrorist event.
    D. A Haz Mat incident that threatens to overtake an trap firefighters.

Answer 37

12. B

Question 38

13. How many of the operations listed below, where dangers are always present, would the
    assignment of a chief officer often be directed are listed correctly? Dunn 19
14. Cellar Fires
15. Operating on the floor above a fire.
16. Roof Venting
17. Top Floor Fires
18. Hose line advancement at a rapidly spreading fire.
    A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Answer 38

13. D

Question 39

1. While discussing the proper use of bunker gear during drill, members made the following
   statements. In which statement(s) were they incorrect? AUC 310 2.4, 2.9, 3.2.1, 3.2.4
   A. Bunker gear is not a close proximity entry suit. In a flashover situation members must be
   within 10 -15 feet of an exit in order to survive.
   B. Upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood, a member must always immediately
   leave the area.
   C. In hot weather, if the apparatus is not equipped with a functioning air conditioner, coats and
   protective hoods may be dispensed with while responding.
   D. Members shall not drive department apparatus with rubber or leather boots. Chauffer boots
   are optional.

Answer 39

1. A, B, D

2.4 Bunker Gear when properly used and maintained will afford a limited period of
protection to exit an area which has become or is about to become untenable. It is not a “Close Proximity Entry Suit” such as that used in Airport
Crash and Fire Rescues. In a
flashover situation, a Bunker equipped member must be within 5 to 10 feet of an exit in
order to survive.

2.9 It must be understood that wearing the hood in a hostile environment somewhat reduces
your ability to note changing fire conditions in the immediate area. Therefore, you must
leave the area immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood,
unless the area can be immediately cooled by a hoseline. Remember; always stay
alert to deteriorating conditions.

3.2.4 Members shall not drive Department apparatus while wearing rubber boots.
Driving with bunker pants and the Chauffeur boots or leather boots is optional

Question 40

2. In hot weather, coats and protective hoods may be dispensed with while responding to
   which of the following: AUC 310 3.2.2
3. Non Structural Fires
4. Response to BARS Alarms
5. Non Fire Responses
6. ERS NC and Class E Alarms
7. CFR-D and CPR Runs
   A. All of them.
   B. 1, 2, 4
   C. 1, 3, 4
   D. 2, 3, 5

Answer 40

2. A

Question 41

3. After receiving the new gear bags, members of E-100 were reviewing the policy
   concerning the transportation and storage of bunker gear. Which point below is incorrect?
   AUC 310 Section 9
   A. When transporting the firefighting protective ensemble in a private vehicle, such items
   shall be placed in the gear bag before being placed in the passenger compartment or trunk of the
   vehicle.
   B. Members are prohibited from wearing or bringing their firefighting protective ensemble
   into living areas of the firehouse such as kitchens, sitting rooms, TV rooms, offices, bunkrooms,
   and gym areas.
   C. The Company Commander shall review and sign the gear bag log in red pen on a monthly
   basis. The gear bag log shall be kept for 2 years. Chief Officers shall examine the log for
   compliance.
   D. Gear bags shall be stored in the company office and shall be locked in a locker to prevent
   theft. Only a company officer can take a mark on the gear bag log and issue a gear bag to a
   member.

Answer 41

3.

9.5 Gear bags shall be stored in the company office, and shall be readily available to
members in the event that the unit is out of quarters and a company officer is not
available to issue the gear bag.

Question 42

4. While out on afternoon building inspection, members of L-100 see a man steal an old
   lady’s purse. The thief is running down the street with the purse. The old lady is lying on the
   street after she was knocked over by the thief. The officer of L-100 would be correct to order his
   members to take which action below? AUC 317 Add 2
   A. Have two of his firefighters chase down the suspect, have two firefighters provide first
   aid/assistance to the old lady, and notify the police.
   B. Have his member’s provide first aid/assistance to the old lady and have the police notified
   of the incident.
   C. Notify the police and continue with building inspection

