VTNE - Animal Nursing

Question 1

As a dog or cat transitions from immature to mature, the recommended diet change is for 
a. increase in calories
b decrease in fat, increase in fiber
c addition of table scraps
d decrease in fiber

Answer 1

B. Decrease in fat, increase in fiber

exp: fewer calories are required once growth is complete, and fiber is beneficial for GI function

Question 2

What ratio is compromised by feeding a diet high in bran to horses?

a. Na/Cl
b. Ca/P
c. Vitamins A/D
d. Mg/CO2

Answer 2

B. Ca/ P

exp: bran is high in phosphorus

Question 3

`Oversupplementation of vegetable oils can result in
a. increase in serum nitrogen
b decrease in absorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K
c. greasy coat
d. predisposition to autoimmune disease

Answer 3

B. decrease in absorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K

exp: fat soluble vitamins

Question 4

A factor included in body condition score of dogs and cats is

a. age
b. visible waist
c. weight
d. palpation of ribs

Answer 4

B. visible waist

exp:should show an hourglass profile when viewed from above

Question 5

Failure to decrease the grain intake for a horse that transitions from training/work to an idle status may cause

a. polydipsia
b. azoturia
c. anorexia
d. pyrexia

Answer 5

B. Azoturia

exp: Buildup of waste products leading to a diseased state of renal function

Question 6

Hypoallergenic diets oftentimes contain:

a. soybean
b. corn
c. rice
d. ethoxyquin

Answer 6

C. Rice

exp:Protein source with low allergenic potential

Question 7

When feeding horses, it is recommended to measure feed:

a. by volume, not weight
b. as a per-day ration
c. by weight, not volume
d. according to supplementation

Answer 7

C. By weight, not volume

exp: the horse stomach can hold approx 5 pounds

Question 8

Oversupplementation of which of the following can be detrimental?

a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin K
c. Selenium
d. Biotin

Answer 8

C. Selenium

exp: Signs of selenium toxicity include nervousness, anorexia, and ataxia

Question 9

Which of the following is a normal urine pH for a cat?

a. 6.2
b. 6.0
c. 7.0
d. 7.5

Answer 9

a. 6.2

exp: The normal urine pH range for cats is 6.2 to 6.6

Question 10

When a product is labeled as flavored, it must contain at least what percent of said ingredient?

a. 10%
b. 28%
c. 3%
d. 12%

Answer 10

C. 3%

exp: per AAFCO guidelines

Question 11

Protein that is not used by the body is converted to energy, and the waste:
a. is stored as fat for energy
b. is excreted by the kidneys
c. is filtered by the liver
d is reabsorbed as amino acids

Answer 11

B. Is excreted by the kidneys

exp: Feeding excess protein is expensive, and it goes to waste

Question 12

Which of the following animals can easily become hyperthermic if chased?

a. Hogs and sheep
b. Goats and sheep
c. Goats and hogs
d. Cattle and goats

Answer 12

A. Hogs and sheep

exp: The hogs insulating layer of fat and the sheep’s thick wool will contribute to overheating if these animals are chased or handled for long periods

Question 13

What is the best method to encourage a goat to stand still?

a. life up the head and chin
b. cover an eye
c. hold up a front leg
d. tie to a fence

Answer 13

C. hold up a front leg

exp: Most goats, large or small, will calmly stand in one place if a front leg is lifted

Question 14

What is an example of a soluble carbohydrate?

a. lignin
b. glucose
c. cellulose
d. pectin

Answer 14

B. Glucose

exp: Lignin, cellulose, and pectin are all dietary fiber or insoluble carbohydrates

Question 15

Vitamin C levels in guinea pig food decline after how many months of storage?
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
.d 12 months

Answer 15

A. 3 months

Question 16

What species is NOT nocturnal?

a. hamster
b. gerbil
c. hedgehog
d. sugar glider

Answer 16

B. Gerbil

exp: the gerbil and mouse are diurnal

Question 17

Which statement about housing rabbits is accurate?
a rabbits should be housed in a warm and humid environment
b. Two female rabbits housed together will fight
c. two male rabbits housed together will fight
d. solid-walled cages with wire mesh flooring are best.

Answer 17

C. Two male rabbits housed together will fight

exp: Rabbits need a cool but dry environment. the cage should have good circulation with a solid floor area for resting and to prevent sore hocks.

Question 18

What species is not a social animal and should be housed alone?

a. chinchilla
b. hamster
c. gerbil
d. guinea pig

Answer 18

B. Hamster

exp: hamsters are solitary in nature

Question 19

Parvovirus causes what disease in cats?

a. panleukopenia
b. rhinotracheitis
c. infectious peritonitis
d. infectious anemia

Answer 19

A. Panleukopenia

exp: Coronavirus causes feline infectious peritonitis, and a rickettsial parasite causes feline infectious anemia.

