WEEK #2​WEEK OF 1/23/12​ PART I – FFP – HIGH RISE OFFICE BUILDINGS PART II – ICS MANUAL CHAP 2, ADD #4 & 6 PART III – COMMUNICATION MANUAL CHAP #11 & 12 PART IV – AUC 269 INSTRUCTOR:​DC JIM DALY

Question 0

2. High-rise office buildings built before 1945 are deemed “heavy-weight”. How manyconstruction features are listed correctly? (2.2) 1. Structural steel has sprayed-on fireproofing 2.Exterior walls are masonry and substantially tied to all floors 3.Plenums are generally not found 4.Usually heated and cooled by an HVAC system 5.Exterior windows are openable 6.All will have a fire tower 7.Core construction techniques are widely used 8. Floors are constructed of reinforced concrete A.3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Answer 0

2-B(2, 3, 5, 8)

Question 1

1. Units conducting BISP in a high-rise class “E” office building should know that a Building Evacuation Supervisor may man the fire command station when the Fire Safety Director is not present and? (Glossary) A. There are less than 100 people above or below the street floor or less than 500 people in the entire building. B. There are less than 200 people above or below the street floor or less than 500 people in the entire building. C. There are less than 100 people above or below the street floor or less than 750 people in the entire building. D. There are less than 75 people above or below the street floor or less than 600 people in the entire building

Answer 1

1-A

Question 2

3. A lieutenant ordered to insure that the HVAC system was placed in the non-circulating mode should know that is done in which order? (3.3.3) A. Opening all exhaust dampers, opening all mixing dampers, closing all outside air supply dampers B. Opening all outside air supply dampers, closing all mixing dampers, opening all exhaust dampers C. Opening all outside air supply dampers, closing all mixing dampers, closing all exhaust dampers D. Opening all outside air supply dampers, opening all mixing dampers, opening all exhaust dampers

Answer 2

3-B

Question 3

4. An engine officer assigned on a 10-76 fire was tasked with supplying the standpipe system. Which action was the officer incorrect in taking? (4.1.2, 4.5.5) A. Insured the system was fed by at least two pumpers B. Insured at least two separate siamese were fed C. If only one siamese was available, insured the pumper activated the third stage to increase the pressure D. Insured that chauffeurs supplying the system coordinated their pumping pressures and used a discharge gate with a flow meter if available E. If three handlines were operating, insured three pumpers were supplying the system

Answer 3

4-C

Question 4

6. A lieutenant conducting drill with his members told the ECC the following points about high-pressure pumping. He was correct in which point? (4.2.3, 4.2.4) A. Supply lines must be connected to the pumper on the pump panel side to closely monitor for churning or overheating. B. Any pumper operating in excess of 250 psi must be controlled by an ECC assisted by another ECC, one to operate the pumps and one to strictly observe pumping procedures for correct tactics. C. Unused gated inlets and outlets on the operating pumper must be closed and all caps must be secured. D. The ECC of the high-pressure pumper must ensure the tether security ropes are in place prior to operating above 250 psi

Answer 4

6-C

Question 5

5. When pressures will need to exceed 250 psi because of the height of the fire floor, the IC can order these higher pressures. Which is a correct statement about this evolution? (4.2.3) A. All civilians and FD personnel must be removed from a 25’ zone on each side of the supply line to the siamese and around the working pumper. B. Special 3” high-pressure hose must be used, and only one supply line may be stretched into a siamese for any pressure over 250 psi. C. This special hose has noticeably heavier fittings that are painted red. D. The supply line to the siamese or standpipe outlet must be secured with a utility rope to a substantial object. E. A notification must be made to FD personnel only, that high-pressure pumping is being utilized, and can be made via the HT

Answer 5

5-B

Question 6

7. In which instance might it be necessary for the Incident Commander to order the activation of the 3rd stage of a high-pressure pumper? (4.2.4) A. Fire above the 40th floor B. Fire above the 50th floor C. Fire above the 30th floor D. Fire above the 20th floor

Answer 6

7-B

Question 7

8. A lieutenant assigned first due for a fire on the 29th floor of a high-rise office building was ordered to stretch a line from the standpipe with a controlling nozzle. Which action would have been correct for the lieutenant to take? (4.2.2) A. Instruct his ECC to supply the system with 250 psi. B. Request permission from the Chief in Charge to supply the system with 300 psi. C. Request permission from the Chief in Charge to supply the system with 350 psi. D. Instruct his ECC to supply the system with 200 psi

Answer 7

8-A

4.1.7 Recommended Pump Pressure

FIRE FLOORS PUMP DISCHARGE PRESSURE
Floors 1 to 10 150 psi
Floors 11 to 20 200 psi
Floors 21 to 30 250 psi
Floors 31 to 40 300 psi
Floors 41 to 50 350 psi
Floors 51 to 60 400 psi
Floors 61 to 70 450 psi
Floors 71 to 80 500 psi
Floors 81 to 90 550 psi
Floors 91 to 100 600 psi

Question 8

9. The 3rd stage of a High-Pressure pumper is capable of delivering? A. 700 gpm at 500 PSI B. 1000 gpm at 600 psi C. 500 gpm at 700 psi D. 600 gpm at 1000 psi

Answer 8

9-C

Question 9

10. An ECC assigned to locate and operate the manually operated building fire pumps would be correct in which action? (4.4.2.C, E, 4.4.4, 4.4.5) A. Locate the bypass valve on the intake side of the pump and and insure it is in the fully closed position. B. If the bypass valve can not be fully closed, notify the IC and await the assistance of the building engineer prior to operating. C. Start the pump by closing the knife switch to on, closing the circuit breaker, pushing the start button, and moving the selector lever to the desired position for required pump speed. D. If the pump has failed to start after following the 4-step procedure, notify the IC and await the arrival of the building engineer