Answer 42

4. B

Question 43

5. During fire and emergency operations members should be aware of the possibility that a
   crime may have taken place. If it is suspected a crime has occurred, consideration must be given
   to preservation of the scene and evidence. Which point below made at drill is correct concerning
   crime scene operations? AUC 317 2, 5.11, 5.12, 5.14,
   A. A crime scene is the area where a crime was committed and any path to and from the scene.
   Only fire related DOA’s should be treated as a potential crime scene.
   B. After finding a dead hanging victim or a bound body inside a building, carefully cut down
   the hanging victim, and untie the bound body and cover with a plain white sheet.
   C. Fire Marshalls should be notified to respond to voucher currency at any operation where
   large amounts of currency are discovered. Weapons or drugs found at a crime scene should be
   referred to the police.
   D. Upon the transmission of a 10-41 the Incident Commander should transmit an URGENT on
   the handie talkie and announce that a 10-41 has been transmitted and inform members that they
   are probably working in a crime scene.

Answer 43

5. C

5.14 Fire Marshals shall be notified to respond to voucher currency at any operation where
large amounts of currency are discovered.

Question 44

6. At a recent company commanders meeting, there was a discussion about the probationary
   firefighter’s development program since probies are being hired again. The captains were a little
   rusty on this subject and were only correct in which statement(s) below? AUC 323
   A. Probationary notebooks shall be maintained for one full year from the date the member is
   assigned to a field unit.
   B. The probies are required to continue with their reading schedule for three years.
   C. The notebook shall be reviewed weekly by the proby and monthly by the officer on duty
   and company commander.
   D. Chief Officers shall review the notebook on a monthly basis during company drill visits.
   E. Notebooks shall be kept in the proby’s locker when not in use.
   F. If a training note book is lost or destroyed the company commander must forward a report
   to the Bureau of training via the chain of command within 30 days.

Answer 44

6. A, B

2.1 Probationary firefighters shall ensure the training notebook is reviewed on a regular basis
according to the following schedule:
 Probationary Firefighter- Review weekly. Initial and date in blue or black ink.
 Officer on Duty- Review each tour the member works. Initial and date in red ink.
 Company Commander- Review monthly. Initial and date in red ink.
 Chief Officers- Review during company drill visits. Initial and date in red ink

1.5 If the training notebook is lost or destroyed, the company commander must forward a
report through the chain of command to the administrative Division within 30 days,
outlining the details of the loss or destruction of the training notebook. The training
notebook must be replaced at the members expense and a notation of the replacement
must be made in the report forwarded to the administrative Division. The loss or
destruction of the training notebook will be noted in the subsequent evaluation report of
the member and may result in disciplinary action\

Note: Probationary Firefighter Training Notebooks shall be maintained until the 17th
month when it is forwarded for evaluation. Probationary firefighters are required to
continue their Reading Schedule for three years. Company Commanders shall ensure
Reading schedules for members under their command are maintained.

Question 45

7. E-316 is operating at LaGuardia Airport and must supply water to a PAPD crash truck.
   The Lieutenant should know that at LaGuardia airport wall hydrants are designated by large
   phosphorescent signs composed of? AUC 325 Add 1 4.2.2
   A. A green H on a white background.
   B. A white H on a green background.
   C. A green W on a white background.
   D. A white W on a green background.

Answer 45

7. B

Question 46

8. The color of the flight data recorder may be? As a general rule the location of the voice
   and data recorder will be? At the staging area Engine and Ladder Co.’s shall form up in a double
   line convoy with Ladder Co.’s on the _______ side? AUC 325
   A. Black/Front of the fuselage/Left side.
   B. Bright yellow/Either of the wings/Right side.
   C. International Orange/Rear of the fuselage/Left side.
   D. Red/Nose of the plane/Right Side.

Answer 46

8. C

Question 47

9. Chief Officers operating at airports should follow all but which of the points listed below?
   AUC 325
   A. When a control tower pull box is pulled or a call 34 or 44 is made the PAPD Tour
   Commander will ensure the BC is promptly escorted to the incident site and taken directly to the
   PAPD I/C.
   B. The priority order of communication from the Chief at the command post to the staging
   area is: 1. Port Authority Radio 2. Queens Dispatcher 3. 800 MHz radio.
   C. The 1st arriving BC shall activate channel 6B and his cell phone. The BC should also
   designate a company officer to command the staging area until the arrival of a second BC.
   D. The second due BC is designated the staging area chief.

