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Flashcards in Warfighter Exam Review Deck (138)
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1
Q

What principle of the LOW allows destruction or seizure of an enemy’s property only when it is within the necessities of war?

A

The principle of military necessity.

2
Q

What principle of the LOW prohibits armed forces from abusing LOW in order to gain an advantage over their adversaries?

A

Chivalry

3
Q

What is the definition of combatants?

A

Combatants are military personnel lawfully engaging in hostilities, in an armed conflict, on behalf of a party to the conflict.

4
Q

Who receives a non-POW status for their participation in hostilities?

A

Unprivileged belligerents

5
Q

Who cannot compel nationals of the enemy state to take part in hostilities against their own country?

A

Belligerents.

6
Q

What is the definition of military objectives?

A

Military objectives are defined as objects, which by their nature, location, purpose or use, make an effective contribution to military action and whose total or partial destruction, capture or neutralization, in circumstances ruling at the time, offers a definite military advantage

7
Q

What are some examples of defended places?

A

Defended places are a fort or fortified place; a place occupied by a combatant force or through which a force is passing; and a city or town surrounded by defensive positions under circumstances where the city or town is indivisible from the defensive positions.

8
Q

When may you attack works and installations containing dangerous forces?

A

You may attack works and installations containing dangerous forces only if they are providing significant and direct support to military operations, and an attack is the only feasible way to terminate the support.

9
Q

What does cultural property include besides buildings dedicated to religion?

A

Cultural property also includes art and historic monuments.

10
Q

When can you lawfully engage a hospital?

A

As an act of self-defense when you are receiving fire from a hospital.

11
Q

What are two examples of ruses available to you to use on the battlefield?

A

The two examples of ruses are land warfare and use of enemy property

12
Q

When can you use a reprisal?

A

For the sole purpose of enforcing future compliance with LOW when the enemy is in violation of LOW

13
Q

What must you provide to all POWs?

A

Adequate food, facilities, and medical aid.

14
Q

Who has the onus to communicate their intent to surrender?

A

The person or force surrendering

15
Q

Who has the primary responsibility for investigating a suspected, alleged, or possible war crime?

A

The U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Command (CID) has the primary responsibility for investigating a suspected, alleged, or possible war crime

16
Q

What two items are available to a commander in the prosecution of the LOW violations or a war crime?

A

A commander will use articles in the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) or general courts-martial proceedings to prosecute.

17
Q

What is the definition of ROE?

A

ROE are directives issued by competent military authority that delineate the circumstances and limitations under which United States forces will initiate and/or continue combat engagement with other forces encountered

18
Q

What are three primary sets of considerations that drive ROE?

A

policy, legal, and operational.

19
Q

Whom does the commander use in helping with drafting, disseminating, interpreting, and training of ROE?

A

JAGC personnel

20
Q

What can the implementation of ROE help you minimize on the battlefield?

A

Collateral damage

21
Q

What constitutes a hostile act?

A

A hostile act is an attack or use of force against U.S. forces, and in certain circumstances, U.S. nationals and other designated persons and property, as well as force used directly to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces.

22
Q

What constitutes a hostile intent?

A

Hostile intent is the threat of imminent use of force against U.S. forces and other designated persons and property.

23
Q

What constitutes a hostile force?

A

A hostile force is any group that the National Command Authority (NCA) designates as declared hostile.

24
Q

Who is responsible for designating a force hostile?

A

The National Command Authority (NCA)

25
Q

Under ROE, what is a threat of imminent use of force against U.S. forces and other designated persons and property?

A

A hostile intent

26
Q

Who are the only people that can authorize a change or deletion of SROE?

A

The president or the secretary of defense

27
Q

Who always has the inherent right and obligation to exercise unit self-defense in response to a hostile act or demonstrated hostile intent?

A

Every unit commander

28
Q

What specific rule of ROE sets objective factors to assist you in determining whether an individual’s conduct constitutes a hostile act or a demonstration of hostile intent?

A

Hostility criteria

29
Q

What specific rules of ROE are you using if you fire a warning shot at an individual committing a hostile act?

A

Rules for escalation of force or challenging procedures

30
Q

What is the definition of EOF?