Answer 9

10-C

Question 10

11. When discussing building fire pumps during a familiarization drill a lieutenant made the following statements. In which ones was he correct? (4.4.2.A, 4.4.8.B, C, G, 4.5.1) 1.Pumps are usually located in the cellar or sub-cellar on the lowest level of the building. 2. Fire lines connected to the fire pump should be painted red. 3.Most buildings have two pumps connected in the series (pressure) position, and individual pump capacity is usually 750 gpm. 4.The operation of these pumps can vary widely from building to building, and the engineer’s assistance is required. 5.The pump shall be able to deliver its rated gpm capacity at a pressure of 60 psi at the first floor hose outlet. A. 2, 3, 4 B. 1, 3, 5 C. 1, 2, 4, 5 D. 1, 2 E. 2, 5

Answer 10

11-D

Question 11

12. Which choice reflects the proper sequence of actions to be taken when following the strategic plan for use at high-rise fires? (5.1.1) 1. Gain control of the building systems (elevator, HVAC, communications, fire pumps) 2.Determine fire floor or floors with reported smoke 3.Control evacuation 4.Confine and extinguish the fire 5.Verify the fire floor A.5, 2, 1, 3, 4 B. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 C. 1, 2, 5, 3, 4 D. 2, 5, 1, 3, 4

Answer 11

12-B

D VEG C

Question 12

13. In how many choices was improper placement of units at a 10-76 fire displayed (5.3.1.B, 8.6.1) 1 The 1st and 2nd arriving engines shall be teamed to operate the first line. 2 The 3rd and 4th arriving engines shall be teamed to operate the second line. 3 The CFR-D engine shall be assigned to the Operations Post. 4 The 1st and 2nd arriving ladder shall be assigned to the fire floor. 5 The 3rd arriving ladder shall be assigned to the floor above the fire. 6 The 4th arriving ladder shall be assigned to the floor above the fire to augment the 3rd arriving ladder company. 7 The FAST Unit shall be assigned to the Operations Post. A 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Answer 12

13-B(3, 6, 7)

8. The FAST unit shall be assigned to the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director.
9. The CFR engine company, with all CFR-D equipment and forcible entry
   tools, shall be assigned to the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director.

6.5.4 An additional CFR engine company may be assigned to the SAE Group
Supervisor if necessary.

Question 13

14. A lieutenant operating as the 1st due engine at a 10-76 was instructed by the 1st due ladder that the fire location had been verified and the “A” stair was the attack stair. The ladder officer also informed the ICP that people were still being evacuated down the “A” stair, and that the 3rd due ladder should address this situation. The engine lieutenant would be correct to? (5.4.1.C.1, 8.5.1.B.7) A. Immediately stretch a 2 ½” line from the floor below to the reported fire location. B. Standby in the lobby until the attack stair has been cleared of all occupants. C. Take a position on the floor below but withhold the hoseline advancement until the attack stair can be cleared. D. Ascertain from the 3rd arriving ladder the identity of the evacuation stair

Answer 13

14-C

Question 14

15. Which one of the following choices accurately reflects the location of the various sectors/areas/groups within a high-rise building during a 10-76 fire? 6.5.2.C, 6.6.2.A, 6.7.3) (5.5.2.A, 6.4.2.A, A. The Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director will be located one floor below the fire floor, where conditions permit. B. The Search and Evacuation Group will always be located five floors above the fire floor. C. The Staging Area will always be located on the floor below the location of the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director. D. The Forward Triage Area will be located in an environmentally safe location on a floor below the Staging Area

Answer 14

15-A

Question 15

16. A communication network must be established to handle all of the transmissions required at a high-rise fire. Which choice is correct? (6.2.1.B,C,D,E,) A. Units operating on the fire floor and floor above shall direct all further transmissions only to the Fire Sector/Branch once established. B. Units operating under the direction of the SAE Group Supervisor shall transmit on HT primary tactical. C. The IC shall operate on the command channel and will be communicating directly with the Fire Sector Supervisor’s aide, the SAE Supervisor’s aide, and the Forward Staging Area Manager. D. Hardwire communications may need to be established between the ICP and the FD dispatcher, Fire Sector/Branch, SAE Group, and the Forward Staging Area if radio communications are inadequate

Answer 15

16-C

The Fire Sector Supervisor or Fire Branch Director shall establish the
following communications network:
1. HT communications on the primary tactical channel with the units
under his or her command. When the Fire Sector/Branch is
established, units under its command shall not communicate with
the ICP unless urgent.
2. HT communications with the ICP on the command channel. Hard wire communications shall also be established.
3. HT communication between the Fire Sector/Branch and the
Forward Staging Area shall be conducted on the command
channel.
4. The Fire Sector Supervisor or Fire Branch Director shall operate
on the primary tactical channel. His/her aide shall operate on the
command channel.

Question 16

17. The IC has the responsibility to supply logistical support to the Fire Sector/Branch, SAE Group and the Forward Staging Area (FSA). Which choice is correct? (6.3.6) A. At least 3 engines and 3 ladder companies shall be staged at the FSA. B. At least one unit shall be supplied to the SAE Group for every 5 floors to be searched. C. At least 20 spare SCBA cylinders shall be maintained at the Fire Sector/Branch. D. Engine companies reporting to the FSA shall bring a SP kit and nozzle, spare SCBA cylinder per member, length of hose per member, and elevator keys. E. Ladder companies reporting to the FSA shall bring a set of forcible entry tools, six-foot hooks, spare SCBA cylinder per member and search and utility ropes

Answer 16

17-B

C. At high-rise fires, consideration of resource availability and response time
are important. At least three engines and two ladder companies shall be at
the Forward Staging Area for immediate support of the Fire
Sector/Branch. The SAE Group will require at least one unit for every
five floors to be covered.
D. Supply sufficient spare SCBA cylinders to the Forward Staging Area to
support operations. A supply of at least 20 spare SCBA cylinders shall be
maintained at the Forward Staging Area.
E. Engine companies reporting to the Forward Staging Area shall bring with
them the following equipment unless otherwise directed:
1. A SCBA for each member.
2. A standpipe kit and a nozzle.
3. A length of hose per firefighter.
4. A spare SCBA cylinder for each member.
F. Ladder companies reporting to the Forward Staging Area shall bring with
them the following equipment, unless otherwise directed:
1. A SCBA for each member.
2. Two sets of forcible entry tools and six-foot hooks.
3. Search and utility ropes.
4. A spare SCBA cylinder for each member.