Answer 47

9. B

5.3 Communications:

5.3.1 All units shall monitor the Department radio in addition to handi talkies.
5.3.2 800 Mhz portable radios are carried by B-49, B-51, B-52, B-54 and Divisions 13
and 14.

5.3.3 First arriving Battalion Chief shall activate 800 Mhz radio (Channel 6B) and
cellular phone.

5.3.4 Communications from the Command Post Chief at the scene to the Staging Area
can be as follows:
• Via 800 MHz directly to FD Command Post when both units have 800 MHz
radios.
• Via Queens Fire Dispatcher through Department radio when two 800 MHz
radio are not yet available.
• Via Port Authority Radio from FDNY Command Chief to PAPD Liaison at
the Staging Area

Question 48

10. Lt. Carter is a newly promoted officer working his first tour in E-308. While operating at a
    fuel spill at Kennedy Airport Lt. Carter would know which point below to be correct?
    AUC 325 Add 2
    A. A yellow hydrant at the airport requires a 3 ½” hydrant key to open the hydrant.
    B. A yellow hydrant at the airport has a pressure of 160 psi.
    C. A hydrant with a yellow bonnet is a low pressure delivering 60 psi.
    D. A yellow hydrant on a parkway requires 17 turns clockwise to turn on.

Answer 48

10 . B
4.2 Water Supply

4.2.1 Hydrants
• Low Pressure - 60 PSI (Black body with silver top)
• Intermediate Pressure - 90 PSI (Black body with yellow top)
• High Pressure - 160 PSI (All yellow)

Question 49

1. E-100 has arrived, along with a full 1st alarm, at a fire in a gas station. A car has knocked
   over a gas pump and ignited a 400 square foot area of gasoline. Members of E-100 stretch a
   foam hand line to extinguish the fire. Which point below about this operation is incorrect?
   Foam Evolution 1, TB Foam 5.2, 7.3.1
   A. Lt. Wright of E-100 knows that a single foam hand line is usually sufficient to cover up to a
   20’ x 30’ sq/ft area and that with a full 1st alarm on the scene there is enough concentrate to last
   22 minutes.
   B. Engine Co.’s are required to carry three 5 gallon buckets of foam concentrate while Ladder
   Co.’s are required to carry two 5 gallon buckets of foam concentrate for a total of 65 gallons of
   concentrate.
   C. Only 1 ¾” hose can be stretched between the nozzle and the foam educator. The maximum
   amount of 1 ¾ hose will depend on distance, however a maximum of 6 lengths of 1 ¾ hose is
   allowed between the eductor and the nozzle.
   D. The eductor should be supplied with 2 ½” hose at a pressure of 200 psi at the eductor. To
   reduce back pressure at the eductor, the nozzle should be operated at or below the level of the
   eductor. In order for the eductor to function properly the nozzle should be fully opened.

Answer 49

1. C

Question 50

2. Lt. Johnson and his members, E-100 and foam carrier F-100, are responding to tanker truck
   mishap with a spill of approximately 1000 sq/ft. The foam carrier will be used at this box to
   deliver finished firefighting foam using a hand line and the deck gun. Which action taken by E-
   100/F-100 at this incident was incorrect? Foam Evolution 2
   A. Upon arrival at the box Lt. Johnson was informed by the IC that E-99 was at a hydrant
   awaiting the foam carrier. E-99 was designated for the foam carrier only.
   B. Members pulled sufficient 3 ½” hose to attach to the supply pumper. Members used the
   hose load ending with the male coupling. The ECC of the foam carrier connected the 3 ½” hose
   to the gated inlet of the foam carrier.
   C. The foam carrier officer, Lt. Johnson, called the ECC of E-99 to start water. One member
   climbed onto the deck of the apparatus and trained the nozzle onto the fire.
   D. The remaining members of the company then placed a foam hand line into operation by
   stretching by stretching 1 ¾” hose from the preconnected eductor.

Answer 50

2. B

2.2 Foam Carrier stops at supply pumper located at the hydrant. Members pull sufficient 3½”
hose to attach to supply pumper. Use the hose load ending with the female coupling.