Question 20

Feline distemper is caused by the same type of organism as what canine disease?

a. canine distemper
b. canine parvovirus
c. parainfluenza
d. adenovirus type 2

Answer 20

B. Canine parvovirus

exp: Feline distemper (feline panleukopenia) is caused by a parvovirus similar to the canine parvovirus

Question 21

What disease is not characterized by diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration?
a feline infectious enteritis
b. feline infectious peritonitis
c. feline panleukopenia
d. feline distemper

Answer 21

B. Feline infectious peritonitis

exp: Feline infectious peritonitis is characterized by abdominal distention resulting from ascites

Question 22

A dog has a HX of not eating for 2 days and has lost 10% of its body weight. This weight loss is most likely due to a loss of:

a. Lean body mass
b. fat
c. glycogen
d. water

Answer 22

D. Water

exp:acute weight loss is typically due to water loss

Question 23

Scent glads in the male goat are located:

a. around the tail base
b. around the horn base
c. in the groin area
d. in the axial are

Answer 23

B. around the horn base

exp:scent glads in male goats are located around the horn base and may be destroyed at dehorning.

Question 24

`The reason that adult dogs and cats will often have diarrhea after consuming a large quantity of milk is because

a. they are allergic to lactose
b. they have an inability to absorb lactose.
c. the protein in milk causes a toxic reaction to the microvilli of the small intestine, thus decreasing the amount of nutrient that can be absorbed
d. milk coasts the intestine, preventing the reabsorption of water, thus leading to diarreha

Answer 24

B. they have an inability to absorb lactose

exp: this is a good example of a food intolerance, not a food allergy. These animals lack the necessary enzyme, lactase, needed to break lactose into simple sugars for absorption.

Question 25

Cholesterol would be found in the highest concentration in

a. corn oil
b. peanut butter
c. turkey breast without the skin
d. celery

Answer 25

C. turkey breast without the skin

exp: Cholesterol is found in animal tissues only

Question 26

A cat fed only fish would be most at risk for which of the following problems?

a. pansteatitis
b. encephalomalacia
c. anemia
d. mulberry heart disease

Answer 26

A. Pansteatitis

exp: A high amount of unsaturated fatty acids without supplemented vitamin E puts a cat at risk of yellow fat disease or pansteatitis

Question 27

Feeding an animal raw egg whites would put the animal at risk of a(n)

a. iron deficiency
b. vitamin E deficiendy
c. biotin deficiency
d. protein deficiency

Answer 27

C. Biotin deficiency

exp: Avidin in egg whites will bind to biotin, making it unavailable

Question 28

Great care must be taken when dehorning a goat with a hot electric dehorner because:

a. the hair may catch fire
b. the smell of burning skin scares goats
c. it is difficult to control dehorning pain in goats
d. the heat may damage their brains

Answer 28

D. the heat may damage their brains

exp: Goats have thinner skulls than calves and may suffer brain damage if too much heat is applied to their heads with a dehorner

Question 29

A cat being fed a homemade vegetarian diet caould be expected to be deficient in all of the following except:

a. Vitamin A
b. niacin
c. vitamin B12
d. protein

Answer 29

D. Protein

exp:A diet meeting all of a cat’s essential nutrient requirements cannot be entirely derived from plant products

Question 30

Which of these signs is not seen in fearful animals?

a. constricted pupils
b. standing or lying tensely at the rear of the cage
c. facing the back corner of the cage, glancing over the shoulder to keep people in sight
d. ears pulled back

Answer 30

A. constricted pupils

exp: fearful animals have dilated pupils

Question 31

If there were no contraindications for the following feeding routes, the best route would be via:

a. the cephalic vein
b. the jugular vein
c. a gastric tube
d. femoral artery

Answer 31

C. A gastric tube

exp: If the gut works, use it

Question 32

An advantage of a nasoesophageal (NE) tube over a gastrostomy tube is:
a. it does not require general anesthesia to put the tube in.
b you can use regular dog or cat canned food with the NE tube
c. the NE tube can be left in place longer than a gastrostomy tube
d. there is less chance of aspiration pneumonia with a NE tube

Answer 32

A. It does not require general anesthesia to put the tube in.

Question 33

After more than one day of not eating, animals are deriving most of their energy from:

a. fat stores
b. glycogen stores
c. protein stores
d. fiber pockets

Answer 33

A. Fat stores

exp: glycogen stores are exhausted in about 24 hours. Fat is burned to make volatile fatty acids for energy

Question 34

What is not commonly associated with food allergies?
a bilateral otitis externa
b. diarrhea
c. a sudden change in diet
d. a nonseasonal pruritus

Answer 34

C. A sudden change in diet

exp: on the average, animals have been on a diet for 2 years before developing a food allergy to that food

Question 35

What has been demonstrated to prevent periodontal disease?

a. tartar-control diets
b. chew toys
c. ionstrumental dental cleaning
d. dry food

Answer 35

C. Instrumental dental cleaning

exp: Diets and toys have been shown to decrease calculus and tartar, but they have not been shown to prevent periodontal disease

Question 36

Which of the following would be most detrimental to feed a growing puppy?

a. an over-gthe-counter multivitamin
b. multivitamin tablet
c. vitamin C tablet
d. calcium supplement

Answer 36

D. Calcium supplement

exp: remodeling of bones is a necessary component of growth in a puppy. Excess calcium will prevent the necessary breakdown of bones and lead to bone deformities.

