Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Functions of CV system

A

o distributes dissolved gases & nutrients.
o removes metabolic waste
o contributes to systemic homeostasis by controlling temp, O2 supply, pH, ionic composition, nutrient supply
o quickly adapts to changes in conditions and metabolic demands

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2
Q

Systemic circulation is primarily arranged “in _______.”

A

parallel

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3
Q

Importance of systemic circulation being arranged in parallel:

A

o O2 blood visits only one organ system before returning to pulmonary circulation
o Changes in metabolic demand or blood flow in one organ do not significantly affect other organs
o Blood flow to different organs can be individually varied to match demand

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4
Q

Layers of the heart

A

o epicardium
o myocardium
o endocardium

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5
Q

epicardium

A

outer membrane = connective tissue & fat

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6
Q

myocardium

A

thick muscle layer of the heart

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7
Q

endocardium

A

inner membrane = endothelial cells, as in vessels

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8
Q

The pericardium encloses entire heart in a ___ ____ membranous sac that is/is not connected to walls of heart

A

fluid filled membranous sac

is NOT connected to the walls of the heart

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9
Q

The pericardium is:
flexible and compliant
OR
Stiff & non-compliant

A

Stiff & non-compliant, resists sudden distension of chambers.

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10
Q

Why is pericarditis problematic?

A

Pericarditis restricts the filling of the heart.

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11
Q

Two types of valves in the heart

A

atrioventricular (tricuspid and mitral) valves and

Semilunar (pulmonic and aortic) valves

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12
Q

What are valves made of?

A

o Valves = thin flaps (“cusps”) of fibrous tissue covered by endothelium.
o Mitral has two cusps (bicuspid), others have three

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13
Q

Sinoatrial (SA) node

A

o in wall of right atrium
o spontaneously depolarizes to initiate the heart beat
o intrinsic activity ~100 bpm
o highly regulated by autonomic nervous system and many humoral factors

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14
Q

Impulse spreads through atria via ___ _____

A

gap junctions

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15
Q

Atrioventricular (AV) node

A

between atria and ventricles, slows conduction to allow atrial contraction to precede ventricular contraction

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16
Q

His-Purkinje system

A

specialized cells that rapidly conduct depolarization to trigger coordinated ventricular contraction.

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17
Q

Most coronary blood flow occurs during _____.

Why?

A

diastole,

because of compression of microvasculature during systole.

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18
Q

The Right & left coronary arteries arise from where? The Major coronary arteries course along ______ surface of heart. Smaller branches enter _______

A

The root of the aorta

epicardial, myocardium

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19
Q

The left main coronary artery supplies:

A

The left atrium and left ventricle

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20
Q

The right coronary artery is located where? What does it supply?

A
  • in groove between right atrium and right ventricle

* primary blood supply to right atrium and right ventricle, as well as posterior part of left ventricle

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21
Q

What do the coronary veins drain into?

A

drain into coronary sinus, which opens into right atrium near inferior vena cava

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22
Q

What does that aorta do to the pulsatile pressure?

A

dampens pulsatile pressure

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23
Q

Describe the walls of arteries

A

thick walled, resist expansion

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24
Q

Arterioles

A
  • relatively thicker walls (more vascular smooth muscle)
  • highly innervated by ANS nerves, circulating hormones, and local metabolites
  • primary site of regulation of vascular resistance, via changes in diameter
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25
Q

What is the primary sire of regulation of vascular resistance via changes in diameter?

A

arterioles

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26
Q

Describe the walls of venules

A

thin walls relative to diameter compared to equivalent-sized arteries (but still some smooth muscle), not much elasticity

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27
Q

Arterial walls have 3 layers:

A

1) Tunica adventitia
2) Tunica media
3) tunica adventitia

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28
Q

Tunica adventitia

A

o outer layer

o mostly connective tissue = collagen and elastin

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29
Q

Tunica media

A

o middle layer
o mostly innervated vascular smooth muscle
o controls diameter of vessels, particularly resistance arteries
o not present in capillaries

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30
Q

Tunica intima

A

o inner layer of vessel lined with vascular endothelium:
o single continuous layer of endothelial cells
o very important in regulation of blood flow
o site of atherosclerotic plaque formation.

