volumn 1 Flashcards

1
Q

As a result of the reorganization of the war department in 1943, which office was established?

A

air provost marshal

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2
Q

after the air police school transferred to parks, AFB California, it was redesignated as which defense school?

A

Air base Defense

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3
Q

on September 1950, which organization was established at tyndall AFB, Florida?

A

air police school

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4
Q

what happened to the air bases located in the forward areas during the Korean war?

A

they were suddenly overrun by the enemy

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5
Q

when was the ban lifted on women entering the security field?

A

january 1985

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6
Q

in oct 1997, the security specialist, law enforcement specialists, and combat arms training and maintenance career fields merged into one career field that?

A

was redesignated security forces

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7
Q

which operation was launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001?

A

Enduring Freedom

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8
Q

You may display the security forces emblem and shield together when?

A

doing so enhances the career field image

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9
Q

which statement describes our security forces symbol?

A

Falcon over a crossed runway

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10
Q

in what year was the first trial issue of the shield approved?

A

1957

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11
Q

other security forces members wear distinguishing uniform items because?

A

other personnel need to readily identify SF members during crisis situations.

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12
Q

as a part of a more distinctive uniform, SF personnel wear a beret with a denfensor fortis flash, which?

A

identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the air force worldwide

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13
Q

the beret is properly worn when the headband is straight across the forehead and?

A

1 inch above the eyebrow

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14
Q

what air force specialty code is given to security forces member who complete working dog handler course?

A

3PO31A

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15
Q

What course is mandatory for ward of the air force specialty code 3PO51?

A

SF journeyman career development course

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16
Q

You must complete airmen leadership school prior to?

A

assuming the rank of Staff Sergeant

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17
Q

The code of conduct is a guide for actions during?

A

war and as a prisoner of war

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18
Q

which article of the code of conduct states “I will never surrender of my own free will”?

A

article 2

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19
Q

which code of conduct article are you following if you continuously attempt to escape when captured?

A

article 3

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20
Q

your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with?

A

AFI 31-207 arming and use of force by air personnel

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21
Q

which section acts as the liaison between the units, base supply, hazardous materials, general services administration, and the defense reutilization marketing office?

A

S4S supply

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22
Q

when providing missile field security, how often do you test the alarm systems to ensure operational capabilities of the security system?

A

As necessary

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23
Q

When the launch facility (LF) is penetrated or unlocked, or a pay loader with a weapon is present, the LF is designated as?

A

a limited area

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24
Q

the authority, capacity, power, and the right of the military to police their own is known as?

A

military jurisdiction

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25
Q

federal statues are laws passed by congress, and these laws are contained in the?

A

US code

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26
Q

Through discussion which international law was reached at the Hague and Geneva convention?

A

law of armed conflict

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27
Q

military jurisdiction stems from?

A

legal sources

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28
Q

which article of the UCMJ identifies the people who are subject to military jurisdiction or military law?

A

2

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29
Q

article 5 of the UCMJ states that the UCMJ?

A

applies everywhere

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30
Q

if a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, that person?

A

can be tried in the US or vice versa

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31
Q

the punitive articles of the UCMJ are?

A

77-134

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32
Q

the types of jurisdictions found on US gov’t installations are?

A

exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and partial

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33
Q

the federal government has sole authority to enforce the law on installations?

A

when the gov’t has exclusive jurisdiction

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34
Q

under concurrent jurisdiction?

A

both state and federal government have authority

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35
Q

as a form of administration, where an occupying power exercises all executive, legislative, and judicial authority over an occupied territory, it is know as?

A

military government

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36
Q

which branch of the military has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?

A

the US Army

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37
Q

during qualified martial law, security forces members have the authority to?

A

detain civilians not apprehend

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38
Q

which article of the UCMJ gives SF members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties?

A

article 92

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39
Q

in order to preserve law and order, title 18, section 1382 of the US code authorizes Security forces to?

A

detain civilians for on base offenses

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40
Q

which right could you invoke when apprehending a person who, in your presence, commits a crime amounting to the breach of peace?

A

citizens right to arrest

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41
Q

what is a posse comitatis?

A

a summons for all able bodied males in the country to aid the sheriff in keeping the peace or to pursue criminals

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42
Q

the military working dogs greatest advantage to security forces is their?

A

superior ability to detect individuals, particularly during periods of reduced visibility

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43
Q

military working dogs should be kept on a leash except when they must?

A

bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building

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44
Q

before releasing a military working dog to search a building, the handler must?

A

give verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog

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45
Q

what commands must the military working dog obey prior to being assigned to operational duties?

A

out and heel

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46
Q

military working dog teams can be effectively employed in almost every aspect of a units?

A

law enforcement, security, and contingency operations

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47
Q

military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective?

