WEEK #7 WEEK OF 03/08/13 PART I – FFP – ROW FRAME BUILDINGS PART II – DUNN – CHAP. #14 & 15 PART III – AUC's #300, 301 & 306 PART IV – COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAP. #9 & Add #1, 2 & 3 PART V – TB – FOAM {Pgs 22 – 31} INSTRUCTOR: AC RON SPADAFORA Flashcards

PART I – FFP – ROW FRAME BUILDINGS PART II – DUNN – CHAP. #14 & 15 PART III – AUC's #300, 301 & 306 PART IV – COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAP. #9 & Add #1, 2 & 3 PART V – TB – FOAM {Pgs 22 – 31}

1
Q

1 A Captain of a ladder company at a 2-story residential building sees smoke pushing from
the eaves. While ordering two firefighters to pull plaster on an exterior wall, the officer notices
the second floor resting on a ledger board. This construction feature is indicative of what type of
construction? (Addendum 1, Figure 9)
a platform frame
b plank and beam
c balloon frame
d post and frame

A
  1. C
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2
Q

2 A building with three front windows per floor and one apartment going from front to rear
with no rear fire escape is known as what type row frame building? (5.1.2)
a Taxpayer
b Old Law Tenement (OLT)-type
c Brownstone-type
d Single Room Occupancy (SRO)

A
  1. C
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3
Q

3 Name the salient feature common to all row frame buildings, regardless of variations in
design: (5.2.2)
a skylight in the rear
b vinyl siding
c common cornices
d common cockloft

A
  1. D
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4
Q

4 Choose the correct statement regarding row frame buildings? (5.2.6-5.2.9)
a access to the roof from the interior is via a stair housed by a bulkhead
b cellars may run under more than one building
c light and air shafts are non-existent
d commercial occupancies are commonly found on the upper floors

A
  1. B
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5
Q

5 According to FFP, what are the major faults in the construction of row frame buildings as it
pertains to fire and fire spread? (6.2)
a Large amount of combustible materials used in the construction and lack of fire stopping
b Lightweight non-combustible materials and single pane windows
c Heavy timber trusses and bay windows
d Numerous fireplaces and dry rot

A
  1. A
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6
Q

6 The danger of collapse of sidewalls with fires in row frame buildings is a factor deserving
consideration. This is especially true during what condition? (6.3)
a when the sidewalls are filled with brick noggin
b when the sidewalls are parged with plaster
c when fire escapes are illegally installed on the sidewalls
d when buildings within the row have been demolished

A
  1. D
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7
Q

7 In general, an officer of the second arriving ladder company for a top floor fire in a
Brownstone-type row frame building would be incorrect in ordering members to perform what
action listed below: (7.2, 8.4, 10.2)
a search operations on the top floor
b check exposures for fire extension
c check rear of the fire building for victims
d reinforce laddering the building

A
  1. A
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8
Q

8 Where should the second arriving ladder company officer be positioned at a top floor fire in
an Old Law Tenement-type row frame building? (8.5, 10.1)
a at the fire apartment on the top floor
b on the roof of the fire building
c in exposure 2 or 4 with two members of his/her company
d at the adjoining apartment on the top floor of the fire building

A
  1. D
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9
Q

9 Members working with a search line under the direction of an officer are said to be under
what kind of supervision? (9)
a Immediate
b Functional
c Synergistic
d Situational

A
  1. B
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10
Q

10 For Brownstone-type row frame building fires, top floor VES is mandatory under what
circumstances? (9)
a Height of the building is less than 30 feet and the ceilings are low
b Fire denies use of interior stairs and there is no fire escape
c Roof size-up determines the need for a hose-line to protect exposures
d Building has been vacant for quite some time and is boarded up

A
  1. B
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11
Q

11 During VES, why should the windows directly over the main entrance to a Brownstonetype
row frame building be initially avoided? (9)
a they are very large and a firefighter can easily get disoriented
b they are connected in railroad fashion to other rooms deeper in the building
c they open into a small room and egress may be cut off
d they commonly have large openings in the floor