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31
Q

Microcirculation

A

o Defined as vasculature from the first-order arterioles to the venules

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32
Q

What regulates blood flow through the capillaries?

A

o Blood flow through capillary beds is determined by the pressure gradient , and is highly regulated via constriction/dilation of arterioles & precapillary sphincters
o precapillary sphincters = smooth muscle bands at junction of arteriole and capillaries

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33
Q

Structure of capillaries

A

o Capillaries do not have a smooth muscle layer, only endothelial cells surrounded by basement membrane
o Movement of substances between capillaries and tissue is driven by concentration and pressure gradients (more in hemodynamics lecture)

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34
Q

The difference between what drives blood flow through an organ?

A

arterial and venous pressure

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35
Q

the difference in pressure between the inside and outside of a vessel (across the wall) is called…

A

transmural pressure

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36
Q

Where is the pressure the highest?

A

aorta, elastic walls of the vessels dampen pulsatile pressure, but there is little resistance to flow, so there is not much of a drop in blood pressure through the arteries

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37
Q

Where does a big fall in pressure occurs (arterial side of things)

A

A big fall in pressure occur in the arterioles, aka the “resistance vessels

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38
Q

Describe the pressure in the capillaries and venous system

A

very low

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39
Q

Which has higher pressure, the systemic or pulmonary circulation?

A

systemic circulation&raquo_space; pulmonary circulation

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40
Q

cardiac output from left and right sides of heart are ____, but ___ and ____ are different.

A

equal

resistance and pressure— much lower in pulmonary circulation

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41
Q

Total blood volume

A

5L

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42
Q

Which has a greater blood volume, arterial or venous system?

A

venous system, veins are known as “capacitance vessels”

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43
Q

Flow equation

A

Q = ΔP/R

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44
Q

Cardiac output equation

A

CO=(mean arterial pressure-venous pressure)/ Total peripheral resistance (TPR)

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45
Q

analogous relationships to Ohm’s law

A

where blood flow is like current, pressure is like voltage, and resistance is like… well, resistance.

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46
Q

What does flow REQUIRE?

A

flow requires a pressure difference

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47
Q

What must flow in equal?

A

Flow in MUST equal FLOW out

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48
Q

Assumptions of flow equation that are not really valid for cardiovascular system:

A

constant pressure, constant resistance, straight rigid tube. BUT, pressure and flow through the system as a whole can be approximated with the flow equation.

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49
Q

Poiseuille’s Equation

A

Flow=πr^4/8ηl

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50
Q

Most importantly, flow is dependent on the ____^4

A

radius of the vessel

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51
Q

The term πr^4/8ηl is also the inverse of what?

A

The term πr4/8ηl is also the inverse of resistance in the flow equation

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52
Q

In CV system, what is the major mechanism by which flow is controlled (vasoconstriction & vasodilation)?

A

vessel diameter is the major mechanism by which flow is controlled (vasoconstriction & vasodilation).

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53
Q

Poiseuille’s Law is only valid for

A

single vessels

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54
Q

Vessels in the systemic circulation are in (parallel/series)

A

parallel

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55
Q

Consequesnce of systemic circulation being in parallel

A

• Total resistance of a network of parallel vessels is lower than the resistance of single lowest resistance vessel in the system.
1/Rtotal= (1/R1) + (1/R2) + (1/R3)
• Changing the resistance of a single vessel in a parallel system has little effect on the total resistance of the system.

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56
Q

What vessels have (individually) the highest resistance? When considered in total, do they have high or low resistance?

A

capillaries are highest resistance of all vessels (smallest diameter), yet the total resistance of capillary beds is quite low and is independent of individual capillaries because there are many PARALLEL vessels.

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57
Q

Is the total resistance of a series of vessels is higher/lower than the resistance of any individual vessel?

A

Resistances in series are additive

Rtotal= R1 + R2 + R3

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58
Q

Blood flow through vessels in series is _____, but the pressure ______ through the series of vessels

A

constant
decreases
(e.g. pressure drops through the systemic circulation)

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59
Q

The flow equation assumes what kind of flow?

A

Flow equation assumes non-pulsatile laminar flow – so only approximate for CV system

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60
Q

In laminar flow, where is the velocity of blood the highest?