A

psychological deterrent

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48
Q

the military working dogs greatest advantage during security operations is?

A

detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility

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49
Q

under ideal conditions, at what distance can the military working dog detect intruders?

A

250 yards or more

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50
Q

what is the military working dog team’s role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?

A

protect members of the apprehension team

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51
Q

after the air police school transferred to parks, AFB California, it was redesignated as which defense school?

A

Air base Defense

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52
Q

on September 1950, which organization was established at tyndall AFB, Florida?

A

air police school

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53
Q

what happened to the air bases located in the forward areas during the Korean war?

A

they were suddenly overrun by the enemy

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54
Q

when was the ban lifted on women entering the security field?

A

january 1985

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55
Q

in oct 1997, the security specialist, law enforcement specialists, and combat arms training and maintenance career fields merged into one career field that?

A

was redesignated security forces

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56
Q

which operation was launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001?

A

Enduring Freedom

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57
Q

You may display the security forces emblem and shield together when?

A

doing so enhances the career field image

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58
Q

which statement describes our security forces symbol?

A

Falcon over a crossed runway

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59
Q

in what year was the first trial issue of the shield approved?

A

1957

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60
Q

other security forces members wear distinguishing uniform items because?

A

other personnel need to readily identify SF members during crisis situations.

61
Q

as a part of a more distinctive uniform, SF personnel wear a beret with a denfensor fortis flash, which?

A

identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the air force worldwide

62
Q

the beret is properly worn when the headband is straight across the forehead and?

A

1 inch above the eyebrow

63
Q

what air force specialty code is given to security forces member who complete working dog handler course?

A

3PO31A

64
Q

What course is mandatory for ward of the air force specialty code 3PO51?

A

SF journeyman career development course

65
Q

You must complete airmen leadership school prior to?

A

assuming the rank of Staff Sergeant

66
Q

The code of conduct is a guide for actions during?

A

war and as a prisoner of war

67
Q

which article of the code of conduct states “I will never surrender of my own free will”?

A

article 2

68
Q

which code of conduct article are you following if you continuously attempt to escape when captured?

A

article 3

69
Q

your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with?

A

AFI 31-207 arming and use of force by air personnel

70
Q

which section acts as the liaison between the units, base supply, hazardous materials, general services administration, and the defense reutilization marketing office?

A

S4S supply

71
Q

when providing missile field security, how often do you test the alarm systems to ensure operational capabilities of the security system?

A

As necessary

72
Q

When the launch facility (LF) is penetrated or unlocked, or a pay loader with a weapon is present, the LF is designated as?

A

a limited area

73
Q

the authority, capacity, power, and the right of the military to police their own is known as?

A

military jurisdiction

74
Q

federal statues are laws passed by congress, and these laws are contained in the?

A

US code

75
Q

Through discussion which international law was reached at the Hague and Geneva convention?

A

law of armed conflict

76
Q

military jurisdiction stems from?

A

legal sources

77
Q

which article of the UCMJ identifies the people who are subject to military jurisdiction or military law?

A

2

78
Q

article 5 of the UCMJ states that the UCMJ?

A

applies everywhere

79
Q

if a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, that person?

A

can be tried in the US or vice versa

80
Q

the punitive articles of the UCMJ are?

A

77-134

81
Q

the types of jurisdictions found on US gov’t installations are?

A

exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and partial

82
Q

the federal government has sole authority to enforce the law on installations?

A

when the gov’t has exclusive jurisdiction

83
Q

under concurrent jurisdiction?

A

both state and federal government have authority

84
Q

as a form of administration, where an occupying power exercises all executive, legislative, and judicial authority over an occupied territory, it is know as?

A

military government

85
Q

which branch of the military has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?

A

the US Army

86
Q

during qualified martial law, security forces members have the authority to?

A

detain civilians not apprehend

87
Q

which article of the UCMJ gives SF members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties?

A

article 92

88
Q

in order to preserve law and order, title 18, section 1382 of the US code authorizes Security forces to?

A

detain civilians for on base offenses

89
Q

which right could you invoke when apprehending a person who, in your presence, commits a crime amounting to the breach of peace?

A

citizens right to arrest

90
Q

what is a posse comitatis?

A

a summons for all able bodied males in the country to aid the sheriff in keeping the peace or to pursue criminals

91
Q

the military working dogs greatest advantage to security forces is their?

A

superior ability to detect individuals, particularly during periods of reduced visibility

92
Q

military working dogs should be kept on a leash except when they must?

A

bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building

93
Q

before releasing a military working dog to search a building, the handler must?

A

give verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog

94
Q

what commands must the military working dog obey prior to being assigned to operational duties?

A

out and heel

95
Q

military working dog teams can be effectively employed in almost every aspect of a units?