Question 51

3. The Foam Carrier carries 1,000 gallons of foam concentrate. When using a 310 gallon per
   minute high capacity foam nozzle and a 95 gallon per minute foam nozzle will supply 405 gallon
   per minute of foam solution. When educting at 3%, which is the percentage used for
   hydrocarbon fires, there will be enough concentrate in the 1,000 gallon booster tank to last
   approximately how many minutes? Foam Evolution 2
   A. 100 minutes
   B. 80 minutes
   C. 60 minutes
   D. 40 minutes

Answer 51

3. B

2.12 For example, a 310 GPM high capacity foam nozzle and a 95 GPM foam nozzle could
supply 405 GPM of solution. Educting at 3% solution, there will be enough concentrate
in the 1000-gallon booster tank for approximately 80 minutes

Question 52

4. During MUD members are drilling on the ground mounted foam cannon. Each firefighter
   made a point about the cannon during the drill. What is the only correct point made during this
   drill? Foam Evolution 3
   A. Stretch the largest available hose to the foam cannon. Under no condition should the hose
   be less than 3 ½” to supply the foam cannon.
   B. The foam cannon should be secured with a utility rope to a substantial object. 2 ½” from
   the foam carrier is used to supply the portable reservoir.
   C. The Captain of the Foam Carrier shall order the delivery of foam concentrate to the
   reservoir once assured that the cannon and the reservoir are in a suitable position.
   D. The foam cannon on an eductor setting of 3% will use 35 gallons of concentrate to produce
   970 gallons of solution per minute. A 1,000 gallon booster tank will last approximately 30
   minutes.

Answer 52

4. D

2.3 Stretch largest available hose to the cannon. Under no condition should hose less than
2½” be used to supply the Foam Cannon

2.4 Secure the Foam Cannon with a utility rope to a substantial object.

2.5 Stretch 1¾” hose from the Foam Carrier to the Portable Reservoir. Secure the hose to the
top of the reservoir.

2.6 The Chief Officer in Command shall order the delivery of foam concentrate to the
Portable Reservoir once assured that the Cannon and the Reservoir are in a suitable
position. The Chief Officer in Command of the fire will order water started

Question 53

5. When a Foam Carrier or Foam Tender unit is supplying a Satellite pumper with foam
   concentrate through 1 ¾” hose the pressure in this line should be how many psi over hydrant
   pressure in order to prevent back-up into the Foam Carrier of Foam Tender? Foam
   Evolution 4
   A. 40 psi
   B. 45 psi
   C. 50 psi
   D. 55 psi

Answer 53

5. C

Question 54

6. When using a modified Angus foam cannon or Akron master stream foam nozzle attached
   to a tower ladder members should be guided by which one point below? Foam
   Evolution 4
   A. When a FIMM pumper is connected to a hydrant or to a supply from the domestic water
   system, the 4 ½” backflow prevention may be needed.
   B. The tower ladder should be raised and pointed away from the fire until foam operations are
   started. The bucket of the tower ladder should have a maximum of two members, one of which
   is an officer.
   C. It is necessary to supply the base of the tower ladder with at least 250 psi in order to obtain
   the proper nozzle pressure. This can never be accomplished without placing a relay pumper in
   the stretch located no more than 50 feet from the base of the tower ladder.
   D. Both the FIMM pumper and the relay pumper need to operate in the volume position. The
   relay pumper operating in volume needs to have a supply pressure of 80 psi to be able to supply
   the tower ladder with 250 psi.

Answer 54

6. D

2.1 Connect a FIMM Pumper to a reliable water supply and charge pump. When a FIMM
Pumper is connected to a hydrant or to a supply from the domestic water system, the
4½” back-flow prevention valve must be utilized.

2.3 The Tower Ladder should be raised and pointed away from the fire until foam operations
are started. The bucket of the Tower Ladder should be unmanned.