A

The velocity of the blood is fastest in the center, slower at the edge of the tube

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61
Q

factors that increase turbulent flow

A

large diameter, high velocity, low viscosity, abrupt changes in diameter, irregularities on tube walls.

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62
Q

Turbulent flow produces what kind of force? What are the effects of these forces?

A

shearing force – viscous drag of fluid flowing through tube, which exerts force on the walls. Shear forces can damage vascular endothelium, which promotes formation of thrombi and embolisms. Damage to the vascular endothelium is a first step in the development of atherosclerotic plaques.

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63
Q

Is arterial pressure constant in the aorta?

A

No. Heart pumps intermittently, creating pulsatile flow in the aorta — arterial pressure is not constant.

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64
Q

Systolic pressure=

A

= peak aortic (~arterial) pressure

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65
Q

Diastolic pressure=

A

=minimum aortic pressure

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66
Q

pulse pressure =

A

systolic – diastolic

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67
Q

Does the pulse vary in the capillaries?

A

in capillary beds, NO pulse variation, pressure (and thus flow) is continuous. Pulse pressure, mean pressure and velocity all decrease from aorta to capillaries.

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68
Q

Which requires more work, pulsatile or continuous pressure?

A

pulsatile flow requires more work – basically acceleration of mass vs. maintaining constant velocity (example: stop & go driving at rush hour uses more gas)

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69
Q

Mean arterial pressure (MAP). What does MAP depend on?

A

diastolic pressure + 1/3(systolic – diastolic)
o MAP depends on HR: approx correct for resting HR. At higher HRs, diastole is relatively shorter, so MAP approaches the average between systolic & diastolic pressures.

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70
Q

Is the mean arterial pressure the arithmetic average of systolic and diastolic pressures? Why

A

NO, because diastole is longer than systole (at resting heart rates)

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71
Q

Compliance equation

A

Compliance (C, in ml/mmHg) equals change in volume (ΔV, in ml) that results from a change in pressure (ΔP, in mmHg)
C=ΔV/ΔP

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72
Q

What is compliance?

A

Compliance represents the elastic properties of vessels (or chambers of the heart)-determined by relative proportion of elastin fibers versus smooth muscle and collagen in vessel walls.

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73
Q

Are arteries or veins more compliant?

A

Veins are more compliant than arteries – more ΔV per ΔP

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74
Q

Arteriosclerosis

A

loss of compliance from thickening and hardening of arteries. Some arteriosclerosis is normal with age

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75
Q

LAW OF LAPLACE

A
T=(ΔP*r) / μ
T=tension or wall stress)
ΔP is transmural pressure
r is radius
μ is wall thickness.
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76
Q

How is an aneurism explained by the law of LaPlace?

A

weakened vessel wall bulges outward, increasing the radius, increasing the tension that cells in the wall have to withstand to prevent the vessel from splitting open. Over time cells become weaker, allowing the wall to bulge more so that tension increases further, until the aneurysm ruptures.

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77
Q

Two types of cardiovascular transport

A

Bulk transport and transcapillary transport

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78
Q

Bulk transport

A

cargo from point A to point B in whole CV system. Can be applied also to consumption of a substance.

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79
Q

Transcapillary transport

A

movement of cargo between capillaries and tissue

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80
Q

Fick’s Principle

A

considers how much of a substance is used by a tissue. The amount used is equal to the amount that enters the tissue minus the amount that leaves, and the amount can be determined as the flow times the concentration
Xused=Q([x]i-[x]o)

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81
Q

Equation that applies Fick’s law to cardiac output based on myocardial O2 consumption

A

mVO2=CO([O2]a-[O2]v)
MVO2=myocardial O2 consumption
CO=cardiac output
[O2]a and [O2]v= arterial and venous oxygen concentrations

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82
Q

equation for CO using Fick’s law

A

CO=mVO2/([O2]a-[O2]v)

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83
Q

Fractional O2 Extraction (EO2)

A

EO2 is the amount of oxygen used by a tissue expressed as a fraction of the original (arterial) oxygen concentration.
EO2=([O2]a-[O2]v)/[O2]a

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84
Q

Two opposing forces determine solvent movement in transcapillary transport:

A

1) hydrostatic pressure, P

2) oncotic pressure, π

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85
Q

Hydrostatic pressure

A

fluid pressure as we have been considering so far – blood pressure in this case. Net hydrostatic pressure in a capillary bed is the difference between capillary pressure and interstitial pressure.

