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RUSVM LAM II Final > Van Amstel Q/A > Flashcards

Van Amstel Q/A Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum total bacterial count allowed for Grade A milk?

A

100,000/mL

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2
Q

What antibiotic is illegal for use in lactating dairy cows?

A

Enrofloxacin, Fluoroquinolone

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3
Q

What is the maximum SSC for Grade B daily milk?

A

750,000/mL

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4
Q

How long is the normal dry period?

A

60 days

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5
Q

How long is normal lactation?

A

305 days

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6
Q

Name a specific effect of BST

A

increases milk production by increasing DMI, and transferring nutrients to the udder

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7
Q

Which enzyme cause curd formation in the abomasum?

A

Thymosin

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8
Q

Acetate is a precursor of what constituent in milk?

A

Butter Fat

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9
Q

Which dairy breed has the highest butter fat (water buffalo excluded)?

A

Jersey

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10
Q

Give one reason why milk production/cow in large diaries has gone up.

A

balancing of rations

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11
Q

When are cows typically rebred after calving?

A

60 days

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12
Q

Name one of the reasons why dairy cows are culled.

A

Infertility, lameness

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13
Q

Name one effect of high ambient temperature.

A

Infertility

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14
Q

Name 2 main ingredients of TMR.

A

Silage and Grain

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15
Q

What is the desired length and width of a free stall to ensure good cow comfort.

A

9.6 ft long X 4.1 ft wide

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16
Q

How can the presence of thin soles be confirmed?

A

hoof testers

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17
Q

What foot problem is associated with manure accumulation?

A

Digital dermatitis

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18
Q

How can foot problems be controlled in the dairy system?

A

rubber mats

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19
Q

What is component or slug feeding?

A

Feeding lots of grain

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20
Q

How can thin soles be prevented?

A

rubber mats

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21
Q

Apart from thin soles, what is another problem associated with concrete flooring?

A

Upper limb lameness

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22
Q

Apart from heat, what is another major cause of reproduction failure in cattle?

A

lameness

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23
Q

What is the mechanism by which lameness cause reproductive failure?

A

Pain

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24
Q

What can result from having to high of a % of long fiber in the diet?

A

feed selection, predisposes to rumen acidosis

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25
Q

What is one of the major problems associated with slug feeding?

A

Rumen acidosis

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26
Q

What problem is associated with leaking teat liners?

A

teat end ulcerations due to the air being sucked into the teat

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27
Q

What problem is associated with over milking or to high vacuum pressure?

A

teat canal prolapse

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28
Q

Formaldehyde is environmental friendly because it dissipates in what?

A

CO2 and water

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29
Q

Cooling through sprinklers in free stall dairies can indirectly result in what?

A

lameness because of thinning of the soles

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30
Q

Foot bath solutions are changed on average after every how many cow passes?

A

200 - 250 cows

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31
Q

Rocky walkways predispose to interdigital skin trauma which in turn predispose to what?

A

Foot Rot

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32
Q

Peri-tarsal bursitis is associated with what?

A

too short free stalls. Their knees are laying right on top of the concrete

33
Q

A cow typically eats how much of its body weight on a dry matter basis?

A

2-3 %

34
Q

Fun Fact: Activation of tactile receptors in the cranial rumen wall will send a signal to the gastric center of the brain to tell the cow to start chewing it’s cud — whole basis of ruminating and saliva production

A

The more you know

35
Q

What components in a free stall aids a cow rising but also prevents her from lunging too far forward?

A

neck rails and brisket board

36
Q

How much colostrum and what IgG concentration should a calf receive first 2 hours after birth?

A

4 quarts IgG at 50 g/L

37
Q

What method of feeding will result in highest concentrations? tubing, nursing from mother, drinking from bucket

A

Tubing

38
Q

Below and above what temperature should heat/cold be provided?

A

Below 55 and above 68

39
Q

Give 1 disadvantage of leaving a male calf intact.

A

less marbling and less tender meat

40
Q

What are the best castration methods when doing the procedure during the first week of life?