Question 17

18. Which answer shows proper understanding of ventilation principles in a high-rise building? (6.3.8) A. Stack effect can be either positive (upward movement) or negative (downward movement), and is noticeable in buildings over 60 feet. B. Positive stack effect increases as the outside air temperature increases in relation to the temperature inside the building. C. Horizontal vent by removal or opening of windows should be considered as an initial method to relieve smoke and heat. D. If a fixed stairwell pressurization system in a building is activated, the IC should have this augmented immediately by FDNY Positive Pressure Ventilations Fans to increase the positive pressure in the stairwell

Answer 17

18-A

Question 18

19. Units arriving at a high-rise fire would be incorrect in transmitting which of the following signals? (5.2.2) A. 10-76 for a confirmed fire B. “All hands” for the stretching and operating of one hoseline. C. 2nd Alarm for fire or smoke visible from the exterior D. 2nd Alarm for a report of a serious fire

Answer 18

19-D

Question 19

20. Units operating at a fire command station should know that 2-way communications is possible from this location to which of the following locations? (7.2.2.C, 7.3.2.C, 4.4.6.A.2, 4.4.8.J) 1. Floor warden stations 2. Air handling control rooms 3. Mechanical control centers 4. Elevators 5. Elevator machinery rooms 6. Fire pump rooms A. 1,2,3,5,6 B. 1,3,4,5 C. 1,2,3,4,5 D. 1,2,3,4,5,6

Answer 19

20-D

Question 20

The first arriving ladder company officer would be acting according to SOP in which decision? (8.3.1.B.2, 6.3.4.A, 8.3.1.E.4, 8.5.1.B.3, 8.3.1.D) A. After obtaining the only floor plan for the fire area in the lobby, insure it is brought to the Fire Sector Supervisor. B. If leaving the ICP prior to the arrival of a Chief Officer, designate a member to staff this location, preferably the first due ladder chauffeur. C. Select the Attack and Evacuation stairway and relay this information to the ICP. D. Proceed to a floor at least two floors below the fire using a Fireman Service elevator, and assign a firefighter to remain with the elevator for the duration of the incident

Answer 20

21-B

D should read, any HT equiped member until relieved

Question 21

23. Units are operating at a fire on the 33rd floor in a 40 story office building. There are three elevator banks. Bank “A” serves floors 1-16. Bank “B” serves floors 16-30, with a blind shaft on floors 1-15. Bank “C” serves floors 30-40 with a blind shaft on floors 1-29. The attack stair has been designated “A”, with the evacuation stair designated “B”. The 4th arriving ladder company would be correct to take which of the following actions? (8.6.1, TB Elevators 6.1.3) A. Proceed to the roof using the “C” elevator to the 31st floor and then walking up via the “B” stairway. B. Proceed to the roof using the “B” elevator to the 30th floor and then walking up via the “A” stairway. C. Proceed to the roof using the “C” elevator to the 31st floor and then walking up via the “A” stairway. D. Proceed to the roof using the “B” elevator to the 29th floor and then walking up via the “B” stairway

Answer 21

23-D

Question 22

24. Units are operating at a fire on the 24th floor in a 44 story office building. There are four elevator banks. Bank “A” serves floors 1-10. Bank “B” serves floors 5-20, with a blind shaft on floors 1-4. Bank “C” serves floors 20-32 with a blind shaft on floors 1-19. Bank “D” serves floors 33-44 with a blind shaft from floors 1-32. A logical assignment for the 4th arriving ladder after roof operations would be to examine which floors? (8.6.1.H) A. The lower terminal floors of Bank “C” B. The upper floors of Bank “B” C. Floors 33-37 D. The upper floors of Bank “C” E. Floors 16-20

Answer 22

24-D

Question 23

25. An engine company officer would be wise to take which of the following actions at a highrise fire? (9.3.1.B, 9.6.1) A. The 1st arriving engine officer should proceed to the reported fire floor in the elevator with the first due ladder company. B. The 2nd arriving engine officer, after reporting to the IC, should remain in the lobby with the Post Radio pending the establishment of the Fire Sector by the 2nd arriving Battalion Chief. C. The 2nd arriving engine officer should remain at the standpipe outlet until the hoseline is stretched to the point of operation. D. Greater alarm engine officers should report to the ICP in the lobby or, if staffed, the Lobby Control Unit

Answer 23

25-D

Question 24

26. A company officer was responding to a report of an explosion at a Class “E” office building. Upon arrival in the lobby, he was advised by the Fire Safety/Emergency Action Plan Director that an explosion had occurred and that there was no fire. He also stated that the elevators were in Phase I recall, and that designated banks, according to the EAP (Emergency Action Plan), had been placed in the Manual Mode and were being used to remove occupants from the upper floors at this time. The officer would be correct to take which action at this time? (Add. 1, BISP Manual Chap 5, Ref. 13.3) A. Advise the FS/EAP Director that the use of elevators is counterproductive and dangerous in an emergency, and should cease immediately. B. Have all elevators placed in Fireman Service Mode, and recall any being used presently in the Manual Mode. C. Consult with the FS/EAP Director as to actions taken prior to FDNY arrival, evaluate the procedures already implemented in relation to the EAP, and know that elevator usage in this instance should be anticipated. D. Know that the FS/EAP Director is considered the IC in this situation, and be guided by his directions, as this is a non-fire emergency

Answer 24

26-C

Question 25

27. Which of the following is not listed as a method the FS/EAP Director can implement to safeguard occupants in the event of an emergency? (Add. 1- 4.1) A. Shelter-In-Place B. In-Building Relocation C. Partial Building Restoration D. Full Building Evacuation

Answer 25

27-C

41 There are four different procedures that a FS/EAPD can implement to safeguard
occupants in the event of an emergency.
1. Shelter in Place
2. In-Building Relocation
3. Partial Building Evacuation
4. Full Building Evacuation