Hydrostatic pressure promotes FILTRATION (movement of fluid out of capillaries)

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86
Q

Oncotic Pressure, π

A

(colloid osmotic pressure)- osmotic force created by proteins in the blood and interstitial fluid.

Oncotic pressure of blood in capillaries (πc) is higher than oncotic pressure of interstitial fluid (πi)
Capillary oncotic pressure promotes REABSORPTION of fluid (movement of fluid into capillaries)

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87
Q

What are the major determinant of oncotic pressure?

A

α Globulin and albumin are major determinants of oncotic pressure.

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88
Q

Starling Equation for transcapillary transport (AKA Starling’s law of the capillary)

A

Flux=k[(Pc-Pi)-(πc-πi)]

Flux = net mvmt across capillary wall
k = constant
Pc = capillary hydrostatic pressure
Pi = interstitial hydrostatic pressure
πc = capillary oncotic pressure
πi = interstitial oncotic pressure
(Pc - Pi) = net hydrostatic pressure – tends to be outward (filtration)
(πc – πi) =  net oncotic pressure – tends to be inward (reabsorption)
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89
Q

Factors that increase blood pressure (hypertension) or reduce ______ pressure (liver disease) tend to promote _____. Excess filtration causes edema (swelling) in tissues.

A

oncotic

filtration

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90
Q

there is a tendency toward ______ on the arterial side and ______ on the venous side.

A

filtration

reabsorption

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91
Q

Net flux is regulated primarily by control of what?

A

capillary hydrostatic pressure (via vasoconstriction/vasodilation of arterioles).

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92
Q

How many heavy and light chains does cardiac myosin have?

A

Two heavy chains and 4 light chains.

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93
Q

What types of troponin are there in the heart?

A

TN-C, TN-I, TN-T

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94
Q

TN-C

A

Troponin C: Contains only one Ca2+- binding site

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95
Q

TN-I

A

Inhibitory troponin that contains a unique N-terminal extension of 32 amino acids which is highly regulated by phosphorylation (PKA sites)

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96
Q

TN-T

A

the part of the troponin complex that is bound to tropomyosin

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97
Q

What isoform of tropomyosin is found in the heart?

A

ONLY alpha troponin is found in the heart

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98
Q

Action potential depolarization opens what type of calcium channels leading to calcium influx?

A

L type calcium channels

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99
Q

Regulators of stroke volume

A
  1. preload
  2. afterload
  3. contractility
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100
Q

Does increasing preload increase or decrease the amount of tension developed?

A

Given the same stimulus, increasing the preload increases the amount of tension the muscle can develop

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101
Q

What mechanisms underly the length-tension relationship?

A
  1. extent of overlap
  2. Changes in Ca2+ sensitivity (amount of Ca2+ needed to genera tire a given force)
  3. Increases in Ca2+ release
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102
Q

Afterload

A

as the pressure that ventricle has to generate in order to eject blood out of the chamber.

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103
Q

Relationship between afterload and the velocity of shortening

A

the greater the afterload, the slower the velocity

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104
Q

Contractility

A

The force with which the heart contacts

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105
Q

What is the most important physiological regulator of contractility?

A

norepeinephrine (NE)

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106
Q

Substances that change the contractility are called:

A

ionotropes

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107
Q

Frank-Starling Law

A

AN INCREASE IN PRE-LOAD LEADS TO AN INCREASE IN STROKE VOLUME.

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108
Q

Technically, according the the Frank-Starling law, The stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood filling the heart (the __________) when all other factors remain constant

A

end diastolic volume

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109
Q

Cardiac Output

A

volume of blood pumped per minute by left ventricle

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110
Q

Stroke volume

A

volume of blood pumped per beat.

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111
Q

CO=

A

arterial pressure/TPR

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112
Q

Two mechanisms for heart to control cardiac output

A

Heart rate and stroke volume (CO=HR x SV)

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113
Q

Which factor of CO is subject to more change?

A

HR can increase by a larger percentage than stroke volume can, so HR can produce larger changes in cardiac output

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114
Q

What factors determine the stroke volume?