A

Open castration and banding

41
Q

What are the best castration methods when doing the procedure at weaning?

A

Surgical or emasculotome

42
Q

What is the problem when castration is done during processing at the feed yard?

A

Predisposition to respiratory disease

43
Q

What vaccination protocol should be used when a calf is commingled and its prior vaccination history is unknown?

A

An intranasal vaccine against BRD (which causes formation of interferon (IFN) within 24 hours and later produces a local immunity with IgA

44
Q

Is a calf immunocompetent at 1 week?

A

Yes

45
Q

What group of organisms (not respiratory) should calves always be vaccinated against?

A

Colostridia chauvoei

46
Q

If you use a M. hemolytica vaccine, what fraction of the organism should be included?

A

leukotoxin

47
Q

Why should histophilus vaccine be used with care?

A

Anaphylaxis

48
Q

Which viral vaccine combination should be given to calves entering the feedlot?

A

MLV vaccine protecting against IBR, BVD, BRSV, and PI3

49
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. Milk is evaluated for odor and color at each pick up
  2. A high milk bacterial count may be associated with unsanitary milking procedure
  3. There is no restriction on somatic cell count for type B dairies
  4. Non-medical grade DMSO is not allowed to be stored on both Types A and B dairies
A

False: 3. There is no restriction on somatic cell count for type B dairies

50
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. Acetate is one of the main precursors of butter fat
  2. Buffalo milk has a high butter fat content making it suitable for type B dairies
  3. Heat stress is linked with lowered fertility
  4. Open mouth breathing results in lowered rumen buffering
  5. Providing cooling through water in the form of a mist is ideal for heat stress control.
A

False: Providing cooling through water in the form of a mist is ideal for heat stress control. This is actually the WORST thing you can do

51
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. Pasture milking may predispose to peaks and troughs in rumen fermentation and pH
  2. Thin soles may be an important cause of lameness in both pasture and total confinement dairy operations
  3. Cud chewing is facilitated by having large sand bedded free stalls
  4. The average dairy cow needs 4 hours rest (lying down) per day.
  5. Herding cows may be associated with an increase in upper limb lameness
A

False: 4. The average dairy cow needs 4 hours rest (lying down) per day. They need 11 hrs

52
Q

Which of the following statements is False.

  1. Adding rubber to walk ways in total confinement dairies is associated with a decrease in the incidence of thin soles
  2. Grooved concrete on walk ways increases traction but contributes to thin soles
  3. Manure and slurry is an important source for infectious claw disease
  4. Lameness is an important cause of repeat breeding
A

All are true

53
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. A new born calf needs 4 quarts of colostrum within the first 2 hours
  2. Good quality colostrum contains 50gram of IgG/ liter
  3. Natural nursing provides higher blood levels of IgG compared to tubing colostrum.
  4. Induction of parturition has no effect on colostrum IgG concentration
A

False: 3. Natural nursing provides higher blood levels of IgG compared to tubing colostrum.

54
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. As age of castration increases, weight loss increases
  2. Castration at less than 500 lb had less marbling than castrated at more than 700 lb
  3. Calves castrated at feedlot have higher morbidity and mortality
  4. Early castration with implant better production than late castration in backgrounding program
  5. Intact calves fetch less money at conventional markets
A

False: Castration at less than 500 lb had less marbling than castrated at more than 700 lb.

55
Q

You are asked to calculate the DMI of a 1500 lb cow eating 60lbs of silage/day. The dry matter of the silage is 20%. Which of the following calculations is correct:

  1. 12lb
  2. 20lbs
  3. 6lbs
  4. 10lbs
A

12 lbs

56
Q

You are called out to a dairy farm with a high incidence of lameness because of thin soles and /or sole lesions. Which of the following factors does not play a role in the pathogenesis

  1. Distance travel to milking parlor on concrete walk way
  2. Being herded to and from milking parlor
  3. Lying down time of 11 hours
  4. Feeding grain during/at milking
  5. Using a separator box to determine correct fiber length
A
  1. Using a separator box to determine correct fiber length
57
Q