Question 37

Greasy, foul-smelling feces usually indicates:

a. too high protein content in the diet
b. too high fat content in the diet
c. too high carbohydrate content in the diet
d. A problem with fat absorption

Answer 37

D. A problem with fat absorption

exp: Also called steatorrhea

Question 38

A dog’s ideal weight is 20kg and its actual weight is 30kg. If each day you fed the dog 200kcal less than what it would take for the dog to maintain its ideal weight, how long would it take for the animal to reach its ideal weight?

a. 3 weeks
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year

Answer 38

D. 1 years

exp: An animal will derive approximately 7700 kcal from 1kg of adipose tissue.

(10kg x 7700 kcal/kg = 77,000 kcal needed to lose 77,000 kcal/200 kcal lost a day = 385 days)

Question 39

Which of the following is not an advantage to feeding a dog with lymphosarcoa a diet high in fat?

a. high-fat diets are usually very palatable
b. fat would increase the energy density of the diet
c. lymphosarcoma cells cannot use fat for energy
d. fats are beneficial to digestion

Answer 39

D. fats are beneficial to digestion

exp: Animals with cancer typically do not have much of an appetite, therefore a highly palatable, energy-dense diet is preferred. It has been demonstrated for lymphosarcoma cells, and is probably true for other types of cancer, that they are restricted to anaerobic metabolism, that is, glucose.

Question 40

The guaranteed analysis statement on the label of bag of food will not give any information on the:

a. minimum amount of fat in the diet
b. minimum amount of protein in the diet
c. maximum amount of fiber in the diet
d. digestibility of the protein in the diet

Answer 40

D. Digestibility of the protein in the diet

exp:Guaranteed analysis statements address quantities of contents only, not the quality of contents

Question 41

Advantages of giving an animal in respiratory distress a high-fat diet would not include which of the following?

a. less CO2 is produced from the metabolism of fat.
b. fat is more energy dense
c. diets are more palatable
d. fat in the diet will cause an animal to breathe slower

Answer 41

D. Fat in the diet will cause an animal to breathe slower

Question 42

Which of the following would be the most accurate estimate of the energy a foodstuff would contribute to an animal?

a. gross energy
b. net energy
c. digestible energy
d. metabolizable energy

Answer 42

B. Net energy

exp:The net energy of any feed is the amount of energy left after deducting from the metabolizable energy the energy lost in the so-called “work of digestion.”

Question 43

Which of the following terms would most likely predict forage with a high ADF value?

a. stemmy
b. prebloom
c. leafy
d. green

Answer 43

A. stemmy

exp: Acid detergent fiber (ADF) and neutral detergent fiber (NDF) are tests to analyze the fiber content of a forage. In general, the higher the ADF or NDF, the less digestible the forage.

Question 44

By determining the nitrogen content of a food sample, one can estimate the amount of _____ in the diet:

a. fat
b. fiber
c. carbohydrate
d. protein

Answer 44

D. Protein

exp: Protein is a nitrogenous compound

Question 45

A client of your practice calls you up with a question about the diet that was prescribed for her cat. This client noticed on the label that the cat food contains several kinds of animal protein. The client says that because all animal protein contains cholesterol, she wondered whether the food contained good cholesterol or bad cholesterol. Which of the following statements would not be included in your answer?

a. plant products and animal products contain cholesterol
b. cholesterol is an essential nutrient in the body used for estrogen, testosterone, bile, and so forth.
c. what is referred to as “good cholesterol” is actually a lipoprotein (HDL) that carries cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver
d. Bad cholesterol is actually a lipoprotein (LDL) that carries cholesterol to the peripheral tissues.

Answer 45

A. Plant products and animal products contain cholesterol

Question 46

Which of the following would be least likely to induce diarrhea in a cat?

a. increased fiber in the diet
b. panleukopenia
c. food allergy
d. increased salt content in the diet

Answer 46

D. Increased salt content in the diet

Question 47

Which of the following does not result in glucose in the blood?

a. diet
b. conversion of protein to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver
c. breakdown of glycogen
d. conversion of fatty acids to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver

Answer 47

D. Conversion of fatty acids to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver

exp: Fatty acids cannot be converted to glucose

Question 48

Acidifying diets will help prevent what type of bladder stones?

a. struvite
b. oxalate
c. biurate
d. ammonium

Answer 48

A. Struvite

Acidifying diets may decrease the formation of struvite (triple phosphate) stones and contribute to the formation of oxalate stones

Question 49

If a cat is eating grass, then you know that the

a. cat wants to vomit
b. cat has worms
c. cat has a nutritional deficiency
d. cause is unknown

Answer 49

D. Cause is unknown

exp: It is unknown why cats and dogs eat grass

Question 50

What species is least likely to require frequent cage cleaning?

a. rats
b. mice
c. gerbils
d. hamsters

Answer 50

C. gerbils

Question 51

The minimum relative humidity in a neonatal puppy housing unit should be:

a. 30%
b. 50%
c. 70%
d. 90%

Answer 51

B. 50%

Question 52

During the first week of life, orphaned puppies and kittens should be reared in an environmental temperature of

a. 32.2 C (90F)
b. 26.7 C (80F)
c. 21.1 C (70F)
d. 15.6 C (60F)

Answer 52

A. 32.2 C (90F)

exp: Neonatal puppies and kittens usually stay right next to their dams, in an environment nearing body temperature. orphaned neonates require a similar environment.