A
  1. C
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12
Q

12 Roof ventilation is critical for firefighting operations. Regarding order of preference, what
is the primary way the first arriving Roof firefighter of a rearmount apparatus should attempt to
access this area? (9)
a Aerial ladder
b Second arriving aerial ladder
c Adjoining building
d Interior scuttle ladder

A
  1. A
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13
Q

13 What subsequent action should a first arriving Roof firefighter take upon completion of
roof duties at a fire in an OLT-type row frame building? (9)
a descend the aerial and team up with LCC for top floor VES
b operate as per Ladders 3
c drop down to top floor via the scuttle ladder
d move to the adjoining building and check for fire extension on the top floor

A
  1. B
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14
Q

14 A first arriving tower ladder pulls up to a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4-story Brownstone-type
row frame structure. After hearing from the Roof firefighter that his/her assistance is not
required and repositioning the basket for fire floor ventilation, what should the OV firefighter do
next? (11)
a reposition the tower ladder basket to the 4th floor for ventilation
b reposition the tower ladder basket to the top floor of the most severe exposure
c reposition the tower ladder basket back to the roof
d place a portable ladder to the second floor

A
  1. A
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15
Q

15 Where should the first arriving OV firefighter of a tower ladder place the basket after
getting the Roof firefighter size-up that his/her help is not needed at a 2nd floor fire in a 4-story
OLT-type row frame structure? (11)
a 3rd floor for ventilation
b top floor for ventilation
c top floor of most severe exposed building for ventilation
d 2nd floor for ventilation

A
  1. D
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16
Q

16 When the first to arrive Ladder Company is a tower ladder, the chauffeur will remain on
the pedestal. Therefore, the chauffeur of the second to arrive Ladder Company does not have to
report to the pedestal and may be assigned other duties by the company officer. (12)
a True statement
b False statement

A
  1. A
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17
Q

17 An engine company officer is ordered by the IC to stretch a hose-line to the top floor of
Exposure 2 during a working fire in a row of frame buildings. In addition to hose and a nozzle,
what other tool should be taken to the area of assignment? (13.1)
a Life saving rope
b Thermal imaging camera
c Six foot hook
d Standpipe kit

A
  1. C
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18
Q

18 Choose the incorrect action taken by engine companies at a cellar fire in a row frame
building: (13.2)
a first line unable to make the cellar via the interior stairs protected the first floor
b second line was stretched to the cellar by way of another interior entrance to extinguish fire
since first line was unable to advance
c first line advanced to top floor after cellar fire had been controlled by second line
d on way to the top floor, members on the first line checked intervening floors for fire

A
  1. B
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19
Q

19 Engine companies are arriving to a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4-story row frame building.
The fire building is in the middle of a row of similar structures. What engine company action is
not in accord with firefighting procedures? (13.3)
a first line stretched to location of fire via interior stairs
b second line stretched to Exposure 4 since it was reported fire was spreading into this
structure
c third line stretched to back-up second line in Exposure 4
d third line stretched to back-up first line in fire building

A
  1. C
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20
Q

20 When would a “Holding Operation” be employed by fire department units? (13.4)
a top floor fire with flames coming through the roof
b cellar fire with extension into an interconnected cellar of an attached frame
c fire in a common cornice
d building fully involved and fire in Exposures

A
  1. D

6.5 Building Fully Involved and Fire in Exposures-Holding Operation

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21
Q

21 Select the most appropriate action for the first arriving engine company to perform for a
fire in a vacant building in a row of occupied frames. (13.6)
a stretch a supply line to front of fire building for a tower ladder; then stretch attack line into
the fire building
b stretch supply line; then stretch attack line to the most severe Exposure
c stretch supply line; then stretch attack line into the rear yard of the fire building
d stretch two attack lines into the fire building