2.8 It is necessary to supply the base of the Tower Ladder with at least 250 PSI in order to
obtain the proper nozzle pressure. This usually cannot be accomplished without placing
a relay pumper in the stretch located at the base of the Tower Ladder

Question 55

7. Which piece of equipment listed below will attach directly onto the STANG of the tower
   ladder without any special tools or fittings? Foam Evolution 4
   A. 725 or 1025 GPM Modified Angus Foam Cannon
   B. 500 GPM Akron Master Stream Foam Nozzle

Answer 55

7. A

NOTE: The 500 GPM Akron Master Stream Nozzle screws onto the Stang without any special
tools or fittings

Question 56

8. Engine 324 and the Satellite are operating at a box where the modified Angus foam cannon
   attached to the satellite apparatus is going to be used. Lt. Ike, a covering officer, made the
   following four points about this evolution. In which point should the members of E-324 correct
   Lt. Ike? Foam Evolution 5
   A. The FIMM pumper (the 2000 gpm pumper) is to supply the satellite apparatus with foam
   concentrate through a 5” hose line. The 5” hose line can be replaced with two 3 ½” hose lines
   from the FIMM pumper or from the manifold supplied from a FIMM pumper.
   B. If the pumper supplying the foam concentrate is a 1000 gallon per minute pumper then the
   supply lines to the satellite apparatus will be two 3 ½” hose line.
   C. The satellite can produce finished firefighting foam to a height of 80’ and a distance of
   180’. If two Akron 500 GPM nozzles are attached to the satellite apparatus in addition to the
   foam cannon then an additional 1000 gallons of finished firefighting foam could be produced.
   D. When foam operations are to begin the Chief in charge will issue the order to start water.
   After water is established the operator of the FIMM pumper will begin proportioning foam at 3%
   into the water flow.

Answer 56

8. A
9. Engine 324 and the Satellite are operating at a box where the modified Angus foam cannon
   attached to the satellite apparatus is going to be used. Lt. Ike, a covering officer, made the
   following four points about this evolution. In which point should the members of E-324 correct
   Lt. Ike? Foam Evolution 5
   A. The FIMM pumper (the 2000 gpm pumper) is to supply the satellite apparatus with foam
   concentrate through a 5” hose line. The 5” hose line can be replaced with two 3 ½” hose lines
   from the FIMM pumper or from the manifold supplied from a FIMM pumper.
   B. If the pumper supplying the foam concentrate is a 1000 gallon per minute pumper then the
   supply lines to the satellite apparatus will be two 3 ½” hose line.
   C. The satellite can produce finished firefighting foam to a height of 80’ and a distance of
   180’. If two Akron 500 GPM nozzles are attached to the satellite apparatus in addition to the
   foam cannon then an additional 1000 gallons of finished firefighting foam could be produced.
   D. When foam operations are to begin the Chief in charge will issue the order to start water.
   After water is established the operator of the FIMM pumper will begin proportioning foam at 3%
   into the water flow.

foam solution not concentrate

Question 57

9. While operating as the foam coordinator BC Smith decided to have all units involved in the
   re-supply of the foam system use a separate radio frequency in order maintain good
   communications since there were long distances between the staging area, foam assembly point,
   and the FIMM pumper. Do you: Foam Evolution 6
   A. Agree or D. Disagree with BC Smith’s decision?

Answer 57

9. A
10. While operating as the foam coordinator BC Smith decided to have all units involved in the
    re-supply of the foam system use a separate radio frequency in order maintain good
    communications since there were long distances between the staging area, foam assembly point,
    and the FIMM pumper. Do you: Foam Evolution 6
    A. Agree or D. Disagree with BC Smith’s decision?

Question 58

10. True or False? Since the mini manifold is used in reverse it is possible for three different
    nurse trucks to supply foam concentrate to the foam carrier at the same time. All three valves
    (inlets) must be opened at the same time to keep a balanced pressure.
    A. True or B. False

Answer 58

10. B. False

2.4 As foam is pumped out of the original Foam Carrier or Foam Tender attached to the
FIMM pumper, one Nurse Truck will re-supply it at a time. One valve on the Mini
Manifold is opened at a time. The radio-equipped member on top of the original Foam
Carrier will open and close the valve on the foam inlet as necessary to keep a sufficient
flow without causing frothing.