Question 26

28. According to Local Law 26 of 2004, each office building subject to the RCNY rule 6-02 must prepare an EAP and submit it to the FDNY for review and acceptance. According to the rule, which of the following is incorrect? (Add. 1, BISP Manual Chap 5, Ref. 13.3) A. The following must be designated: FS/EAP Director, Deputy FS/EAP Director, and a FS/EAP Building Evacuation Supervisor all authorized to implement the EAP. B. All of the above have been trained, tested and hold an FDNY Certificate of Fitness as both FS and EAP Directors. C. A Building Information Card (BIC) must be maintained at the Fire Command Station (FCS) and made available to arriving emergency personnel. D. A list of special need occupants who have requested assistance in the event the EAP is implemented, and their location in the building, shall be maintained at the FCS

Answer 26

28-B

The FS/EAPD and Deputy FS/EAPD have been
trained, tested and hold certificates of fitness as both Fire Safety and Emergency Action Plan Directors.

Question 27

1. The Lobby Control Unit (LCU) is a functional unit primarily responsible for what task? (Add 4 -1.1) A. Monitor and control building systems as directed by the IC. B. Interact with Building Personnel, ie. Building Engineer, as directed by the IC. C. Effective use of the communication systems within the building at a Hi-Rise incident. D. The controlled movement of personnel to and from the upper floors at a Hi-Rise incident

Answer 27

1-D

Question 28

2. Who will the Lobby Control Unit (LCU) primarily report to under the ICS system if all sections are staffed? (Add. 4-1.1) A. Command Chief (IC) B. Finance Section Chief C. Logistics Section Chief D. Operations Section Chief E. Planning Section Chief

Answer 28

2-C

Question 29

4. Which tools shall be carried in every elevator car? 1. 1 set of FE tools 2. Spare cylinder 3.Elevator keys 4. Search Rope 5. Elevator Control Sheet (to record units entering elevators and destination) 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 4, 5 C. 3, 4, 5 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Answer 29

4-D

Question 30

5. A unit designated as the Systems Control Unit at a High Rise fire would be acting properly if they? A. Activated the Fire Pumps for an upper floor fire with the assistance of a building engineer, then notified the IC that this was done. B. Monitored the public address system and warden phones with the permission of the Operations Section Chief, and the assistance of building personnel. C. Evaluate and operate the HVAC system for smoke removal as per the IC, but prior to building personnel being on hand to assist

Answer 30

5-B

Question 31

3. A lieutenant working in a unit designated as the LCU should take how many of the following actions?
4. Don the ICS vest with the insert “LOBBY CONTROL UNIT LEADER”.
5. Verify the location of the Fire Floor, Forward Staging Area, SAE Post, and Forward Triage Area.
6. Ensure all elevators are recalled and searched, while also determining the correct bank for transporting personnel to upper floors in consult with the IC.
7. Position him/herself in the elevator serving the Forward Staging Area to coordinate required resources with the FSA Manager.
8. Ensure all OV’s from first alarm units are relieved of operating elevators by LCU personnel.
9. Operate on the Command Channel.
10. If possible have one elevator maintained in readiness at the Fire Sector and one maintained at the lobby.
    A.3 B. 4 C. 5 9 D. 6

Answer 31

3-B(1, 2, 3, 5)

• If possible one elevator shall be maintained in readiness at the forward staging area and
one maintained at the lobby
• The Lobby Control Unit will operate on the Tactical Channel

Question 32

6. The Lobby Control Unit shall also take on the duties of the Systems Control Unit until relieved by another designated unit. A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 32

6-A

Question 33

1. All members of the department should know that communications between existing VHF handie-talkies (Saber and MX 330) and the new UHF handie-talkies (XTS3500R) is? (Chap. 11 sec. 1.2) A. Possible, only if used with a cross band repeater B. Possible, only if the A,B,C switch is toggled to the C position C. Possible at all times regardless of handie-talkie settings D. Not possible

Answer 33

1-D

Note: Citywide VHF HT will remain in service in Battalions and Divisions until Mobile
frequencies are switched to UHF. Communication between existing FDNY VHF HTs
and the new UHF (XTS3500R) HTs is not possible.

Question 34

2. A lieutenant drilling with members on the use of a yellow XTS3500R Model III handietalkie for FAST Unit operations made the following statements. Which one was correct? (Chap 11 sec. 2.2, 2.7.1, 2.7.2) A. The 7-digit Internal Identification Code assigned to each HT will only appear on the LCD screen when the Emergency Alert button is depressed. B. The ID Code will be preceded by the letters “ID” when the Emergency Alert button is depressed. C. The wattage of transmissions from the HT that has activated the Emergency Alert button will be increased from 2 watts to 5 watts. D. Members receiving an Emergency tone shall set their volume to maximum position if not already done, to insure proper receipt of this tone

Answer 34

2-C

2.7.1 When the Emergency Alert Button is activated; the wattage of the transmission
will be increased from 2 watts to 5 watts. This activation initiates one set of distinctive tones on the transmitting radio called a “Beacon” and another set of distinctive tones on the receiving radio(s) called the “Emergency Alert Tones.”

Model III radio is also capable of receiving a special 7-digit number specifically assigned
to each radio, which will appear its LCD screen for all transmissions.

Note: EM and the members ID code will appear again if the second “Emergency Alert
Tone” is sent and/or each time the member depresses his/her push-to-talk button until
member resets the Emergency Alert Button.

Question 35

3. When first donning a handie-talkie certain procedures should be followed. Which is listed incorrectly? (Chap.11 sec. 2.3) A. The volume control shall be set to the halfway point and adjusted accordingly. B. The unit must be worn under the bunker coat to protect it from adverse weather conditions. C. Any radio displaying “FAIL XX/YY” during its self-test shall be turned off, have its battery checked, and be turned back on. If it still does not pass a self-test it is defective. D. If the radio fails the self test it will emit a low-pitched tone

Answer 35

3-A

Volume must be adjusted
for effective communications.