Which of the following is not directly associated with heat stress

  1. Infertility
  2. Rumen acidosis
  3. Respiratory alkalosis
  4. Rectal temperature
  5. Mastitis
A

Mastitis

58
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. Storing milk at 50 degrees C is acceptable for Grade B dairies
  2. A dry period of less than 20 days can lead to reduced IgG colostrum content
  3. Rebreeding usually occur 2-3 months after calving
  4. Over milking may predispose to eversion of the teat canal
A
  1. Storing milk at 50 degrees C is acceptable for Grade B dairies
59
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. Senepol cattle is a breed developed by crossing N’Dama and Red poll cattle
  2. Screw claw is a common problem in Angus cattle
  3. Hereford cattle are prone to develop cancer eye
  4. The main ingredient in cattle feed is grain
  5. Respiratory disease is one of the main health issues in feedlots
A

False: The main ingredient in cattle feed is grain

60
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. Campylobacter is a common contaminant in raw milk
  2. Feeding waste milk to calves predispose to antibiotic resistance
  3. The main precursor of butter fat is propionate.
  4. It is legal to allow sale of Sheep and goat raw milk in Oregon
A
  1. The main precursor of butter fat is propionate . Acetate is the precursor
61
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. One of the advantages of a composite breed is hybrid vigor
  2. European cattle are classified as Bos indicus.
  3. Angus is one of the most common beef breeds in the US but commonly have feet and leg problems
  4. Squamous cell carcinoma is a common problem in Herefords due to lack of pigmentation around the eye
A
  1. European cattle are classified as Bos indicus. Bos TAURUS
62
Q

Which of the following statements is False:

  1. Fruit and vegetable slurry is a cheap source of soluble carbohydrates but can predispose to laminitis
  2. The largest component of cattle feed is and should be forages
  3. The main ingredient of forage is cellulose
  4. Cellulose fermentation is not affected by the amount of lignin present in forages.
A
  1. Cellulose fermentation is not affected by the amount of lignin present in forages. They do affect.
63
Q

Which of the following statements is False

  1. Optimum calving rate for commercial breeders is 1 calf/year
  2. Beef calves are typically weaned at around 500-550 lb body weight
  3. Calves may be vaccinated at 1 week of age in the face of disease challenge
  4. Modified live vaccine may be given to both bred and open cows
A
  1. Modified live vaccine may be given to both bred and open cows
64
Q

What is the 80:20 rule?

A

80% parasites are found in 20% of herd

65
Q

What is the main GI parasite in alpacas?

A

Big mac, E. Mac, Eimeria macusaniensis

66
Q

What is the main cause of poor BCS?

A

poor quality forage

67
Q

What diagnostic test is highly suggestive for zinc responsive dermatosis?

A

Eosinophil infiltrations in skin biopsy

68
Q

What is an effective treatment for mites? Fipronil

A

Fipronil

69
Q

Name the mite that occurs on the feet and legs?

A

Chorioptic mange

70
Q

Name the mite that occurs on the ears?

A

Psorotes otitis

71
Q

Apart from zinc responsive dermatosis, name another differential for chorioptic mange?

A

Dermatophilosis (foot rot)

72
Q

When do fighting teeth erupt?

A

3-5 years

73
Q

A localized swelling on the lower jaw is probably an indication of what? Tooth root abscess

A

tooth root abscess

74
Q

Name a sign which indicated molar teeth problem.

A

Painful mastication, quidding and food accumulation

75
Q

Which viral vaccine is not recommended for camelids?

A

BVD

76
Q

Name a viral disease of horses which can also occur in camelids.

A

West Nile, Eastern Encephalitis

77
Q

Name the most important vaccine for camelids.

A

Clostridium perfingens type C and D

78
Q

What is the gestation period of camelids?

A

11 months

79
Q

Describe FECRT.

A

Compare amount of eggs before and 10-14 days after treatment.

RUSVM LAM II Final (1 decks)

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