Question 53

To keep animals germ free inside a barrier unit, the air pressure inside compared with that outside must be

a. higher
b. lower
c. equal
d. much lower

Answer 53

A. Higher

exp: Higher pressure inside will prevent entry of outside contaminants when the door is opened.

Question 54

In an isolation unit where sick animals are housed, the air pressure in the unit compared with that in the quarters housing healthy animals must be:

a. higher
b. lower
c. equal
d. much higher

Answer 54

B. lower

exp:This will prevent air from travelling from sick-animal areas to well-animal areas

Question 55

Adults males of what species should not be group-housed?

a. rats
b. mice
c. guinea pigs
d. gerbils

Answer 55

B. Mice

Exp: males mice housed together will frequently display aggressive behavior

Question 56

“Red tears” (chromodacryorrhea) in rats is caused by:

a. stress
b. infection
c. toxins
d. impaired blood clotting

Answer 56

A. stress

exp: Stress can cause rats to secrete red porphyrin pigments in their tears

Question 57

Filter caps on rodent shoebox cages reduce the

a. ammonia levels
b. horizontal transmission of pathogens
c. cage temperatures
d. litter sizes of pregnant females

Answer 57

B. horizontal transmission of pathogens

exp: filters on the only opening in shoebox-type housing will filter out small particles, such as pathogens

Question 58

Which of these is not a common strategy for managing heat stress in dairy cattle?

a. feeding early in the day
b. placing fans over housing areas
c. sprinkling or misting cows with water
d. cooling the holding pen near the milking parlor

Answer 58

A. Feeding early in the day

exp: typically, all farms feed early all of the time, plus it is imperative that cows have feed in front of them at all times.

Question 59

If you are visiting all of the housing areas on a farm, in what order should you view or examine the animals?
a cows, weaned heifers or steers, calves
b. weaned heifers or steers, calves, cows
c. calves, cows, weaned heifers or steers
d. calves, weaned heifers or steers, cows

Answer 59

D. calves, weaned heifers or steers, cows

exp: The risk of spreading disease is reduced by visiting the stock in order, from youngest to oldest.

Question 60

The height of a nipple watering device must be adjusted according to the size of the pigs in the pen. It should be set at a level that is:

a. even with the elbow of the pigs
b. just above the shoulder of the pigs
c. halfway between the shoulder and the elbow of the pigs
d. comfortably reachable when the pigs are lying down

Answer 60

B. just above the shoulder of the pigs

exp: The pig should have to reach up slightly to drink from a nipple watering device to minimize waste. In addition, the pigs are less likely to come into contact with the nipple, which could cause damage to themselves or to the device.

Question 61

The number of nipple watering devices in group pens varies according to the size and number of animals involved. a pen of 20 pigs should have a minimum of

a. 1 nipple per pen
b. 2 nipples per pen
c. 3 nipples per pen
d. 4 nipples per pen

Answer 61

B. 2 nipples per pen

exp: Providing two nipples in a pen of 20 pigs allows all of the animals access to water. Generally, swine producers are encouraged to install a minimum of 2 watering devices per pen.

Question 62

Fences and dividers between groups of pigs should be constructed so that

a. the slats are positioned horizontally
b. the slats are positioned vertically
c. the top of the fence is no higher than the largest pig’s back
d. the bottom of the fence is at least 8 inches above the floor of the pen

Answer 62

B. the slats are positioned vertically

exp: Vertical slats prevent the pigs from climbing the fence

Question 63

Frequently, the most challenging aspect of housing goats is

a. building materials
b. fencing
c. heating
d. size considerations

Answer 63

B. fencing

exp: Goats housing does not need to be sophisticated, and goats can handle hot and cold with proper shelter. however, they are good climbers, and fencing must be secure and 4 to 6 feet high

Question 64

Excessive carbon monoxide levels in a swine barn are usually associated with

a. too many animals in a building or room
b. overheating of the animals in a building or room
c. incomplete combustion of fuel in a heater
d. excessive waste buildup in the pits

Answer 64

C. incomplete combustion of fuel in a heater

Question 65

Chutes used for moving swine should be constructed so that the sides

a. have no openings
b. have vertical bars
c. have horizontal bars
d. are wider at the bottom than at the top

Answer 65

A. Have no openings

exp: If pigs see obstructions or movement in front of them, they stop moving.

Question 66

Feeders in finishing hog pens should have

a. one feeder space per pig
b. wide openings so that two pigs can eat per hole
c. one feeder space per 6 to 10 pigs
d. shallow feeder spaces

Answer 66

C. one feeder space per 6 to 10 pigs

exp: One feeder space per 60 to 10 pigs allows the animals ample access to the food supply and is economical for the producer to provide.