A
  1. B
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22
Q

22 A first arriving engine company is confronted with a row frame building fire where the
entire block of buildings are vacant. What action ordered by the engine officer was incorrect?
(13.6)
a Had apparatus positioned for possible use of the multiversal nozzle
b Had a supply line stretched for tower ladder use
c Had an attack line stretched for initial use inside the fire building
d Gave the in-line pumping code signal since nearby hydrants were OOS

A
  1. C
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23
Q

23 Why is the degree of fire in the rear of row frame buildings an important factor for the
Chief to determine on arrival? (14.2)
a it will affect accessibility to the rear of the building via the street
b it will race laterally into windows and adjoining buildings
c it will mirror the amount of physical punishment being sustained by members
d it will determine whether energy efficient windows have been installed

A
  1. B

C. The degree of fire in the rear is a factor, as fire coming out of windows will race
laterally along siding, into the windows of the upper floors and adjacent buildings

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24
Q

24 A BC supervising a drill on operations at cockloft fires in row frame buildings should
correct a company officer for making which inaccurate statement listed below? (14.5)
a When pulling top floor ceilings to check fire extension in the cockloft, it is possible for the
entire ceiling to be blown down
b Small test openings in the ceiling are advisable
c The shorter the cockloft the greater the danger
d Blown down ceilings are caused by banked-up gases igniting rapidly

A
  1. C
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25
Q

25 According to FFP, a row frame building with a floor fully involved in fire from the front to
the rear requires what type resources? (14.6)
a 4th alarm assignment, ensure 3 rescue companies are on scene
b 3rd alarm assignment, special call additional battalion chiefs as needed
c 2nd alarm assignment, request the response of an additional deputy chief
d Full 1st alarm assignment, consider calling an additional engine and ladder

A
  1. D
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26
Q
  1. An officer drilling on exterior screened stairways was incorrect to state that they?
    a Are the safest type of fire escape
    b Have no sliding drop ladder or gooseneck ladder
    c Are wide enough for three people to descend side by side
    d Are enclosed with a wire screen preventing a fall from outside the fire escape landing
A
  1. C
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27
Q
  1. The hazard of a party wall balcony is?
    a Step failure
    b Balcony failure
    c Falling off the balcony
    d Side Rail collapse
A
  1. B
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28
Q
  1. The safest method to remove people from a party wall balcony is?
    a via an aerial ladder
    b via a portable ladder
    c through the designated horizontal exit
    d via a portable ladder
A
  1. C
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29
Q
  1. When encountering civilians awaiting rescue on a countered balanced stair, members
    should preferably?
    a lower the counterbalanced stair by use of a pike pole
    b use an FDNY ground ladder instead
    c have the civilians walk on the stair to lower it
A
  1. B
30
Q
  1. Which point is not among the lessons learned regarding fire escapes?
    a when placing a boot on a fire escape step, it should be placed near the outer side of the step
    b It is safer to stand beneath the fire escape balcony when lowering a sliding drop ladder
    c when climbing a rusted fire escape, keep both hands on the stair guide railing at all times
    d when the stability of a fire escape is in doubt, use a FDNY ground ladder
A
  1. C
31
Q
  1. Which one of the following types of collapse is the most dangerous type of wood-frame
    building collapse?
    a 90-degree angle
    b Lean-over collapse
    c Inward-Outward
    d Rear wall collapse
A
  1. C
32
Q
  1. Firefighters operating in corner safe areas on a building will?
    a Not survive the collapse of a wood-frame building
    b Survive the collapse of a wood frame building
A
  1. B
33
Q
  1. All of the following are common factors that have been involved in the global
    collapse/failure of braced frame buildings except?
    a A building located at the end of a row
    b A building located on a corner
    c Buildings that are 3 stories high
    d A long burning fire that has destroyed the top floor of the structure
A
  1. D
34
Q
  1. Which point about lightweight wood construction is not accurate?
    a it suffers from early floor collapse, roof collapse, wall collapse and global collapse
    b the failure of truss floors especially is a concern during the early stages of fire
    c from a fire protection point of view, it is inferior construction
    d if a fire involves the truss structure, it is recommended to remove the occupants and fight
    the fire defensively from the outside
A
  1. A
35
Q
  1. The causes of inward-outward collapse include?
  2. Fire destruction of bearing walls
  3. Failure at the mortise and tenon connection
  4. Exterior wall overload
    a. 1, 2 b. 1, 3 c. 2, 3 d. 1, 2, 3
A
  1. D
36
Q