Question 59

11. While operating at a fire in an oil burner room, the AFFF extinguisher was used by the
    proby to extinguish the fire. After operations where concluded the Captain was drilling with the
    proby about the use and care of the AFFF extinguisher. Which point made by the proby is
    incorrect? Foam Add 1
    A. The extinguisher should be check after the start of each tour for damage, corrosion,
    condition of the cap and collar threads, serviceability of the gasket, and the air pressure (100 psi).
    B. When recharging the AFFF extinguisher first add 2 gallons of water, then slowly add 10
    ounces of AFFF concentrate, and finally add more water to reach 2 ½ gallons.
    C. If the AFFF extinguisher is not fully expended, the remaining solution can be held in
    reserve in case of re-ignition. An AFFF extinguisher not used within one year after charging
    must be emptied, refilled, and recharged.
    D. The AFFF extinguisher can be used on special class A fires such as tire fires and small
    rubbish fires. It is not necessary to play AFFF against a backboard or the side of the tank to form
    a film on the oil surface.

Answer 59

11. A
12. DAILY INSPECTION.
    ♦ Damage or corrosion.
    ♦ Condition of the cap and collar threads.
    ♦ Serviceability of the gasket.
    ♦ Air pressure (100 psi)

Question 60

1. It is 0900 hours and the new proby is checking the rig, L-100 which is a tower ladder.
   While he (the proby) is checking the rig an EMS ambulance arrives and asks the officer if they
   can fuel up the ambulance. After receiving permission from the officer of L-100 the driver of the
   ambulance proceeds to back up the ambulance into quarters in front of L-100 which is parked in
   its proper spot in the firehouse. While he is backing up the ambulance the driver accidentally
   hits the gas pedal instead of the brake and smashes into the front of the tower ladder. The tower
   ladder has a broken windshield (both sides), broken headlights, and dents to the front bumper
   and front of the apparatus. The damage is deemed by the officer on duty to be significant. The
   proby that was inside the cab of L-100 when it was struck hit his head upon impact and is going
   to need stitches to close the wound. The injury to the proby is minor. The officer of L-100
   should know that he must? SB 56 3.1, 4.3, 5.1, Comm CH 7 Safety Battalion
   A. Consider this event a major accident and forward a CD-19. The safety battalion will be
   responding.
   B. Consider this event a minor accident and forward a CD-19. The safety battalion does not
   respond to minor accidents.
   C. Consider this event an incident and does not have to forward a CD-19. The safety battalion
   must respond since a member is injured.
   D. Consider this event an incident and forward a CD-19. The safety battalion will not be
   responding.

Answer 60

1. D

4.3 INCIDENT
A vehicle related occurrence that results in damage to a Department vehicle when the
vehicle is properly parked, or damage that is discovered during routine inspection of the
vehicle. Minor injuries, serious injuries or fatal injuries to members while operating on
a parked apparatus shall also be defined as an incident.
Note 1. An allegation that a Department vehicle caused damage to a civilian
vehicle or property should be treated as an incident.
Note 2. Damage to a civilian vehicle caused by a properly parked apparatus
operating at alarms, (e.g., a tower ladder outrigger damaging a parked
car) inspection activities, MUD, should be treated as an incident; CD19
and CD19A should be prepared

Question 61

2. Which definition listed below is not entirely correct? SB 56 4.1, 4.2, 4.4, 4.5
   A. An apparatus accident is defined as any vehicle related event that results in injury or
   property damage, including vandalism, even when damage is minor and may not be repaired, or
   an injury to a member caused by a fall or being thrown from a moving or parked apparatus.
   B. All motor vehicles assigned to the New York City Fire Department shall be considered
   apparatus. In addition, for accident reporting purposes, member’s private vehicles, when
   authorized for use on department business, are also considered apparatus.
   C. A minor accident is an apparatus accident that results in either minor or moderate damage
   to the department vehicle or to a civilian vehicle or property. An accident that results in no
   injuries or minor injuries to civilians and/or members.
   D. A major accident is an apparatus accident that results in either significant damage to the
   department or civilian vehicle, or private property. Any accident that results in serious injury or
   death to a civilian or member.

