VOL.1 URE Flashcards Preview

CDC 3D153 > VOL.1 URE > Flashcards

Flashcards in VOL.1 URE Deck (76)
Loading flashcards...
1
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the sections within the career field training plan
(CFETP) part I?

A

Identifies the specialty training standard (STS).

2
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?

A

Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153

3
Q

Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems
and responds to service outages and interruptions to network operations?

A

Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).

4
Q

Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video
network infrastructure systems, Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic
equipment?

A

Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).

5
Q

What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training
guides (JSTG)?

A

Job safety training outline (JSTO).

6
Q

Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or
property at risk?

A

457

7
Q

Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift
work. noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

A

Stress.

8
Q

Which Air Force program provides a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground,
weapons, or space safety?

A

Hazard reporting program.

9
Q

To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more
than how many pounds?

A

25

10
Q

The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death
is

A

50 mA.

11
Q

Within how many hours must a medical exam be conducted if non-ionizing radiation
overexposure occurs?

A

72

12
Q

Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installation
practices?

A

TO 31 - 10 series

13
Q

Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

A

Upper

14
Q

Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

A

Minimize transmission loss

15
Q

How are connectorized cables labeled?

A

The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is
placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

16
Q

Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?

A

Adhesive.

17
Q

Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?

A

Flight commander/chief.

18
Q

What are the three main functions of grounding?

A

Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction

19
Q

The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the

A

lightning protection.

20
Q

What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

A

Bonding.

21
Q

The RED designation is used for equipment processing

A

clear-text classified information.

22
Q

Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from O - 999 volts?

A

Class I.

23
Q

Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?

A

Walking across carpet.

24
Q

Which distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between
the weapon products and the earth’s atmosphere?

A

Source.

25
Q

What source region electromagnetic pulse region has a primarily vertical electromagnetic
pulse electric field and what structures are affected?

A

Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns.

26
Q

Which of the follow ing statements is true concerning shielding?

A

Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.

27
Q

Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving
antenna for short distance normally indicates

A

enemy jamming.

28
Q

What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?

A

Rapid tuning transmitter.

29
Q

What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?

A

Power line.

30
Q

Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders?

A

Joint Spectrum Center.

31
Q

Who is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation?

A

Wing information assurance office (WIAO).

32
Q

What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

A

Distance and angles.

33
Q

What secondary cell is prone to the memory effect?

A

Nickel cadmium.

34
Q

What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?

A

Sag.

35
Q

What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

A

Blackout.

36
Q

What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference
(EM!) and radio frequency interference (RF!)?

A

Noise.

37
Q

What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as
“offline” by technicians?

A

Passive standby.

38
Q

What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between
the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?

A

Line interactive.

39
Q

How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial
applications?

A

Three.

40
Q

What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF)
transmission today?

A

Amplitude, frequency, and phase

41
Q

When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output
signal contains

A

carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.

42
Q

What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal?

A

Frequency of the modulating signal.

43
Q

The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude
modulated signal is expressed as the

A

percent of modulation.

44
Q

Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives

A

no reduction in carrier power

45
Q

The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in

A

positive half cycle of the modulating signal.

46
Q

A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15
kHz. What is the modulation index?

A

3

47
Q

What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency
modulated sidebands from overlapping?

A

Guard band.

48
Q

What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts?

A

Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.

49
Q

What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process?

A

The analog signal is band limited.

50
Q

Quantization in the pulse code modulation process is

A

placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values.

51
Q

In asynchronous transmissions, what bit is used by the receiving device to verify that the
transmission was received correctly?

A

Parity.

52
Q

If an error should occur, what transmission is lost in an synchronous transmission?

A

Block of data

53
Q
The significance the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern when using vertical
redundancy check (VRC) is that it determines
A

parity.

54
Q

What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting
errors?

A

VRC and LRC.

55
Q

When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error
correction take place?

A

Receiving end.

56
Q

In telecommunications cable, the “ tip” or “primary” wire color group order is

A

white, red, black, yellow, and violet.

57
Q

Two types of network cables are

A

straight through and crossover.

58
Q

An optical transmitter is comprised of

A

a driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail.

59
Q

What is the bandwidth of multimode step-index optical fiber cable?

A

10 MHz- 100 MHz/km

60
Q

Which type of cable is the hardest to splice?

A

Single mode fiber

61
Q

A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a

A

patch cord

62
Q

What allows transportation of all active virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a
single physical link?

A

Trunks.

63
Q

Which device has multi port connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

A

Router.

64
Q

Which routing protocol do lntemet backbones use?

A

Border gateway protocol (BGP).

65
Q

Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

A

public network.

66
Q

Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator
performs?

A

Encapsulates data.

67
Q

What software do video compression circuits use to determine the amount of change that
occurs between frames?

A

Compression and decompression (codec) algorithm

68
Q

Simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to
manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for

A

future growth

69
Q

Which of the following is not a basic SNMP command?

A

Get

70
Q

Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

A

Biometrics.

71
Q

Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

A

Spam.

72
Q

Which vulnerabil ity preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers
create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

A

Patches

73
Q

What physical security implementation will ensure continuous operation of critical network
equipment?

A

Uninterruptible power supply.

74
Q

In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling the

A

auxiliary port.

75
Q

When using a multimeter, which option should be used if the display is unreadable due to
fluctuations?

A

Display hold.

76
Q

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should
you take?

A

Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.