A

Determined by the strength of contraction of the heart, venous return (“preload”), and vascular resistance (“after load”)

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115
Q

Strength of contraction of the heart is controlled via two mechanisms

A
  1. Length-dependent intrinsic mechanism = Frank-Starling Law
  2. Length-independent mechanism = Inotropy (or “contractility”)
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116
Q

Inotropy

A

contractility, or contraction of the myocardium

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117
Q

On average, CO must be equal to what value?

A

Cardiac output MUST equal venous return (on average). Venous return is the volume of blood flowing into right atrium per minute

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118
Q

Must the cardiac output be, on average, equal for the left and right sides of the heart?

A

yes. Having unequal cardiac output not he left or right side of the heart would result in edema

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119
Q

Isovolumetric contraction phase of the cardiac cycle

A

ventricle contracts, pressure increases. The initial increase in pressure immediately pushes the mitral valve closed because the ventricular pressure quickly exceeds that in the atrium, now relaxing. Aortic pressure is initially greater than the ventricular pressure, so aortic valve is closed during the initial stage of ventricular contraction. Thus, ventricular pressure increases dramatically because the ventricle is contracting but both valves are closed.

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120
Q

Ejection Phase of the cardiac cycle

A

As the ventricle continues to contract, the ventricular pressure exceeds that in the aorta, thus the aortic valve is pushed open and blood begins to flow. As the ventricle begins to relax, the ventricular pressure falls. Pressure decreases slowly at first, and ejection continues. When the ventricular pressure drops below the aortic pressure, the aortic valve closes.

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121
Q

Isovolumetric relaxation phase

A

The ventricle continues to relax with both valves closed, so the pressure falls rapidly.
As the ventricle continues to relax, the pressure eventually falls below that in the atrium, allowing the mitral valve to open and blood to flow into the ventricle, beginning a new cycle.

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122
Q

Pressure and volume changes in the left ventricle are bounded by two curves:

A

systolic pressure-volume relation and the end diastolic pressure-volume relation

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123
Q

End diastolic pressure-volume relationship (EDPVR)

A

Lower curve: plots left ventricular pressure as a function of LV volume.

P-V relationship during filling of heart BEFORE contraction. Determined by passive elastic properties of ventricle

The end-diastolic PVR represents the PRELOAD on the heart.

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124
Q

The end-diastolic PVR represents the ______ on the heart.

A

PRELOAD

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125
Q

Preload is strictly defined as…

A

ventricular wall tension at the end of diastole

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126
Q

Afterload is strictly defined as…

A

The load against which a muscle contracts, wall stress during contraction
For left ventricle, afterload ~ aortic pressure.

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127
Q

Systolic pressure-volume relationship (SPVR)

A

Upper curve, P - V relationship at peak of isometric contraction
• Max pressure that can be developed by the ventricle, depends on AFTERLOAD
• Steeper than EDPVR – pressure increases a lot even at low volume.
• Systolic PVR includes passive properties of the heart (ie, includes the diastolic pressure-volume relationship)

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128
Q

“Active tension”

A

difference in force between peak systolic pressure and end diastolic pressure curves, i.e., tension developed by the contraction itself, independent of the preload.

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129
Q

“STARLING CURVE” or “Ventricular function curve”

A

Plot of cardiac performance (such as active tension or CO or SV) as a function of preload (such as length or EDV)

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130
Q

Frank-Starling law of the heart is the mechanism by which the heart adapts to what?

A

INTRINSIC mechanism by which the heart adapts to changes in preload (in the normal physiological range)

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131
Q

Violation of Starling’s law corresponds to what?

A

Heart Failure

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132
Q

Three ways to state Starling’s Law:

A

a) Heart responds to an increase in EDV by increasing the force of contraction.
b) Healthy heart always functions on the ascending limb of the ventricular function curve
c) What goes in, must come out. Cardiac output MUST equal venous return and cardiac output from left and right ventricles MUST match (on average).

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133
Q

Molecular basis for Starling’s law (briefly)

A

a) Cardiac titin isoform is very stiff, resists stretch.
b) Ca2+ sensitivity of myofilaments increases as sarcomeres are stretched-same intracellular Ca2+ produces a greater force of contraction.
c) Closer lattice spacing – stretched sarcomeres have altered spacing between actin & myosin which results in more force generated per crossbridge.