1 To minimize illegal entry into quarters, companies are equipped with entrance door
combination locks. An officer arriving at relocation should attempt to open a firehouse door,
having received a response ticket with a combination message of 4, 23, 7, using what procedure
listed below? (AUC 300, 2.1.4)
a depress buttons 4, 2, 3 and 7 simultaneously
b depress button 4, then 2, 3 and 7 simultaneously
c depress button 4, then 2 and 3 simultaneously, then 7
d depress 4, 2, 3 and 7 individually

A
  1. C
37
Q

2 If a unit does not receive a teleprinter response message or is on the air at the time of
response to relocation, the lock combination numbers can be obtained from the dispatcher in
what priority order? (2.1.4)
a Outside public phone, nearby ERS box and private cell phone
b Nearby ERS box and outside public phone only
c Nearby ERS Box, private cell phone and outside public phone
d Outside public phone and nearby ERS box only

A
  1. B
38
Q

3 An engine company officer returning to quarters from a malicious false alarm notices a
radio scanner missing from the housewatch. A pedestrian witness tells the officer he saw a
teenager running out of the firehouse with a box-like object in his arms a few minutes prior to
their return. In this situation, the officer would be acting in accord with department protocols by
notifying: (3.1)
a police precinct, bureau of fire investigation, administrative battalion and division
b police precinct, office of Inspector General, administrative battalion and division
c office of Inspector General, administrative battalion and division
d police precinct, bureau

A
  1. A
39
Q

4 Choose the operational guideline pertaining to emergency tree cutting and clearing that is
accurate? (AUC 301, 3)
a The department is responsible for the removal of debris from sidewalks
b On private property, operations should prevent unauthorized entry into danger area
c Operations should always include removal of obstructions blocking building entrances
d Members are never allowed to remove a tree that has fallen on a vehicle

A
  1. B
40
Q

5 The dangers of emergency tree cutting are many. A correct statement concerning downed
electrical wires as a result of fallen trees can be found in choice: (5.6)
a generally wood is an excellent conductor of electricity
b tree sap is a poor electrical conductor
c wires stripped of insulation can energize trees
d energized wires must first be disentangled prior to tree cutting operations

A
  1. C
41
Q

6 While out of quarters, an engine officer is approached by a young boy complaining of
being followed by a vagrant. The officer should take all but which of the following actions to
protect the child? (AUC 306, 2.3)
a Notify the dispatcher that the unit is operating at a verbal alarm to assist a child
b Request from the dispatcher a police response
c If warranted, provide the dispatcher with additional particulars
d Inform the dispatcher that the unit is still available for fire duty

A
  1. D
42
Q

1 The department has installed handie-talkie recorder systems to record handie-talkie
communications on the fireground. What vehicles have been outfitted with the handie-talkie
recorders? (Addendum 1, 1.2)
a Engine apparatus
b Ladder apparatus
c Battalion vehicles
d Division vehicles

A
  1. C
43
Q

2 Select a correct statement regarding procedures to be followed to ensure all handie-talkie
communications are preserved: (3.2-3.4, 7.2)
a The recorder system will simultaneously record handie-talkie transmissions on all channels
in Zone A on both models of the XTS3500R handie-talkies
b Transmissions to or from the borough dispatcher are also recorded
c All recorder vehicles must remain on with the motor running at the scene of operations
d Recorder vehicles must never be left unattended at the scene of operations