Question 67

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a high-energy storage molecule used directly or indirectly to drive other cellular processes that require energy. What process is not driven by ATP?

a. transport of molecules and ions across cell membranes against concentration gradients that maintain the internal environment of the cell
b. synthesis of chemical compounds
c. contraction of muscle fibers and other fibers producing motion of the cells
d. synthesis of other low-energy compounds

Answer 67

D. synthesis of other low-energy compounds

exp: Should be “synthesis of other HIGH-energy components.”

Question 68

What condition does not cause obesity in companion animals?

a. overfeeding
b. genetic predisposition
c. insufficient exercise
d. surgical neutering of males and females

Answer 68

C. insufficient exercise

exp: Neutering can be associated with obesity, but it does not cause it

Question 69

What would provide the best information on the mineral status of a horse?

a. feed analysis
b. muscle analysis
c. blood and urine analysis
d. hair analysis

Answer 69

A. feed analysis

Question 70

Sudden ration changes would not cause

a. cachexia
b. laminitis
c. diarrhea
d. colic

Answer 70

A. cachexia

exp: cachexia is a profound and marked state of malnutrition

Question 71

Horses with active laminitis should be fed?

a. grain only
b. alfalfa hay and grain
c. alfalfa hay only
d. average-quality hay and no grain

Answer 71

D. Average-quality hay and no grain

exp: Grain and alfalfa hay are high in energy; high-energy feeds may exacerbate laminitis

Question 72

A first line of attack to improving voluntary feed intake in a hospitalized patient is to:

a. initiate vitamin supplementation
b. improve palatability of feeds
c. feed stimulants
d. treat the primary condition

Answer 72

D. Treat the primary condition

Question 73

During pregnancy, goats require extra dietary energy during the last:

a. 4 months
b. 3 months
c. 2 months
d. 1 week

Answer 73

C. 2 months

exp: fetal growth is greatest during the last 2 months of gestation

Question 74

In goats, night blindness, poor appetite, weight loss, unthrifty appearance with a poor hair coat, and a thick nasal discharge have resulted from a lack of vitamin:

a. B
b. K
c. D
d. A

Answer 74

D. A

Question 75

Lack of what vitamin in goats can cause nutritional muscular dystrophy (white muscle disease)?

a. E
b. B
c. D
d. A

Answer 75

A. E

Question 76

Ruminants that consume excessive concentrates may be predisposed to

a. Ketosis
b. rumen acidosis
c. rumen alkalosis
d. parturient paresis

Answer 76

B. Rumen acidosis

exp: Fermentation of carbohydrates acidifies the contents of the rumen.

Question 77

Consumption of unaccustomed quantities of grain, or of lush pasture when first turned out in the spring, by goats or sheep can lead to incomplete digestion, overgrowth of clostridia in the small intestine, and production of epsilon toxin. This syndrome is called:

a. parturient paresis
b. urolithiasis
c. posthitis
d. enterotoxemia

Answer 77

D. Enterotoxemia

exp: enterotoxemia due to clostridial overgrowth is also called overeating disease. Sheep and goats are commonly vaccinated against the disease.

Question 78

What nutrient represents the greatest fraction of dairy cattle diets after weaning and is essential to optimizing milk production?

a. minerals
b. vitamins
c. carbohydrates
d. protein

Answer 78

C. Carbohydrates

Question 79

Overfeeding of the nutrient class _____ to ruminants or horses predisposes them to laminitis, or founder.

a. vitamins
b. minerals
c. energy
d. protein

Answer 79

C. Energy

exp: Overfeeding to hoofed stock increases their risk of developing laminitis

Question 80

Cattle add large quantities of saliva to their feed during chewing and also regurgitate during rumination. The most important effect of this is to:

a. add more moisture to forage materials
b. buffer the acids produced in the rumen
c. aid chewing and swallowing
d. keep the tongue moist

Answer 80

B. buffer the acids produced in the rumen

exp: Saliva in cattle is basic and helps buffer the acidic products of ruminal fermemtation

Question 81

To supply nearly adequate nutrition via the intravenous route, solutions used must be:

a. hypertonic
b. hypotonic
c. isotonic
d. catatonic

Answer 81

A. Hypertonic

Question 82

Which of the following is not recommended for a weak foal?

a. Bucket feeding
b. bottle feeding
c. nasogastric intubation
d. intravenous nutrition

Answer 82

B. bottle feeding

exp: Bottle feeding may cause aspiration pneumonia in a weak foal

Question 83

To avoid abomasal bloat in calves, milk replacer must:

a. be low in protein
b. be fed at body temperature
c. be well mixed
d. contain antibiotics

Answer 83

C. be well mixed

exp: poorly mixed milk replacer contributes to bloat in preweaned calves

Question 84

Successful strategies for preventing diarrhea in unweaned dairy calves include all of the following, except:

a. vaccination of the dam
b. dry, draft-free housing
c. colostrum feeding
d. limiting the amount of milk fed