A

EOF are sequential actions that begin with nonlethal force measures and may graduate to lethal measures

31
Q

What does the leader immediately do once he receives the mission?

A

Leaders perform an initial assessment of the situation (abbreviated METT- TC analysis) and allocate the time available for planning and preparation

32
Q

What are the most likely ways you will receive a mission?

A

In a warning order (WARNO) or an operation order (OPORD)

33
Q

What are the eight steps of the troop leading procedure?

A
  1. Receive the mission.
  2. Issue a warning order.
  3. Make a tentative plan.
  4. Start necessary movement.
  5. Reconnoiter.
  6. Complete the plan.
  7. Issue the complete order.
  8. Supervise
34
Q

What does METT-TC stand for?

A
Mission
Enemy
Terrain
Troops
Time 
Civil considerations
35
Q

When considering the military aspects of terrain, which acronym do we use, and what does the acronym stand for?

A

OAKOC

36
Q

In which paragraph of the OPORD can you normally find the commanders intent?

A

Execution

37
Q

What paragraph of the OPORD provides information on enemy forces, friendly forces, and attachments and detachments?

A

Situation

38
Q

What is a warning order?

A

A preliminary notice of an order or action that is to follow. Warning orders help subordinate leaders prepare for new missions.

39
Q

Where in the OPORD provides the location of the leadership during the operation?

A

Command and Signal

40
Q

What is the purpose of a FRAGO?

A

It is issued after an operation order to change or modify that order or to execute a branch or sequel to that order.

41
Q

You must decide how you intend to carry out your mission. On what factors (or mission variables) must you base your tentative plan?

A

METT-TC

42
Q

In which paragraph can you find the leaders intent?

A

Execution.

43
Q

What are the best checkpoint features?

A

Linear features that cross the route, such as perennial streams, hard-top roads, ridges, valleys, railroads, and power transmission lines.

44
Q

How can a team travel over unfamiliar terrain and know when it reaches its destination?

A

Select a checkpoint reasonably close to the destination.

45
Q

What are the four steps to land navigation?

A
  1. Know where you are.
  2. Plan the route.
  3. Stay on the route.
  4. Recognize the objective.
46
Q

What is the advantage of selecting a checkpoint reasonably close to the final destination and why?

A

By selecting a checkpoint that is easily recognizable in the area close to your objective, you may conduct a procedure called point navigation. That is, you plan a short, fine-tuned last leg by following a specific compass azimuth and pacing off the relatively short, known distance to the final, pinpoint destination.

47
Q

What are the three techniques of individual movement?

A
  1. Low crawl.
  2. High crawl.
  3. Rush.
48
Q

What are the advantages of the high crawl and when would a Soldier use it?

A

The high crawl allows the Soldier to move faster than the low crawl. It still provides the soldier with a low silhouette. It is used when there is good concealment but enemy fire prevents a Soldier from getting up.

49
Q

What are the advantages of the low crawl and when would a Soldier use it?

A

It provides the Soldier the lowest silhouette while crossing an area where concealment is very low and enemy fire or observation prevents a Soldier from getting up.

50
Q

What are advantages of the rush and when would a Soldier use it?

A

The rush is the fastest way to move from one position to another when enemy fire allows brief exposure.

51
Q

How do formations provide security?

A

Formations provide 360-degree security and allows a unit to give the weight of its firepower to the flanks or front in anticipation of enemy contact.

52
Q

How do formations provide flexibility?

A

The use of formations allows Soldiers to execute battle drills quicker and give them the assurance that their leaders and buddy team members are in their expected positions and performing the right tasks.

53
Q

What are the two fire team formations?

A
  1. Wedge.

2. File.

54
Q

What are the three squad formations?

A
  1. Squad Column.
  2. Squad Line.
  3. Squad File.
55
Q

What are the three movement techniques?

A
  1. Traveling.
  2. Traveling over watch.
  3. Bounding over watch.
56
Q

What type of movement do you use when enemy contact is possible?

A

Traveling overwatch.

57
Q

What type of movement technique do you use when you expect enemy contact?

A

Bounding over watch.

58
Q

What are the four steps necessary to cross danger areas?

A
  1. Designate near-and far-side security.
  2. Secure the near side security (right, left, and rear flanks).
  3. Reconnoiter and secure the far side.
  4. Execute crossing the danger area.
59
Q

When operating as an independent squad, who decides where the squad will cross the linear danger area?