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134
Q

Bainbridge reflex

A

o Stretch sinus node → increase in heart rate

o Another way in which increased venous return causes increased cardiac output

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135
Q

SV =

A

SV= EDV - ESV

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136
Q

Ejection Fraction (EF)=

A

EF = SV/EDV

= (EDV – ESV) / EDV

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137
Q

Stroke Work

A

energy per beat (in Joules), area INSIDE the PV loop diagram
o NOT the same for left & right sides of heart, since systemic circulation has higher pressure, left heart does more work

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138
Q

Factors that affect preload

A

o Blood volume (IV fluid, hemorrhage)
o filling pressure (venous blood pressure)
o filling time (reduced at high heart rates)
o resistance to filling (e.g., right atrial pressure, AV valve stenosis)
o resistance to emptying = afterload (e.g., hypertension, pulmonic or aortic stenosis; see below)
o reduced inotropy

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139
Q

Compliance is defined as ___/__; on PV plots, compliance is the reciprocal of the slope of the EDPVR.

A

ΔV/ΔP

EDPVR, Therefore the steeper the EDPVR = less compliant (stiffer).

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140
Q

Decreased compliance causes higher/lower EDV at any given pressure

A

lower

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141
Q

What effect does dilated cardiomyopathy have on ventricular compliance?

A

it can increase ventricular compliance

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142
Q

Holding afterload & inotropy constant, an increase in preload (increase EDV) causes:

A

The immediate effect is an increase in stroke volume via Starling’s law (i.e., the heart contracts with more force because sarcomere length is increased).

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143
Q

Factors that determine afterload

A

aortic pressure is the major determinant of afterload for the LV and pulmonary artery pressure is the main source of afterload for the RV. Also, Wall thickness and ventricular radius according to the Law of LaPlace, which shows that wall stress (T) increases as radius (r) increases and wall thickness (μ) decreases

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144
Q

If you hold preload & inotropy constant, and increase after load, what effect does this have on the next beat?

A

This causes a decrease in stroke volume on the next beat

  1. ventricle has to generate more pressure before the aortic valve opens, allowing less time for ejection
  2. From the force-velocity relationship, velocity is reduced when afterload is increased. Thus, in the relatively fixed time period of systole, the ventricle will develop less pressure, and the ejection velocity will be reduced. Overall, this means less blood is ejected (decreased SV).
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145
Q

Changes in _____ are particularly important in exercise — help to maintain high stroke volume even at high heart rate.

A

inotropy

(contractility) reflects the strength of contraction at any given preload and afterload

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146
Q

hold preload & afterload constant, increase isotropy, what is the result?

A

This results in a new Starling curve which corresponds to greater systolic pressure development any given volume. Increased inotropy is associated with increases in stroke volume and ejection fraction and a decrease in end systolic volume. These effects persist as long as the inotropy remains high (do not recover on next beat).

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147
Q

At what speed do pacemaker cells depolarize?

A

pacemaker cells slowly depolarize to threshold in the absence of extrinsic input

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147
Q

rhythmicity

A

The nature of pacemaker cells to will fire action potentials at a frequency of about 100/min

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147
Q

What types of nerves innervate the SA node?

A

The SA node is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic axons

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147
Q

overdrive suppression

A

under normal circumstances AV node cells cells are driven by action potentials originating in the SA node; that is, an action potential will spread to them from the SA node before they reach threshold on their own, even though they have automaticity

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147
Q

Where is the AV node located?

A

on the right side of the inter-atrial septum near the opening of the coronary sinus.

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147
Q

Rank order the length of action potentials of skeletal muscle, myocardium, and SA/AV nodes

A

(slowest) SA/AV>Myocardium> Skeletal muscle (fastest)

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147
Q

Cardiac sodium channels (containing _____ as the principle subunit) are similar to sodium channels in neurons and skeletal muscle. How so?

A

NaV1.5

Depolarization causes them to activate rapidly and then inactivate.

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147
Q

Two overarching types of calcium channels:

A

High voltage activated (HVA) and low voltage activated (LVA)

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147
Q

What are the predominant calcium channels in ventricular and atrial myocardium and cells of the AV and SA node conductive pathways?