Answer 84

D. limiting the amount of milk fed

exp: Vaccinations of the cow and calf, proper housing, and proper colostrum, management will help prevent diarrhea. Limiting the amount of milk fed will not prevent diarrhea

Question 85

When a calf suckles and ingests warm milk, the reticular groove is stimulated to close so that milk and sliva pass directly into the

a. abomasum
b. rumen
c. reticulum
d. duodenum

Answer 85

A. abomasum

Question 86

When the newobrn lamb receives no nutrition at all in cold environmental conditions, fat reserves last about

a. 4 hours only
b. 1 to 2 days only
c. 5 days only
c. 1 week only

Answer 86

B. 1 to 2 days only

Question 87

The vitamin that is synthesized in the intestinal tract of dogs and other animals under normal conditions is:

a. vitamin E
b. vitamin K
c. vitamin B1
d. vitamin B12

Answer 87

B. vitamin K

Question 88

During lactation, the feed intake of queens typically:

a. stays the same
b. increases about 1.5 times
c. increases about 2 to 3 times
d. increases about 50%

Answer 88

C. increases about 2 to 3 times

Question 89

Because of their high fiber content and bulky nature, dry dog food should not be fed to dogs with

a. diarrhea
b. ascites
c. anemia
d. pancreatitis

Answer 89

A. Diarrhea

Question 90

Goose-stepping in swine (excessive lifting of the rear legs during walking) is most likely to be caused by a deficiency of

a. copper
b. vitamin D
c. zinc
d. Pantothenic acid

Answer 90

D. Pantothenic acid

exp: a deficiency of pantothenic acid in the diet leads to deterioration of the sciatic nerve. Affected pigs exhibit an abnormal gait

Question 91

Soybean meal is often a basic component of swine diets. What does this ingredient provide?

a. fat
b. protein
c. minerals
d. vitamins

Answer 91

B. Protein

Exp: soybean meal provides a readily available source of protein (44% to 48.5%) and satisfies the amino acid requirements of pigs

Question 92

A diet high in vegetable protein will cause the animal to produce _____ urine.

a. cloudy
b. clear
c. alkaline
d. acidic

Answer 92

C. alkaline

Question 93

What ingredient can be added to the diet of hogs to provide increased energy and reduce dust in the feed?

a. fat
b. water
c. soybean meal
d. silage

Answer 93

A. fat

exp: fats or oil provide a readily available source of energy to the diet, with the added benefit of reducing the level of dustiness of the feed

Question 94

Which statement regarding disinfecting kennels is false?

a. mixing different disinfectants together can be dangerous.
b. the disinfectant must be allowed to stay in contact with all of the surfaces for 30 seconds, or it will not kill the disease organism
c. the area should be rinsed thoroughly after the appropriate contact time
d. the are should be dried before the animal is returned to the cage

Answer 94

B. the disinfectant must be allowed to stay in contact with all of the surface for 30 seconds, or it will not kill the disease organism.

exp: Disinfectants must remain on the surfaces for varying lengths of time. The manufacturers instructions must be followed.

Question 95

If used improperly, what restraint instrument is most likely to cause broken bones, strangulation, and death?

a. cat bag
b. nose lead
c. restraint gloves
d. capture pole

Answer 95

C. restraint gloves

exp: restraint gloves decrease your tactile perception to the extent that you could cause strangulation, broken bones, and, ultimately, death

Question 96

For oral administration of liquid medication to a dog or cat, you should

a. tilt the head up slightly and roll the lips over the canine teeth to open the mouth
b. leave the head in a horizontal position and administer the liquid between the lips and cheek.
c. tilt the head straight up and open the mouth, using the index finger of your other hand.
d. tilt the head straight up , administer the liquid between the lips, and stroke the throat

Answer 96

B. Leave the head in a horizontal position and administer the liquid between the lips and cheek.

exp: the head should remain horizontal and the mouth closed. Stroking the throat induces swallowing.

Question 97

When applying a chain twitch to a horse, you should

a. place it on the upper lip and tighten with intermittent pressure.
b. place it on the upper lip and tighten as much as possible.
c. place it on the ear and tighten with intermittent pressure.
d. place it on the lower lip and tighten as much as possible

Answer 97

A. place it on the upper lip and tighten with intermittent pressure

exp: The twitch is placed on the upper lip, with pressure applied intermittently to keep the horses attention on the twitch and at the same time preserve circulation to the lip

Question 98

The knot or hitch used to tie together two ropes of different sizes is a

a. bowline
b. sheet bend
c. halter tie
d. clove hitch

Answer 98

B. sheet bend

Question 99

The knot or hitch that can be used for breeding hobbles is

a. bowline on a bight
b. clove hitch
c. halter tie
d. reefer

Answer 99

A. bowline on a bight

exp: When this knot is tied in the middle of a long rope, it forms a nonslip noose that can go around the animals neck. the long ends can be wrapped around the rear legs and secured so the mare cannot kick.