A

The squad leader reconnoiters the danger area and selects the crossing point that provides the best cover and concealment

60
Q

What is a danger area?

A

Any place on a route where the squad leader determines that the enemy may observe, fire, or both on the unit.

61
Q

Who is responsible for clearing the far side of a linear danger area?

A

The far-side security team will clear the far side of the danger area.

62
Q

What are the two techniques used when crossing a small, open area?

A

Detour bypasses method and contouring around the open area

63
Q

complying with noise discipline what should you not do to your weapon?

A

Be careful not to restrict the moving parts of the weapon which could prevent its operation

64
Q

Which method of movement is the fastest way to move from one position to another?

A

The 3 to 5 second rush

65
Q

On what factors does the leader base the selection of a movement technique?

A

The likelihood of enemy contact and the need for speed.

66
Q

If enemy contact is not likely and speed is necessary, what movement technique would you use

A

Traveling.

67
Q

What are the two fire team formations?

A

Wedge and File

68
Q

What is the normal interval in a fire team wedge formation?

A

10 meters, however, the wedge formation expands and contracts depending on the terrain.

69
Q

What is the squad’s main formation for movement?

A

Squad column.

70
Q

When crossing a large danger area, what types of movement techniques would you use?

A

Combination of traveling over watch and bounding over watch.

71
Q

What are the two methods used when crossing a small danger area?

A

Detour by pass method and contouring around the open area.

72
Q

When crossing large open areas and once in range of enemy small arms fire, what movement technique should you use?

A

Bounding over watch technique

73
Q

What degree of turns do you use when applying the detour bypass method of crossing a small open area?

A

90-degree turns.

74
Q

When a fire team must move from building to building in an urban area, should the team cross one man at a time or as a group?

A

The team should cross as a group

75
Q

What discipline are you practicing if you avoid all unnecessary vehicular and foot movement?

A

Noise discipline

76
Q

What is the definition of TSE?

A

The action taken to ensure that documents, material, and personnel are identified, collected, protected, and evaluated in order to facilitate follow-on actions.

77
Q

What are the components of the targeting cycle?

A

Exploit, analyze, disseminate, find, fix, and finish.

78
Q

TSE has two levels of execution, what are they?

A

Hasty and deliberate.

79
Q

What are the additional TSE planning guidelines?

A

Safety, distraction, prioritizes, and minimizes disruption and destruction.

80
Q

Who has the responsibility to establish TSE teams to support company and battalion TSE operations?

A

The battalion

81
Q

What should be the composition of your TSE team?

A

team leader (TL), assistant team leader (ATL), tactical questioning (TQ) team with an interpreter, team photographer, and two-man search teams.

82
Q

What are the constraints for TSE?

A

Disruption, public perception, security, resources, cost and commercial interest, light conditions, waiting periods, finding nothing, and searcher fatigue

83
Q

Who is responsible for all TQ at the TSE site?

A

The TQ team with the interpreter

84
Q

are the actions of the TL and TSE team once the TSE mission starts?

A

Secure the site, use EOD or military working dogs to clear the site if necessary, TL conducts an initial debrief of the assault force, all team personnel receive a briefing on any remaining safety or enemy threats, and the TL determines the scope of the exploitation

85
Q

What are the key considerations for handing personnel at a TSE site?

A

The separation of women and children from men and the safeguarding of individuals from any abuse.

86
Q

search team will conducts what type of procedures during a room search?

A

Start in the center of room, move back to the doorway, and work clockwise around the room (high to low and 3D) and if there are two searchers, one works clockwise and the other work counterclockwise

87
Q

The TL may consider other options on how to search the site or house if the manpower exists, what are the other search techniques?

A

The U.S-only, an occupant-assisted, an informant-assisted and joint host nation and coalition search.

88
Q

What are the three types of searches for the outsides areas?

A

Strip or lane, grid search, and spiral or circular search

89
Q

What are several factors you must consider prior to clearing a booby trap?

A

Time constraints, personal assets, type of booby trap (electric or nonelectric and design and accessibility of components), and other considerations; could the area withstand a detonation? What would be the political effects if the booby trap detonated in its current location?