Answer 61

2. A

4.2 ACCIDENT
An apparatus accident is defined as any vehicle related event that results in injury or
property damage (excluding vandalism), even when damage is minor and may not be
repaired, or an injury to a member caused by a fall or being thrown from a moving
apparatus

Question 62

3. E-100 was involved in a minor accident while stopped at a red light. The vehicle behind E-
   100 accidentally hit the back of the rig because the driver was texting. There is no damage to E-
   100, no injuries to the members or the civilian, a small scratch to the front bumper of the civilian
   vehicle, and nothing unusual about the accident. Who will determine the accident classification?
   SB 56 5.1
   A. The investigating Deputy Chief
   B. The Safety Battalion
   C. The investigating Battalion Chief
   D. The Safety Command Accident Claims Unit

Answer 62

3. C

5.1 If the investigating Battalion Chief deems it appropriate, in questionable cases (e.g.,
numerous injuries, unusual circumstances), the Battalion Chief shall consult with the
Division Chief and a Safety Battalion Chief prior to making such determination. The
Battalion’s cellular phone is appropriate for such consultation.

5.1.1 The Safety Battalion Chief is authorized to downgrade or upgrade an accident
should information later come to light which makes such a change appropriate.

5.1.2 The Safety Battalion Chief will be notified by the Bureau of Fire
Communications about all accidents, shall respond to all major accidents, and
may respond to minor accidents.

Question 63

4. BC Wright must take which of the following action(s) listed below when investigating an
   apparatus accident? (More than one correct) SB 56 6.4.1, 27.4, FOC 1 Form
5. As soon as possible after returning from an apparatus accident scene, the BC responsible
   for conducting the investigation (BC Wright) shall e-mail the FOC 1 report to FDOC.
6. After e-mailing the FOC 1 report to the FDOC, BC Wright should call the FDOC to verify
   the receipt of the e-mail.
7. Before leaving the scene of an apparatus accident, BC Wright transmitted the plate number
   and the state of registration to the FDNY dispatcher.
8. Since the accident occurred at the end of BC Wright’s tour and he is scheduled to start
   vacation, the CD19A will be completed upon return of BC Wright from vacation leave.
   A. All
   B. None
   C. 1, 2, 3
   D. 2, 3, 4
   E. 1, 2, 4

Answer 63

4. C

6.4 Notification to Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC)
6.4.1 Battalion Chiefs should be aware that timely notification to Fire Department
Operations Center is required whenever a Fire Department vehicle is involved in
an accident. This includes vehicles assigned to EMS, Support Services, and Fire
Prevention. As soon as possible after returning to quarters from the accident
scene, the Battalion Chief responsible for conducting the investigation shall
email a completed FOC-1 report to Fire Department Operations Center at
FDOC@fdny.nyc.gov, fol

27.4 Most apparatus accidents occur within a unit’s administrative or response area and are
investigated by Chief Officers having administrative jurisdiction over the unit.
Whenever possible, this investigating Chief Officer shall review the unit’s CD-19 report.
However, in order to avoid delaying of reports, if the investigating Chief Officer is due
to begin vacation leave or working in a covering or a detailed assignment, said Chief
would not be required to review the unit’s CD-19, but must include full particulars of the
accident in the CD-19A Investigation Report.lowed by a phone call to FDOC at (718) 999-7900 to
verify receipt of email. The FOC-1 report can be accessed via the forms section
of the FDNY intrane

Question 64

5. Upon being involved in an accident/incident members and officers must realize that their
   primary initial obligation is to? SB 56 6.2.1, 6.2.2, 6.5.2
   A. Prevent the accident from increasing in magnitude.
   B. Properly mark tractor trailers and large vehicles involved.
   C. Advise whether the accident is major or minor.
   D. Identifying injured members or civilians at the scene.

Answer 64

5. A

Question 65

6. An MV104 shall be prepared for which of the following situation(s)? (More than one
   correct). SB 56 24.1
   A. An accident resulting in a death.
   B. A civilian with a minor laceration.
   C. Total of $1000 to two vehicles.
   D. Value of damage cannot be estimated.