Question 100

The knot or hitch used to secure a lead rope to a stationary object is a

a. square
b. clove hitch
c. bowline
d. halter tie

Answer 100

D. Halter tie

exp: This quick release knot should be the only knot used to tie a lead rope to a stationary object

Question 101

The knot or hitch used to secure a rope to a vertical bar without slippage is the

a. clove hitch
b. halter tie
c. half hitch
d. bowline

Answer 101

A. Clove hitch

exp: Clove hitch will not slip, even when one end is pulled.

Question 102

A nonslip knot or hitch that is safe to place around an animals neck is the

a. bowline
b. halter tie
c. clove hitch
d. sheet bend

Answer 102

A. bowline

Question 103

After securing a mouse by its tail, the head and body can be restrained by

a. twirling the mouse until it is dizzy and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck
b. placing the mouse on a smooth surface, pulling caudally on its tail, and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck
c. grasping the loose skin along its back
d. placing the mouse on a grate, pullning back on its tail, and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck

Answer 103

D. placing the mouse on a grate, pulling back on its tail, and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck

exp: a mouse will instinctively grasp a grate with its forefeet. You can then quickly grasp it by the scruff of the neck.

Question 104

What procedure is not a distraction technique?

a. taping the legs together
b. firm petting
c. twitching
d. blowing on the face

Answer 104

A. taping the legs together

exp: taping the legs is considered a RESTRAINT technique

Question 105

What is the best time of day to restrain sheep in the summer?

a. midafternoon
b. afternoon
c. early morning
d. midmorning

Answer 105

C. Early morning

exp: Early morning is the coolest time and allows the owner to observe the flock for signs of distress throughout the rest of the day.

Question 106

To judge whether a dog is being aggressive, observe its body language. An aggressive dog

a. looks from side to side
b. holds it head low between the shoulders
c. wags its tail
d. has eyes that dart from one thing to another

Answer 106

B. Holds its head low between the shoulders

Head held low between the shoulders is a classic stance of an aggressive dog.

Question 107

To just whether a dog is nervous, observe its body language. A nervous dog usually
a. holds its head low between the shoulders
b. stares straight at you
c remains in a sit position
d. has eyes that dart from one thing to another

Answer 107

D. Has eyes that dart from one thing to another

Question 108

A cat that was quiet and manageable before going into a cage has turned into a snarling mass of fangs and claws. What is the most likely cause of this behavior change?

a. someone hit it or beat it.
b. it has been frightened.
c. it is defending its territory
d. it is lonely

Answer 108

C. It is defending its territory

exp: cats are territorial and establish territory quickly

Question 109

When restraining a rooster, be most careful of the

a. beak
b. spurs
c. wings
d. feet

Answer 109

B. Spurs

exp: the spurs on a roosters feet are sharp and can cause injury

Question 110

When restraining a large parrot, be most careful of its:

a. beak
b. wings
c. talons
d. spurs

Answer 110

A. beak

exp: Parrots may bite

Question 111

Of the caged birds listed, which one has the least tolerance for handling?

a. cockatiels
b. canaries
c. parrots
d. conures

Answer 111

B. Canaries

The canary is typically the most affected by handling, although the other birds can also have an adverse reaction to rough treatment.

Question 112

The most common cause of fear-based aggression in adult dogs is:

a. abuse
b. neglect
c. hunger
d. poor socialization

Answer 112

D. Poor socialization

exp: Poor socialization is a more common cause of fear aggression than outright abuse or neglect.

Question 113

When handling cattle with horns. stand

a. directly in front of the animal
b. to the left of the animal
c. to the left and in front of the animal
d. to one side, directly behind the horns

Answer 113

C. To the left and in front of the animal

exp: This is the safest area, as long as you stand well beyond the reach of the animals head.

Question 114

The “shepherd’s crook” is used around the

a. front leg
b. chest
c. back leg
d. neck

Answer 114

C. Back leg

exp: Using a crook anywhere else can harm the animal

Question 115

What species can have a seizure if handled too harshly?

a. gerbils
b. guinea pigs
c. mice
d. rats

Answer 115

A. gerbils

Question 116

The safest place to stand next to a horse is:

a. directly in front
b. on the left side
c. on the right side
d. on the left and to the front

Answer 116

B. On the left side

exp: one should stand on the left side near the shoulder

Question 117

Unlike other large animals, horses usually:

a. respond to voice commands
b. back away when approached
c. chase you if you make them angry
d. scatter if you try to round up an entire herd

Answer 117

A,. respond to voice commands

exp: most horses are trained to respond to “whoa” or “hold still” and a few other commands

Question 118

Pigs can be challenging animals to handle. When working with swine, understand that:

a. there is no cause of concern about personal safety.
b. pigs are not normally vicious, but caution is advised when working with them.
c. lactating sows are calm and do not mind if their piglets are handled.
d. all pigs are extremely dangerous and will attack humans without provocation

Answer 118

B. pigs are not normally vicious, but caution is advised when working with them.

Question 119

What restraint device would you choose to safely and easily collect blood samples from crated sows?

a. hog snare
b. sling
c. V trough
d. rope snare

Answer 119

D. rope snare

exp: the rope snare can be placed around the sows snot, and the end can be secured to the bars of the crate. A large sow can swing a regular hog snare against the bars of the crate and severely injure the handlers arms and hands.