Question 36

4. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the “Beacon” signal which is heard on a handie-talkie that has had the Emergency Alert button activated? notes) (Chap. 11 sec. 2.7.5, A. It will be heard at maximum volume regardless of the radio’s volume setting. B. To reset the beacon the member must depress and hold the Emergency Alert button for approximately 2 seconds until a reset tone is heard, or simply turn the unit off and then back on. C. If the member switches channels, the beacon signal will cease and the member must reactivate the Emergency Alert button. D. The beacon signal takes priority over incoming audio, and it will cut out any incoming messages so that the beacon can continue to sound at regular intervals

Answer 36

4-C

Question 37

5. Which of the following statements displays proper maintenance of the XTS 3500R handietalkie? (Chap. 11 sec. 6) A. If the HT becomes wet at an operation or has been submerged in water, return to the radio repair shops. B. External battery charging contacts that develop a coating may be cleaned with a mild abrasive, such as very fine sandpaper. C. Companies that have HT’s sent for repair should only have the defective part forwarded (radio, antenna, battery, etc.) and retain the remainder of the HT. D. 6. Leather cases and straps should not be sent unless they need repair

Answer 37

5-D

Question 38

6. A lieutenant conducting a drill on the use of the Emergency Alert button told the firefighters that this function works on all channels on the handie-talkie. Was this an accurate statement? (Chap. 11 Frequency Allocation Chart) A. Agree 7. or D. Disagree

Answer 38

6-D
†Digital channels do not support the emergency alert function.

Question 39

7. All firefighters assigned a Model I handie-talkie must insure that the A/B/C toggle switch does not inadvertently switch from the “A” position. (Chap. 11-2.5) A. Agree 8. or D. Disagree

Answer 39

7-D

Question 40

8. Which is a true statement about the “Emergency Alert Tone” that is transmitted to other radios when the Emergency Alert Button is depressed? (Chap.11-2.7.3) A. The tone will be heard on receiving radios on all channels. B. A second tone will be transmitted automatically 10 seconds after the initial tone in all instances. C. A second tone will be transmitted automatically 10 seconds after the initial tone if the FF who activated the EA button has not pressed the PTT button within 10 seconds and there is no activity on the channel at the instant the second tone is transmitted. D. If there is voice activity on the channel at the instant the radio attempts to send the second tone, the second tone will not sound

Answer 40

8-C

2.7.3 The Emergency Alert Button, when activated, immediately transmits a
distinctive tone on the selected channel. A second “Emergency Alert Tone” will
be transmitted automatically 10 seconds after the initial tone if the following
conditions are present:
 The firefighter who activated the emergency alert button has not pressed the
radio or remote microphone push-to-talk button within 10 seconds.
 There is no activity on the channel at the instant that the radio attempts to
send the second tone. If the channel is busy the radio will postpone the
attempt until there is no activity on the channel.
 The firefighter who initiated the emergency has not reset the Emergency Alert
Button.

Question 41

9. A lieutenant conducting a drill on FAST Unit responsibilities advised the members correctly that the internal ID code 7044004 represented? (Chap. 11-Add. 2) A. Ladder 4 OV FF B. Ladder 40 Roof FF C. Ladder 44 OV FF D. Ladder 44 FE FF E. Ladder 40 OV FF

Answer 41

9-C

Question 42

10. Who may authorize members to use other than the Primary Tactical channel at an incident besides the Incident Commander? (Chap. 11-7.3.5.G) A. Resource Unit Leader B. Sector Supervisor C. Branch Manager D. Operations Section Chief

Answer 42

10-A

Question 43

10. Who may authorize members to use other than the Primary Tactical channel at an incident besides the Incident Commander? (Chap. 11-7.3.5.G) A. Resource Unit Leader B. Sector Supervisor C. Branch Manager D. Operations Section Chief

Answer 43

10.A

Question 44

11. Who will determine if and when to implement a Secondary Tactical Channel and on what channel shall that be? (Chap. 11-7.2.2.B) A. The IC of an incident that first escalates to 7-5 status in a borough on channel 2. B. The IC of any ensuing incident in the same area of an existing 7-5 signal on channel 3. C. The IC of an incident that first escalates to 7-5 status in a borough on channel 3. D. The IC of any ensuing incident in the same area of an existing 7-5 signal on channel 2

Answer 44

11-B

B. The Incident Commander of any ensuing incidents in the same area will determine if and when the Secondary Tactical Channel (Channel 3) must be used.

Question 45

12. Which of the following Chief Officers will remain on the Tactical Channel when a Command Channel has been implemented? (Chap. 11-7.3.5.B, C, F) 1. Sector Supervisors 2. Air Recon Chief 3. Safety Officers 4. Resource Unit Leader 5. Staging Area Manager A. 1, 3, 4, 5 B. 2, 4, 5 C. 1, 3, 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer 45

12-C

B. Sector/Group supervisors operating in tactical positions will continue to
operate on the designated Tactical Channel to maintain control of on-
going operations being conducted by units under their supervision. Their
assigned firefighter will monitor and maintain communications on the
designated Command Channel.
Tactical Supervisors operating on the tactical channel are:
 Sector Supervisor and/or Branch Director (Fire Floor, Floor Above,
Roof, Exposure, etc.)
 Group Supervisors operating in a tactical position, (Search and Rescue
Group Supervisor, Collapse Group Supervisor, etc.)
C. Other Chief Officers operating on the Tactical Channel are:
 Safety Officers, assigned firefighter to monitor command.
 Resources Unit Leader, assigned firefighter to monitor command.

F. Officers assigned as Planning Chief, Staging Area Manager, Air Recon or
other specific designated support assignments will operate on the
Command Channel. Their assigned firefighter will monitor the Tactical
Channel.