A
  1. C
44
Q

3 Company officers may request handie-talkie recordings for use in critiquing fireground
communications. All but which of the procedures listed below must be followed? (8.1-
8.7)
a Complete the Handie-Talkie Recording Request Form
b Fax Form directly to the Handie-Talkie Recording Unit
c Request is limited to handie-talkie transmissions on the Primary and Secondary Tactical
channels
d When not in use, recordings should be stored in a secure area at the housewatch

A
  1. D

8.7 Recordings are the property of the Department and are only to be used for Department business. Use of these recordings for non-Departmental business is prohibited. They shall be kept in a designated secure location in the company office when not in use. Requests for recordings of incidents involving serious injuries, fatalities or high profile incidents will be made available only at the direction of the Chief of Operations.

45
Q

4 One of the most problematic situations for an Incident Commander is the managing of an
emergency roll call. To make the IC’s job easier, a company officer should follow what correct
procedure when contacted by the Roll Call Officer? (Addendum 2, 1.4)
a Account only for all firefighters within their sight
b Account only for their company members that they can contact via handie-talkie
c Account only for their members who are within sight and handie-talkie contact
d Account only for their members within sight or hearing without using the handie-talkie

A
  1. D

1.4 The staffing of companies varies from tour to tour based on the citywide personnel levels.
The number of firefighters riding in any company can and does change during a tour due
to medical leaves, emergency leaves, details after the start of the tour, etc. For this
reason, all officers of all companies will answer when called by the Roll Call Officer
(RCO), stating the number of firefighters they responded with and accounting only for
the members within sight or hearing without using the HT. This is the best way to
reduce any confusion concerning the number of members that responded with each unit.
For this reason, it is imperative that all officers maintain an up-to-date riding list.

46
Q

5 A method, stated correctly, that may be used by an Incident Commander to take control of
the handie-talkie frequency can be found in choice: (3)
a utilize the Emergency Alert Tone on the handie-talkie and then deactivate the emergency
alert button after gaining control
b utilize the POST radio on the command channel
c utilize the UHF radio in a Battalion or Division vehicle on the command channel
d use the Cross Band Repeater radio installed in all Battalion vehicles on the tactical channel

A
  1. A
47
Q

6 The member conducting the emergency roll call must have an updated list of all companies
on the scene. How should this member obtain this information? (4.1)
a Dispatcher
b MDT
c FAST Unit
d None of the above

A
  1. B
48
Q

7 During an emergency roll call, a company officer does not answer when called. A
knowledgeable Roll Call Officer (RCO) should take all but which step in an attempt to locate the
member? (4.10)
a call a firefighter working with the officer
b call another company operating in the immediate area of the officer
c notify the IC if both steps a and b are not successful
d discontinue the roll call until the officer is located/contacted

A
  1. D

4.10 If a company officer does not answer when called, the RCO will either call a firefighter
operating with that officer or call another company operating in the immediate area of
that officer, in an attempt to locate them. For ladder companies this would be the Can or
Irons firefighter; for engine companies, the Nozzle or Back-up firefighter should be able
to account for their officer. If these members are unable to account for the officer and the
officer still has not responded to the roll call, the RCO must notify the IC, who in turn
must take the required actions for a Missing Member as outlined in Firefighting
Procedures, Managing Incidents Involving Members in Distress. The RCO must then
continue the emergency roll call in the event there are additional missing or distressed
members.

49
Q

8 A firefighter answering an emergency roll call via handie-talkie was not following proper
department procedure when providing which information below? (6.3)
a Company number assigned
b Company number working in
c Firefighting assignment
d Location

A
  1. A
50
Q

9 The Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS) is designed to improve the
accountability of members at all operations. It provides the IC the capability to do all but which
of the following? (Addendum 3, 1.1)
a Immediately identify a member activating the emergency alert button
b Track the location of firefighters inside a building
c Manually identify a member transmitting a verbal Mayday message via handie-talkie
d Conduct an emergency electronic roll call

A
  1. B
51
Q

10 Initially at operations, what department member is responsible for monitoring EFAS?
(2.1)
a Designated EFAS trained member of the FAST Unit
b First arriving Battalion firefighter after performing primary duties
c Second arriving Battalion firefighter after performing primary duties
d Division Back-up firefighter