Question 120

A group of gilts is very nervous, because they have been caught with a snare several times in the past. What would you use to facilitate snaring them?

a. a cane or herding stick
b. a lariat
c. a pair of hog tongs
d. a bucket placed over the pigs head

Answer 120

C. A pair of hog tongs

Hog tongs facilitate snaring. one handler applies the tongs to the back of the neck, which causes the animal to squeal. As soon as a second person places the snare. the tongs are released. This procedure is usually less stressful than chasing the gilt around the pen.

Question 121

Pigs exhibit territorial behavior. When several unfamiliar animals are mixed in a group pen, fighting may occur. If the animals are of similar size, the aggressive behavior:

a. will begin shortly after the animals are introduced an will be short term.
b. will not begin until several days after the pigs are introduced to the pen
c. will continue as long as the pigs are in the same pen
d. will not occur

Answer 121

A. will begin shortly after the animals are introduced and will be short term.

exp: Pigs are territorial and establish a dominance order when new animals are introduced. It is important to pen together pigs of similar size to minimize fighting. The aggression is normally short-lived, because the pigs determine the dominance order.

Question 122

Grazing animals have the best depth perception when?

a. an object is at their side
b. an object is toward their rear
c. their heads are up
d. their heads are down

Answer 122

D. their heads are down

exp: grazing animals have poor depth perception when they are moving with their heads up. It does not matter where the object is placed, their heads have to be down in order to have the best depth perception.

Question 123

All of the following disinfectants can be used on surgical instruments except:

a. quaternary ammonium compounds
b. phenolics
c. alcohols
d. halogens

Answer 123

D. Halogens

exp: Halogens easily penetrate the protective coating on stainless steel and cause corrosion of the metal

Question 124

Which of the following is useful for dissolving urine scale from rabbit pans?

a. alkalies
b. anionics
c. acids
d. chelators

Answer 124

C. acids

exp: Urine scale is high in calcium, which can be dissolved using acids.

Question 125

Rubber and plastic articles should be disinfected with
a. alcohols
b. halogens
c detergents. 
d. aldehydes

Answer 125

D. aldehydes

exp: Aldehydes will disinfect rubber and plastic without causing damage

Question 126

What disinfectant should not be used around cats or other felines?

a. quaternary ammonium compounds
b. phenolics
c. halogens
d. alcohols

Answer 126

B. phenolics

exp: Cats, birds, and some reptiles are more sensitive to phenol toxicity than other species

Question 127

Solutions of bleach mixed with water are useful for disinfection for up to

a. 24 hours
b. 2 to 3 days
c. a week
d. 2 to 3 weeks

Answer 127

A. 24 hours

exp: Bleach solutions become ineffective 24 hours after mixing

Question 128

A product that destroys 100% of bacteria is classified as a

a. sterilant
b. disinfectant
c. sanitizer
d. germicide

Answer 128

B. Disinfectant

Disinfectants are products that destroy pathogens, such as bacteria.

Question 129

Chelating agents in cleaners remove

a. oil and grease
b. hard water minerals
c. urine scale
d. blood and serum

Answer 129

B. hard water minerals

exp: Chelating agents bind minerals

Question 130

When disinfecting using two products, the rule is to

a. use one disinfectant at a time.
b. mix the disinfectants together.
c. dilute each disinfectant by half.
d. select one bactericidal and one bacteriostatic disinfectant.

Answer 130

A. use one disinfectant at a time.

Using disinfectants in sequence will maximize efficacy and minimize the risk of producing toxic mixes of compounds.

Question 131

In hand-cleaning equipment after surgery, the degree of cleanliness is most influenced by the

a. contact time with the cleaner
b. degree of mechanical friction
c. thoroughness of subsequent rinsing
d. temperature of the wash water

Answer 131

B. degree of mechanical friction

exp: Instruments must be wiped or scrubbed for optimal cleaning.

Question 132

Nursing mares and foals should not be put into pastures that were grazed the previous year by

a. stallions
b. mares
c. foals
d. yearlings

Answer 132

`C. foals

Avoiding putting foals in the same pasture year after year will help reduce parasite levels in the foals

Question 133

Pastures should be free of

a. rocks
b. ponds
c. trees
d. fences

Answer 133

B. Ponds

Ponds may serve as reservoirs of pathogens

Question 134

If stabling horseson clay floors, you should ____ once a year.

a. apply a sealanat to the clay floor
b. soak the floor with disinfectant.
c. replace the clay surface
d. culture the clay for microbes

Answer 134

C. replace the clay surface.

Clay surfaces may become uneven with wear and soaked with urine and should be replaced periodically

Question 135

For effective sanitation, lights in the surgical suite should be

a. recessed into the ceiling
b. close to the air inlet
c. fitted with fluorescent bulbs
d. activated by entry of personnel

Answer 135

A. recessed into the ceiling

exp: These are not the surgery lights but the lights used to illuminate the room