90
Q

The search pair will search and mark what size approach route to the building being searched?

A

One-meter wide

91
Q

What are some booby trap clearance aids you should have available for each team?

A

Explosives, hook,-and-line set, key holder, and weight dropper

92
Q

Who should you first call to disarm a suspected booby trap?

A

EOD.

93
Q

What should you do when you find money at the TSE site?

A

Seize and bag all cash, checks, checkbooks, money ledgers, pocket litter, and all sensitive items. The non-currency items (money ledgers or bankbooks) may help the S2 shop find out how insurgents obtain their weapons or explosives (what looks like trash to you may be solid gold to the intelligence folks). Make sure you accurately document and account for the recovered currency. For example, write down the serial numbers of United States currency. There is no need to do this for Iraqi currency, but remember to photograph it.

94
Q

What types of law enforcement agencies may also be located at your forward operating base (FOB) to assist you?

A

Military police (MP), security forces, Criminal Investigation Division (CID) agents, master of arms (Navy), Office of Special Investigations, or your legal office.

95
Q

Which evidence collecting form is a Arabic/English inventory document?

A

Evidence inventory Form

96
Q

If an insurgent appears before the CCCI what is the maximum amount of time could he be sentenced to prison?

A

20 years

97
Q

What are some helpful tips that will aid you when working with an interpreter?

A

Placement, body language and tone, delivery, and security

98
Q

What is the goal of TQ?

A

To establish consistencies and/or inconsistencies in the stories of the individuals to be questioned

99
Q

When conducting TQ, you avoid asking what type of questions?

A

Negative questions

100
Q

What is the definition of biometrics?

A

Is the measurable physical and/or behavioral characteristics that establish and verify an individual’s identity.

101
Q

What are the two types of biometric measurements?

A

physiological and behavioral

102
Q

What are battle drills?

A

group skills designed to teach a unit to react and survive in common combat situations

103
Q

Tactically, your unit has the advantage of surprise. What strategy/task would you employ in this situation?

A

A hasty ambush

104
Q

What is the 5-Cs?

A

Confirm, clear, cordon, check, and control

105
Q

What is your initial reaction upon contact with the enemy by direct fire while dismounted?

A

Soldiers under direct fire immediately return fire and seek the nearest covered positions. Calls out distance; direction; of direct fire

106
Q

When reacting to visual contact (dismounted), how does the unit destroy the enemy?

A

The unit destroys the enemy by conducting a hasty ambush or an immediate assault through the enemy position

107
Q

How does the bounding squad/team conceals its movement?

A

The bounding squad/team uses the terrain and/or smoke to conceal its movement and bounds to an over-watch position.

108
Q

Who does the unit leader report contact to after breaking contact?

A

The unit leader reports the contact to the higher headquarters.

109
Q

What is the difference between a near ambush and a far ambush?

A

A near ambush is when the enemy initiates contact with direct fire within hand grenade range and a far ambush is when the enemy initiates contact with direct and indirect fire.

110
Q

During the React to Ambush (Near) drill (dismounted), which Soldiers assault through the enemy ambush?

A

The Soldiers in the kill zone

111
Q

During the React to Ambush (Far) (dismounted) drill, the Soldiers in the kill zone establish a support by fire and are suppressing the enemy’s fire. As the Soldiers not in contact begin their assault, what must the Soldiers in the kill zone do?

A

Shift suppressive fires

112
Q

Why do you visually search the detainee before approaching him?

A

Because the detainee may have a weapon hidden from view. This could include handguns, knives, hard objects, or even IEDs. Safety for you, your team, other detainees, and bystanders is of primary importance.

113
Q

When restraining the detainee’s hands with disposable restraints, how tight should the restraints be?

A

The disposable restraints should be tight enough to secure the detainee’s hands, but loose enough to allow one finger between the disposable restraints and the detainee’s wrist to ensure that the disposable restraints do not restrict the detainee’s circulation.

114
Q

If you find a weapon at any point during the search, what actions should you take?

A

Loudly announce the weapon found so that the guard and interpreter can clearly hear (for example, gun, knife, or razor). Remain in firm contact with the detainee as you remove the weapon from its hiding place. Stand up with the weapon, being careful not to walk between the guard and the detainee, and place the weapon a safe distance away within the view of the guard. Return to the detainee and continue searching.