A

law enforcement, security, and contingency operations

96
Q

military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective?

A

psychological deterrent

97
Q

the military working dogs greatest advantage during security operations is?

A

detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility

98
Q

under ideal conditions, at what distance can the military working dog detect intruders?

A

250 yards or more

99
Q

what is the military working dog team’s role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?

A

protect members of the apprehension team

100
Q

during peacetime operations within a US territory, do not confuse rules of engagement with?

A

rules for use of force

101
Q

what are the elements of self defense according to the rules of engagement?

A

necessity and proportionality

102
Q

proportionality of force to counter a hostile act must be?

A

of reasonable intensity, duration, and magnitude

103
Q

a written order issued by a competent military command authority to an authorized person to conduct a search is called a?

A

search authorization

104
Q

search authorizations are based upon?

A

probable cause

105
Q

who cannot be given the power to authorize search and seizure?

A

chief security forces or staff judge advocate

106
Q

who can issue off base search procedures in foreign countries?

A

air force installation commanders

107
Q

what form is used to document a search authorization?

A

AF form 1176

108
Q

the taking of evidence at court-martial is called?

A

seizure

109
Q

a search affidavit of probable cause supports your request for?

A

authorization to search and seizure

110
Q

government property requires search authorization when the?

A

person issued the property has the reasonable expectation of privacy

111
Q

if you ask a person to grant consent for a search and they state, “okay if I have to,” what are your reactions?

A

restate the request and ask for a yes or no answer

112
Q

probably cause is not required when searching as a result of?

A

lawful apprehension

113
Q

which is not the purpose of an interview?

A

interrogate witness to gain information

114
Q

what are the common reasons for an interviewee’s reluctance to talk?

A

fear of involvement, inconvenience, resentment

115
Q

if a same sex SF member cannot be present during an interview?

A

have a second investigator present

116
Q

what are the interviewee classification

A

victim, witness, complainant, suspects

117
Q

which interviewee is interviewed to develop facts in an investigation?

A

victims

118
Q

the four step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing, and

A

conducting

119
Q

determining a time and a place to interview is the first step in?

A

planning

120
Q

what approach is primarily used to interrogate?

A

Direct

121
Q

Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed, and/

A

time of the interview

122
Q

Investigators will conduct pretrial preparation with?

A

the staff judge advocate

123
Q

which of the following is a simple courtroom rule security forces members follow?

A

Do not talk to court members

124
Q

When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?

A

only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense

125
Q

the budget program operates on a fiscal year basis beginning the first day of?

A

October and ending on September 30th

126
Q

what two air force documents help you manage man power resources?

A

UMD and UPMR

127
Q

the Unit manpower document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects the?

A

positions authorized to accomplish the mission

128
Q

supply discipline is a mandatory in order to?

A

conserve, protect, and maintain available government supplies, equipment, and real property

129
Q

which of the following is not a general classification of supply items?

A

unit personnel management roster (UPMR)

130
Q

Collective actions executed quickly without applying a deliberate decision-making process describes?

A

battle drills

131
Q

under the Stan/Eval program, unit functional areas are inspected once?

A

every 12 months

132
Q

Duty positions in direct support of nuclear resources are designated as?

A

critical

133
Q

within how many duty days after an individual completes qualification training will stan/evals be conducted?

A

30

134
Q

under the national law enforcement telecommunications system (NLETS) program, where is the communications terminal located?

A

at authorized security forces control centers

135
Q

who enters information about lost or stolen firearms into the national crime information center (NCIC)?

A

AFOSI personnel

136
Q

within how many months after qualification training must security forces and battlefield airmen complete unit live-fire sustainment training on their primary weapon?

A

five to seven months

137
Q

Which AF form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?

A

1297 temporary issue receipt

138
Q

The use of pro-words in radio communication help?

A

shorten transmissions and facilitate message reception

139
Q

persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they?

A

have an unfavorable information on file

140
Q

A level 2 facility can house inmates serving a confinement sentence up to how many years?

A

5 years

141
Q

Inmates are ordered into confinement utilizing which DD form?

A

DD form 2707 confinement order

142
Q

all inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either?

A

pretrial detainee, post trial inmates, or casual

143
Q

the two types of searches used in confinement facilities are?

A

simple and complete

144
Q

the automatic physical reaction to new, unpleasant, and threatening situations is know as?

A

stress

145
Q

the main source of stress can be found in your?

A

personal life and job

146
Q

what is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?

A

recognizing stressors

147
Q

a conscious intent to die by means believed to cause death is the definition of a/an?

A

attempted suicide

148
Q

microorganisms that are present in the blood and cause disease are called?

A

blood borne pathogens

149
Q

how far from bunkers, fighting positions, or contamination control areas should collection point be located?

A

10 feet and downwind