Question 46

13. How would a FF know that his/her HT has “timed out” and what can be done to to reset the Time Out Timer? (Chap. 11- 3.4) A. A short warning tone at approximately 26 seconds followed by a continuous tone at approximately 30 seconds, re-key the PTT button B. A short warning tone at approximately 30 seconds followed by a continuous tone at approximately 45 seconds, re-key the PTT button C. A short warning tone at approximately 26 seconds followed by a continuous tone at approximately 30 seconds, hold the PTT button for 7 seconds until the continuous tone ceases D. A short warning tone at approximately 30 seconds followed by a continuous tone at approximately 45 seconds, hold the PTT button for 7 seconds until the continuous tone ceases

Answer 46

13-A

30 Second Time-Out-Timer
This feature cuts off the transmitter after 30 seconds of continuous transmission and is
especially useful to correct the “stuck-button” problem. At the remote microphone
speaker, the radio emits a short audible warning tone at approximately 26 seconds and a
continuous tone at approximately 30 seconds. This indicates that the transmitter has been
shut off. The operator can re-key the transmitter again if a longer transmission is
required. This resets the Time-Out-Timer.

Question 47

14. Which is a correct statement about the battery for the XTS3500R HT? (Add. 1- Sec. 1) A. It is rated for about 8 hours use, but expect 4-5 hours at both the 2 and 5 watt settings. B. They should be exchanged with fully recharged batteries at the beginning of each day and after extensive use. C. If difficulty is had removing the battery from a radio, a slight prying motion with a tool can be used. Avoid excessive pressure. D. To extend battery life, HT’s should be turned off upon return to quarters

Answer 47

14-D

Question 48

15. Which statement about battery chargers for the XTS3500R HT is accurate? 4.4) (Add. 1- 2.4, A. A solid red light on the on-vehicle charger indicates the battery is being rapid-charged. B. A flashing green light on the standard charger indicates charging is > 90% complete. C. A solid yellow light on the on-vehicle charger indicates the battery is too hot or cold to be rapid-charged. D. A flashing red light on the standard charger indicates the battery will resume charging after a too hot or cold condition is corrected

Answer 48

15-B

LED conditions on Charger:
Single Flash Green Successful power-up or recovery from a fault condition.
Steady Red Battery is being rapid charged.
Flashing Red Battery is unchargeable or not making proper contact.
Flashing Green >90% charged.
Steady Green Charging is complete.
Flashing Yellow
Battery too cold or hot to be “rapid” charged. Charging
resumes after the condition is corrected.

Question 49

16. All battery chargers take approximately one hour to rapid-charge a depleted battery. (Add. 1- 3.2, 5.2) A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 49

16-D

3.2 A fully discharged battery is “rapid” charged in one hour.

5.2 The charger may take up to 3 hours to charge a fully drained battery. Overheated batteries
initially may not charge until the battery temperature falls into the acceptable range.

Question 50

17. Batteries are issued with color-coded stickers with a date they are due back to the radio Shops for reconditioning. When shall this due date be inspected? (Add. 1-4.1) 1.Each time battery is placed on a handie-talkie 2. Each tour 3. Each day 4. First day of each month A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4

Answer 50

17-B

Question 51

18. When an assigned company HT is placed out of service, and a spare radio is received from the Division depot, the Officer on Duty must take how many of the following actions? (Add. 2- 1.2)
19. Notify the Dispatcher
20. Notify the Battalion
21. Record the spare radio ID number in the Company Journal
22. Record the spare radio ID number in the Office Record Journal 5. Update the BF-4 with the spare radio ID number
    A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 14 D. All

Answer 51

18-C(2, 3, 4, 5)

♦ Notify administrative Battalion
♦ Record the ID number engraved on the side of the spare radio in the Company and
Office Record Journals
♦ Update the BF-4 with the spare radio’s engraved ID number.

Question 52

19. A lieutenant was assigned by a Deputy Chief to monitor an interoperability (I/O) radio at a multi-agency gas leak. Upon getting info from the NYPD counterpart on the radio the lieutenant was told to acknowledge the message for the D.C. The lieutenant would be correct to respond how when using an I/O radio? (Add. 3- 1.2) A. “10-4, FDNY received the message for the 10-40 code-1 incident” B. “10-4, FDNY received the message for the gas leak incident” C. “FDNY acknowledges the message for the gas leak incident” D. Don’t talk to the NYPD

Answer 52

19-C

Note: Users of I/O frequencies are reminded to use plain English and refrain from using
10 codes or terminology while communicating on these frequencies.

Question 53

20. Which is true when discussing the TAC “U” channel on our handie-talkies? 1.1, 2.1, 3.1, 3.3.2) (Add. 4 – A. Only Model III radios assigned to chief officers are capable of operating on TAC “U” channel A-13. B. TAC “U” is a 2-watt channel. C. All NYPD radios and units are capable of operating on TAC “U”. D. The FDNY IC will operate on primary tactical and have the aide operate on TAC “U

Answer 53

20-D

3.1 The following units will have the capability to operate on the TAC “U” channel:

FDNY NYPD
♦ All FDNY Handie-Talkies ♦ Emergency Service Units
♦ Special Operations Division
♦ Harbor Units
♦ Aviation Unit
♦ K-9 Units

Question 54

22. When may the extra HT (door position) assigned to 4 FF engines be used as a spare radio? (Add. 6 – 2.2) 1. When awaiting delivery of a spare from the HT depot 2. When a unit in the same or adjoining quarters requires a spare 3. When the supply at the HT depot is depleted A. 1, 2 B. 2, 3 C. 1, 3 15 D. 1, 2, 3

Answer 54

22. C

Question 55

21. An engine company arrived at a CFR-D response where FDNY EMS was already on scene. The engine company took the following actions. Which one was correct? 3.3) (Add. 5 – 3.1, 3.2, A. The door FF used the EMS/Fire I/O frequency on channel 10 to contact the EMS technician. B. The FF contacted EMS to determine if they were responding to the same reported location. C. The patient’s condition and if additional or special equipment was needed was also requested from EMS, who was operating on channel 16 on their radios. D. The lieutenant told the FF’s after the run that use of the I/O channel 10 is discretionary on all Segment 1, 2 and 3 CFR-D assignments

Answer 55

21-B

3.1 The EMS/Fire Interoperability (IO) frequency is Channel 10 in all FDNY Handie-Talkies
(HT) and FDNY EMS portable radios. Voluntary Hospital portable radios have the
EMS/Fire IO frequency on either Channel 10 or Channel 16. Radios with a LCD display
will show the frequency as EMS/CFR or EMS Tac 2.
Note: Users of I/O frequencies are reminded to use plain English and refrain from using
10 codes or terminology while communicating on these frequencies.
3.2 The EMS/Fire IO frequency shall be utilized on all Segment 1, 2 and 3 assignments for
contact between the CFR-D Company and the EMS units to determine patient condition,
if additional or special equipment is needed, and to relay any other information that will
facilitate operations.

the back up is no longer the default member to switch to channel 10, but rather a member assigned by the boss.