A
  1. B
52
Q

11 A critical action for company officers to take upon arrival at an incident in order to have all
members of the unit recognized by EFAS is: (3.1.5)
a switch from the Starfire window to the EFAS window on the apparatus MDT
b contact the dispatcher and give a 10-84 verbally
c key their handie-talkie remote microphones once
d switch from the EFAS window to the Starfire window on the apparatus MDT

A
  1. C
53
Q

12 When a member activates their emergency alert button their identity is automatically
highlighted in what color on the vehicle MDT screen? (4.1.3)
a Black
b Red
c Yellow
d White

A
  1. B
54
Q

13 A firefighter monitoring the EFAS system in a department vehicle receives a Mayday
message on his handie-talkie. The member transmitting the Mayday, however, did not activate
the emergency alert button. What important action should be made by the monitoring
firefighter? (4.2)
a Use MDT touch screen to manually highlight the member as a Mayday
b Contact the transmitter of the Mayday message via handie-talkie and instruct the member
to activate the emergency alert button
c Take no action since the EFAS system will highlight the transmitting member
automatically
d None of the above

A
  1. A
55
Q

14 When a firefighter transmits a Mayday for another member, all but which of the following
actions should be performed? (4.2.3)
a Depress the emergency alert button on their own handie-talkie
b Provide the IC with the information required for the Mayday transmission
c Depress the emergency alert button of the member in distress, if possible
d Notify the IC via handie-talkie subsequent to emergency alert button activation of the
distressed member

A
  1. D
56
Q

15 What must members do during an electronic roll call to allow their names to automatically
move on the roll call screen from the “Unaccounted For” column to the “Accounted For”
column? (6.1.4)
a Press the emergency alert button on their handie-talkies
b Activate their Pass Alarms
c Fully depress and release their handie-talkie remote microphones 3 times
d All of the above

A
  1. C
57
Q

16 When discussing EFAS, what members are denoted by the “Non Essential Personnel”
term? (7)
a Members at the Staging Area
b Members in exposures
c Members from a company not assigned to the incident
d Members who are standing fast at the ICP and not yet assigned

A
  1. C
58
Q

17 When EFAS starts, it is programmed to automatically download the latest version of the
Spare Radio Database. What would a spare radio in the “Radio Status” area of the screen
indicate? (9.4)
a EFAS is defective
b The spare radio was issued and the Database was not updated
c The Database is defective
d The spare radio has been switched from the tactical channel to the command channel

A
  1. B
59
Q

1 A company officer of a foam depot unit instructing members on proper storage and supply
of foam concentrate was correct in which statement listed? (9)
a Foam concentrate should be stacked no more than 3 high
b All foam concentrates have a shelf life
c Protein based foam has a shelf life of approximately 20 years
d Synthetic based foam has a shelf life of approximately 10 years

A
  1. B
60
Q

2 Foam concentrate can have a severe debilitating effect on equipment that used to generate
it. When cleaning eductors, how long should water be educted through it? (11.1)
a At least 5 minutes
b At least 10 minutes
c At least 15 minutes
d At least 20 minutes

A

2.. C

11.1 Foam concentrate can have a severe debilitating effect on the equipment that is used to
generate it. Foam eductors, pickup tubes, FIMMs, generators, hose, pumps, etc. are to be
washed out and cleaned after every use. Anything that comes in contact with foam
requires flushing. When cleaning eductors, water should be educted through it for at
least 15 minutes.