115
Q

What categories do you use to segregate detainees?

A

a. Rank (officers, NCOs, and enlisted).
b. Sex.
c. Civilians from military.
d. Nationalities and ideology (if possible).
e. Captives who surrendered willingly or deserted from those who resisted.
f. Captives who are not readily identifiable as belonging to one of the above groups.

116
Q

What are the five steps used when guarding detainees?

A
  1. Ensure that you check your weapons’ functionality, load it, and prepare it for use, if needed.
  2. Position yourself and stay alert.
  3. Ensure that detainees remain silent.
  4. Ensure that detainees remain segregated.
  5. Safeguard the detainees.
  6. Respond to escape attempts.
117
Q

What more compelling methods are available to silence uncooperative detainees?

A

(1) Segregating uncooperative detainees away from other detainees.
(2) Applying a muffle.

118
Q

From where should you obtain first aid supplies?

A

From the detainees, if available.

119
Q

Who are the personnel that make up the search team?

A

The searcher, the guard, and an interpreter if available

120
Q

When can you confiscate currency from detainees?

A

Only on the express order of a commissioned officer (for example, through an OPORD, FRAGO, or verbal order) per AR 190-8.

121
Q

What is medical evacuation (MEDEVAC)?

A

The movement of casualties using medical assets while providing en route medical care.

122
Q

What is casualty evacuation?

A

The movement of casualties by nonmedical assets without specialized trauma care.

123
Q

You don’t have a protractor, so you must use the first technique of orienting your mat with a compass. You have aligned the straight edge of the compass along a north-south grid line of the map. What is your next step?

A

Rotate the map and compass until the magnetic arrow is below the fixed black index line on the compass

124
Q

Once the compass shows that the magnetic arrow is below the fixed black index line on the compass, and the declination diagram shows a westerly magnetic north, what is your next step to orient your map?

A

Rotate the map and compass together to the right until the compass reading is equal to the G-M angle given in the declination diagram.

125
Q

If you must rotate your map to the left because you have an easterly G-M angle, what should the reading on your compass be if you properly oriented your map?

A

360 degrees minus the declination angle, e.g., a map with 10 degrees easterly G-M angle, the compass should read 350 degrees.

126
Q

How would you define azimuth?

A

An azimuth is a horizontal angle that you measure clockwise from a north base line.

127
Q

What is another (more accurate) measurement that you can use for determining azimuths?

A

Mils

128
Q

What Instruments do you use in map reading to determine both mils and degree measurements?

A

Military protractor

129
Q

How does the Army define true north?

A
  • It is a line from any position on the earth’s surface to the North Pole
  • All lines of longitude are true north lines
  • Usually represented by a star
130
Q

How does the Army define magnetic north?

A
  • The direction to the north magnetic pole
  • The north seeking needle of a lensatic compass points to this location
  • Used in the field when using a magnetic compass
  • Usually symbolized by a line ending with half of an arrowhead
131
Q

How does the Army define grid north?

A
  • The north established by using the vertical grid lines on a map.
  • The map may symbolize grid north by the letters “GN” or the letter “Y.”
132
Q

What are some examples of steering marks?

A

Uniquely shaped trees, rocks, hilltops, posts, towers, and buildings—anything that you could easily identify.

133
Q

You cannot find a steering mark to your font, what can you do to guide you until you can find a steering mark?

A

Use a back azimuth using some recognizable feature behind you.

134
Q

What is the advantage of selecting a steering mark that is the furthest away?

A

It allows you to travel farther with fewer references to the compass

135
Q

What are advantages of dead reckoning?

A

It’s easy to teach and learn, and it can be highly accurate way of moving, if done carefully over short distances.

136
Q

What do you call the landmarks that you select to travel toward when using dead reckoning?

A

Steering marks

137
Q

Once you know your pace count for 100 meters, what methods can you use to keep count of how far you travel?

A

Tie knot in a string or lacing, place a pebble in your pocket for every 100 meters of distance traveled, or make marks in a notebook

138
Q

When you detour around an object, and you are turning to the right, do you add or subtract 90 degrees to your traveling azimuth?

A

Add 90 degrees.