Question 56

23. Which is a true statement concerning the Post Radio? (Chap. 12-2.3, 2.5, 2.9, 5.1) A. It should be fully charged each tour and after each use for at least 8 hours. B. Prolonged use may require up to 20 hours to fully charge. C. Its primary use is on the Command Channel, although in an emergency it may be used on the Primary Tactical Channel to broadcast at 25 watts. D. Due to radio frequency radiation hazards, members shall not be within 4 feet of a transmitting Post Radio. E. A Post Radio only needs to be in position at the ICP for all 2nd alarms or greater, or when a Command Channel is to be activated

Answer 56

23-B

2.3 The Post Radio shall be fully charged weekly (whether used or not) and after each use for
at least 8 hours. Prolonged use may require up to 20 hours to fully charge.

2.5 A frequency selector switch allows for the use of 16 channels. The channel selection is
displayed through an LCD screen.
Note: In case of emergency, the Incident Commander may switch the Post Radio to the tactical
channel to broadcast their message. This should be done only for emergency
transmissions. The Post Radio transmits at 45 watts. This higher power could cause
interference over a wide area to units at another incident on the same tactical channel.

2.9 Due to the radio frequency radiation hazard, members shall not be within 2 feet from a
transmitting Post Radio. In addition, due to its high transmission wattage, the Post Radio
may cause interference with electrical equipment.

Note: Upon arrival, it is the responsibility of the Deputy Chief to ensure that a Post Radio
is in position at the Incident Command Post (ICP) at every “all hands” or greater alarm.
At this location, the Post Radio will be available for immediate use when necessary.

Question 57

24. Which first alarm member is initially responsible to provide a communication link between the lobby and the fire area pending the establishment of the Fire Sector on a floor below the fire? (Chap. 12-6.2.1) A. The second arriving engine officer by taking the Post Radio from the first arriving BC and transporting it to the vicinity of the standpipe outlet where the first line is being stretched from. B. The first due Outside Vent Firefighter in the fireman’s service elevator, by transporting the Post Radio of the first arriving BC to the vicinity of the standpipe outlet where the first line is being stretched from. C. The second arriving truck officer by taking the Post Radio from the second arriving BC and transporting it to the vicinity of the standpipe outlet where the first line is being stretched from. D. The third arriving engine officer by taking the Post Radio from the second arriving BC and transporting it to the vicinity of the standpipe outlet where the first line is being stretched from

Answer 57

24-A

Question 58

1. The Air Support Plan, whereby a BC will be designated the Air Recon Chief (ARC), will be automatically activated in all but which of the following situations? 3.1 A. Transmission of a 10-66 B. 2nd alarm doubtful for a fire associated with a 10-76 or 10-77 C. Transmission of a 10-60 D. All doubtful 3rd alarms, including brush fires

Answer 58

1-A

3.1 The Air Support Plan will be activated automatically:
♦ upon transmission of a doubtful second alarm for a fire associated with a 10-76 or 10-77
♦ upon transmission of a 10-60
♦ all doubtful third alarms
The Incident Borough Fire Dispatcher will notify the NYPD Operations Unit to pick-up
an Air Reconnaissance Chief (ARC).

Question 59

2. What would be the primary method of communication for the ARC to use to contact the FDNY IC at an Air Support Plan incident? (6.1, 6.4) A. FDNY HT on the 5-watt primary command channel B. NYPD helicopter radio on the 25-watt primary tactical channel C. FDNY HT on the 5-watt TAC “U” channel D. NYPD helicopter radio on the 25-watt primary command channel

Answer 59

2-D

6.1 The NYPD helicopter radio is capable of transmitting at 25 watts and will be the primary
method of communicating with fire ground personnel.
Note: FDNY handie-talkies shall be used as a backup. Communications using the FDNY
handie-talkie radio and headset on the 5-watt primary command and TAC U channels are
generally satisfactory with mid to upper floors in High Rise structures and to a lesser
degree with IC Posts and lower floors.

The Air Reconnaissance Chief will be identified as the “Air Recon Chief” when
transmitting over the communication networks. The Air Recon Chief will use the
primary command channel to contact the IC. At the IC’s discretion, subsequent
communications with the Air Recon Chief may be on alternate command, tactical or the
TAC U channels.

Question 60

4. A lieutenant new to the 1st Division was covering in L-10, a trained High Rise Roof Team (HRRT). He was drilling on the contents of the High-Rise Roof Kit (HRRK), but was incorrect when he said that it contained some of the listed items. How many were incorrect? (Add. 1 – 3.3.1) 1. 1 Bolt cutter 2. 2Halligans 3. 2 Axes 4. 1 Search rope 5. 1 Lifesaving rope 6. 6 SCBA w/1-hour cylinder 7. 1 Rabbit tool 8. 2 Halligan hooks 9. Bags for tools A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer 60

4. c (4,5, 8)

Question 61

3. The Air Rescue Plan is divided into three phases. Which is correctly listed? 2.1.5, 2.2) (Add. 1 - A. The Alert phase occurs upon the transmission of a 2nd alarm doubtful for a fire associated with a 10-76 or 10-77. B. The Assemble phase is ordered by the FDNY IC generally for a fire located above the 10th floor, fire has possession of two or more floors, interior access routes above the fire are blocked, or roof access is limited to the exterior. C. The Airlift phase can be ordered once the deputy chief assumes the role of IC. D. The plan is to put fire personnel on the roof with the primary purpose of immediately removing civilians gathered on the roof via helicopter

Answer 61

3-B

2.1.5 Provide the capability to evacuate the roof as a last resort

2.2 The plan is divided into three phases:
ALERT: Notification is made by the Incident Borough Fire Dispatcher direct to the
NYPD Operations Unit upon the transmission of a doubtful third alarm
for a fire associated with a 10-76 or 10-77 involving a high-rise building.
ASSEMBLE: Fire Department units, Police Helicopters and NYPD Emergency Service
Unit (ESU) personnel are assembled at a selected mobilization point.
AIRLIFT: Air Rescue Teams are airlifted to the vicinity of the roof of the fire building,
pending the decision of the IC to actually land members on the roof.