61
Q

3 High expansion (Hi-Ex) foam concentrate is a detergent based product designed for use in
special generators. This foam is best suited for what type fire situations? (12)
a combustible liquid fires at loading docks
b flammable gas leaks at utility facilities
c metal dust fires in industrial plants
d rubber tire fires in cellar storage areas

A
  1. D
62
Q

4 What is the required expansion ratio range for Hi-Ex foam concentrate to be classified as a
Hi-Ex foam? (12.2)
a 20/1 to 100/1
b 50/1 to 200/1
c 150/1 to 500/1
d 200/1 to 1000/1

A
  1. D

12.2 Expansion is dependent upon the type of Hi-Ex Foam Concentrate and generator used.
An expansion ratio of 200/1 to 1000/1 is necessary to be classified as a Hi-Ex foam

63
Q

5 The effectiveness of a Hi-Ex foam blanket depends on many factors. Increasing the
settings on the eductor will do which of the following? (12.6)
a Increase the amount of foam concentrate used
b Decrease the thickness of the foam blanket
c Decrease drainage time
d Decrease the foams resistance to heat and fire

A
  1. A
64
Q

6 What is the band color for Hi-Ex foam concentrate 5-gallon containers? (12.7)
a Blue
b Yellow
c Red
d Green

A
  1. B

12.7 Components of the Hi-Ex Foam System:
A. Fresh or salt water can be used to develop Hi-Ex foam.
B. Foam Concentrate in 5-gallon container with yellow band.
C. Water supply line. The length of line should be kept as short as possible by
placing the pumper or manifold as close to the operation as conditions permit.
D. In-line proportioning device (eductor) with a pickup tube affixed to it.
This device employs a venturi action to pick up foam concentrate from a
container and introduce it into the stream.

65
Q

7 A Chief Officer discussing Hi-Ex foam operations with units at a foam drill was mistaken
in which statement listed below? (12.7-12.9)
a Fresh or salt water can be used to develop Hi-Ex foam
b Eductor metering calibrations are relative and do not necessarily indicate the actual
percentage of solution that will be formed
c A relatively small flow of water (60 gpm) is required in Hi-Ex foam operations
d To deliver sufficient water under proper pressure to the foam generator, maintain between
150 psi and 175 psi at the inlet of the foam eductor

A
  1. D
    Maintain between 200 PSI and 220 PSI at inlet of foam eductor in order to deliver
    sufficient water under proper pressure to the foam generator.
66
Q

8 Regarding the foam chute applicator, which point of information is correct? (12.13)
a The chute is a canvass sleeve used to deliver Hi-Ex foam from the generator to the fire
b The chute used should be one foot larger in diameter than the mouth of the generator
c The chute is primarily used to deliver foam to a level higher than that of the generator
d The generator cannot be used without the chute

A
  1. B
67
Q

9 Why is it important to warn all members operating in and around the fire area before Hi-Ex
foam operations are started? (12.14)
a To reduce the number of PPE ensembles that will need to be decontaminated
b So members can place their handie-talkies inside their bunker coats
c To prevent operating forces from becoming enveloped in foam
d Allow members time to don SCBAs

A
  1. C

12.14 Tactical And Operational Procedures
A. Before Hi-Ex foam operations are started, all members operating in and around
the fire area are to be warned. Heat generated by the fire and steam resulting
from the introduction of foam will be forced to upper and adjoining sections of
the fire area. A warning is also required to prevent operating forces from
becoming enveloped in foam.

68
Q

10 What action must be taken to use Hi-Ex foam generators as smoke ejectors? (12.14)
a Turn the generator around
b Disconnect the hose line from the generator
c Tilt the generator backwards 30 degrees
d The generator cannot be used as a smoke ejector

A
  1. A
69
Q

11 It is imperative that members entering a foam blanket utilize all tools and equipment
necessary to enhance safety. Select from the choices below an incorrect statement pertaining to
members operating in a foam environment? (12.15)
a Personnel must be equipped with full PPE, SCBA, search rope, hose line and tools
b Electrical equipment must be covered with foam prior to member entry
c Members should move slowly and use caution to avoid falling through holes
d Members are to avoid becoming completely immersed in the foam blanket

A
  1. B
70
Q

12 How is generator output computed? (12.17)
a Gallons per minute
b Liters per minute
c Cubic feet per minute
d None of the above

A
  1. C