Answer 65

6. A, B, D

24.1 The original New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident (MV-104 revised 5/02)
must be completed and sent NYS Department o

26.1 The CD-19 report shall be forwarded by the apparatus operator/Officer within 96 hours
of the apparatus accident/incidentf Motor Vehicles within 10 days, and a
copy must be sent to the Safety Command-Accident Claims Unit within 96 hours of an
accident resulting in death, personal injury, damage over $1,000 to the property of any
one person, or if a dollar amount can not be estimated. This is the express responsibility
of the vehicle operator involved in the accident.

NOTE: MV-104 forms can be completed and printed on the FDNY Intranet or copies
can be ordered from the FDNY Stationary Supply Unit.

Question 66

7. MV104 is the express responsibility of? MV104 must be completed and sent to the NYS
   DMV within how many days of an accident? A CD-19 must be forwarded within how many
   days? SB 56 24.1, 26.1
   A. Safety Command Accident Claims Unit/10 days/4days.
   B. Battalion Chief who Investigated the Accident/7 days/ 2days
   C. Officer on Duty at time of the accident/7 days/2 days.
   D. Operator of the vehicle at time of the accident/10 days/4 days.

Answer 66

7. D

Question 67

8. E-100 is involved in an apparatus accident. E-100 hit a car at an intersection, and then E-
   100 hit a parked car before coming to a stop. Three people who were riding bicycles were hit by
   the first car that E-100 hit. The officer of E-100 knows that he must fill out how many CD-19’s
   for this accident? SB 56 9.2
   A. 4
   B. 3
   C. 2
   D. 1

Answer 67

8. A

9.2 Additional forms are required if an accident involves more than one apparatus, more
than one civilian vehicle, more than two civilian pedestrians or bicyclists (not
motorcyclists - a motorcycle is a motor vehicle), or more than four people injured.

Question 68

9. E-5 is involved in a minor apparatus accident with L-3 and one civilian vehicle. The
   administrative Battalion for E-5 and L-3 is the 7th Battalion. How many CD-19’s and will the
   BC in Battalion 7 be forwarding? SB 56
   A. 2
   B. 3
   C. 4
   D. 6

Answer 68

9. C

Question 69

10. Capt. Leftus has just reported for duty and finds out that one of his assigned Lieutenants,
    Lt. Maggio, has been involved in an accident on the day tour. This accident occurred when the
    unit was 10-8 and going to get the meal. The apparatus hit a double parked car and caused minor
    damage to the passenger side mirror of the civilian car. This accident is the second preventable
    accident that Lt. Maggio has had within the last 12 months. Capt. Leftus should know which
    point below to be correct? SB 56 Add 4
    A. Lt. Maggio will be counseled by a Chief from the officer’s assigned battalion.
    B. Lt. Maggio will be lifted for 60 days, counseled by his unit commander and a Chief from
    his assigned battalion.
    C. Lt. Maggio will be lifted for 60 days, and a supervisory conference will be held between Lt.
    Maggio and a chief officer from his assigned battalion.
    D. Lt. Maggio will be the subject of a supervisory conference with a Chief from the officer’s
    assigned battalion and the unit commander.

Answer 69

10. D

3.2 An officer involved in a second preventable accident in a 12 month period will result in a
Supervisory Conference with a chief officer from the officer’s assigned battalion.

Question 70

11. It is the duty of all officers and chauffeurs to do their best to reduce apparatus accidents for
    the safety of the members and the civilians that we protect. Which point below is incorrect?
    SB 71
    A. The most damaging accidents are responding intersection accidents. This type of accident
    can and must be prevented by the officer.
    B. When responding to an alarm, drivers may proceed past a steady red signal, flashing red
    signal, or stop sign, but only after slowing down as may be necessary for a safe operation.
    C. When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall be
    brought to a full stop before backing into an intersection, unless a police officer is directing
    traffic and gives the order to back up the apparatus into the intersection.
    D. Officer and chauffer must remember that you do not have the right of way until all other
    vehicles have granted it to you.

Answer 70

11. C

 When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus
shall be brought to a full stop before backing into the intersection. The
apparatus shall not be backed into the intersection until the officer in
command of the vehicle gives the order to do so