2.3 Criteria for Use:
2.3.1 The decision to “Assemble” rests with the IC at the fire. The conditions under
which Assembly may be ordered are generally, but not limited to:
A. Fire located above 10th floor in a high-rise building.
B. Fire has possession of two or more floors.
C. Interior access routes above fire blocked.
D. Access to the roof limited to exterior of building, via helicopter.
2.3.2 The decision to “Airlift” may be made only by an IC who is a staff chief.

Question 62

5. Which of the following have authority to direct FDNY members on and off of the helicopter when an Airlift has been approved? (Add. 1 – 3.4.3, 5.1) 1. Pilot 2. Co-pilot 3. Crew chief 4. ESU personnel A. 1 only 6. B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 62

5. D

3.4.3 The Helicopter Pilot, Crew Chief or ESU Personnel will direct members on and off the aircraft.

The HRRC and HRRTs shall approach and board the air-rescue Bell 412 helicopter
only when directed by the pilot, co-pilot or crew chief. Leave the helicopter only when
directed by the pilot, co-pilot or crew chief.

Question 63

6. When a HRRT prepares to board an NYPD helicopter they must follow certain safety rules. Which rule is listed correctly? (Add. 1 – 5.1) A. They shall board and depart the helicopter from the front within the field of vision of the pilot, as this safety zone is the same for all helicopters in use. B. All members must wear a personal safety harness or life saving belt in order to be able to be secured to a substantial object. C. When approaching and leaving the helicopter it must be done in a semi-crouched position, in single file, with each member wearing his/her mask. D. Only the helicopter crew chief can direct the stowing of tools within the aircraft and designate riding positions

Answer 63

6. B

Question 65

8. A Battalion Chief designated the HRRC should take the Post Radio, SCBA, personal harness, and a clipboard aboard the helicopter. Can a Mayday message be transmitted over the Post Radio at 45 watts to ensure reaching all members on upper floors while circling above the building? A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 65

8. D

3.1.4 Be equipped with SCBA (Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus) clipboard and a
personal harness for attachment to safety hook inside the helicopter.

Question 65

9. When deploying a HRRT and a HHRC weight limitations require two separate airlifts. Who will be included in the first airlift to the building? (Add. 1 – 4.3.4.C) A. HRRT officer, FE team, Chauff B. HRRC, HHRT Officer, OVM, Roof C. HRRC, HRRT Officer, FE team D. HRRT officer, Chauff, OVM, Roof

Answer 65

9. C

This aircraft will return to the FDNY/NYPD mobilization point to pick up the
HRRC and the HRRT. Due to weight limitations, two airlifts will be necessary.
The first airlift will include the HRRC, the officer and forcible entry team.
The second lift will include the Chauffeur, OVM and Roof firefighters. In the
event NYPD has an additional Bell 412 air rescue helicopter, it will be
dispatched to assist.

Question 66

7. The HRRT officer has certain responsibilities during an Air Rescue operation. Which is listed correctly? (Add. 1 - 4.3.5) A. Supervise loading and unloading of the HRRK and members in view of the pilot as directed by the crew chief. B. Ensure he/she is the last one to board the aircraft and the first one to disembark upon landing. C. Ensure members operate on HT channel 3-Secondary Tactical under the command of the Search and Evacuation Chief. D. After landing on the roof, have members assemble in an open area on the roof within plain view of the pilot

Answer 66

7. A

4.3.5 The HRRT Officer shall:
A. Insure all members have their personal harness, the firefighting equipment is
properly bagged and members are on the handie-talkie TAC U channel.
(Obtain an extra personal harness from the HRRC or use a Life Saving Belt)
B. Approach the helicopter after receiving the signal from the pilot, co-pilot or
crew chief.
C. Supervise loading and unloading in view of pilot as directed by the crew chief.
D. Monitor the handie-talkie TAC U channel during flight.
E. Operate under the direction of the High Rise Roof Chief.
F. After the helicopter has landed on the roof, select an assembly point near a
bulkhead or other roof projection away from the helispot and have members
proceed to it.

Question 67

10. A newly promoted captain was working in L-21, a designated FDNY HRRT. During drill he made the following statements about the Mustang Survival Personal Flotation Device (PFD) issued to all units involved in the Air Support Plan. In which statement was the captain correct? (Add. 2) A. B. The PFD’s will be donned once properly seated in the aircraft prior to take-off. The PFD will be donned over the bunker gear, and may remain on if the unit is designated for firefighting duty at the scene. C.Each member should insure the service indicator of the CO2 cylinder is green. D. The PFD must be manually inflated by pulling the activation tab of the CO2 cylinder, and if not fully inflated in 20 seconds must be inflated by blowing into the oral inflation tube

Answer 67

10. D

PRECAUTIONS/RESTRICTIONS
• PFDs must be donned prior to entering the aircraft.
• Do not inflate PFDs inside the aircraft.
• Ensure service indicator is green prior to donning PFDs.
• No alterations are to be made to PFDs.
• If PFDs become wet, allow them to dry thoroughly before storing.
• Do not dry PFDs near a heat source.
• If the manual inflator does not inflate a PFD within 5 seconds of pulling the
activation tab, member must inflate by the oral inflator.
• PFDs are NOT designed for firefighting. PFDs need to be removed prior to
operating at any fire or related incident.
• Be reminded that prolonged exposure to cold water can lead to hypothermia.