A

L-type calcium channels containing CaV1.2

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147
Q

L type calcium channels

A

channels that activate quickly in response to depolarization and subsequently inactivate in a manner dependent both on voltage (voltage-dependent inactivation, VDI) and cytoplasmic calcium (calcium dependent inactivation, CDI)

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147
Q

What type of drugs block L type calcium channels?

A

dihydropyridines, used as antihypertensive agents

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147
Q

T type calcium channels

A

LVA (low voltage activation) channels activated by weaker depolarizations that nose required for HVA channels. They are expressed in the SA node and the nervous system

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147
Q

IKr and IKs currents

A

“rapid” delayed rectifier (IKr)
and
“slow delayed rectifier” (IKs)
Both are time-dependent potassium currents

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147
Q

IK1 current

A

The “inward rectifier” channel: does not gate in the conventional sense- conductance = voltage dependent as a consequence of block by cytoplasmic constituents. Strong, “instantaneous” (< 1 ms) rectification- conduct inward K+ current at potentials below EK and only weakly pass outward K+ current at potentials slightly positive to EK.

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147
Q

IK1 channels are ideally suited for what?

A

ideally suited for holding cells near EK between action potentials without producing an outward current upon depolarization that would be energetically costly and make it more difficult to generate an action potential.

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147
Q

____is increased in response to ACh acting on muscarinic receptors- important for the parasympathetic nervous system to slow pacemaker activity

A

IKACh

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147
Q

If (or Ih)

A

(HCN tetramer) – “funny” current: turned off at depolarized potentials and turned on at hyper polarized potentials. Channel is permeable to both Na+ and K+. May play an important role in pacemaking by SA nodal cells.

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147
Q

The categorization of cardiac action potentials as fast or slow is based on:

A

whether the initial upstroke is rapid or slow.

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147
Q

______ have fast action potentials, while _____ have slow action potentials

A

Myocardial cells/cells of the rapid conduction pathways display fast action potentials.

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147
Q

The initial upstroke (phase 0) of a fast cardiac action potential is caused by what?

A

rapid depolarization caused by the entry of sodium ions (INa) through voltage-activated sodium channels

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147
Q

Phase 1 of the fast cardiac action potential

A

Following the rapid upstroke is a small, partial repolarization (phase 1), which is produced by a combination of inactivation of sodium current and activation of a transient potassium current IKto

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147
Q

Phase 2 of the fast cardiac action potential

A

prolonged plateau where voltage-activated, L-type calcium channels are open. The influx of Ca2+ is approx. balanced by an efflux of K+ ions (IKr and IKs) via delayed rectifier channels so that membrane potential remains at constant level (0 mV). The combination of inactivation of (ICa) and increasing activation of IKr and IKs causes termination of the plateau by a rapid repolarization (phase 3).

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147
Q

Phase 3 of the fast cardiac action potential

A

The combination of inactivation of (ICa) and increasing activation of IKr and IKs causes termination of the plateau by a rapid repolarization. IKr and IKs are de-activated, and inactivation of INa and ICa is removed

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147
Q

Phase 4 of the fast cardiac action potential

A

As a result of Ik channel de-activation, and removal of INa and ICa; the cell is held near EK (phase 4) by the inward rectifier (IK1).

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147
Q

absolute refractory period

A

a second action potential cannot be initiated until most of the inactivation of INa is removed

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147
Q

relative refractory period

A

the threshold for a second action potential remains elevated (relative refractory period) until after repolarization is complete (complete removal of inactivation of INa and deactivation of IKr and IKs has occurred

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147
Q

Difference in ionic currents in a pacemaker cell vs a myocardial cell

A

pacemaker cells have reduced INa and little IK1; pacemaker cells express If and ICa-T which are essentially absent in myocardial cells

147
Q

Do pacemaker cells have a resting potential?

A

The complement of ionic currents expressed in pacemaker cells has the result that there is NO stable resting potential, and these cells produce repetitive, “slow action potentials.”

147
Q

The upstroke (phase 0) of a slow cardiac action potential

A

activation of ICa-T and ICa-L and is relatively slow owing to the absence of Ina (like in a fast cardiac action potential of myocyte).

147
Q

Phase 3 of a slow cardiac action potential

A

balance between ICa and delayed rectifier current (IKr and IKs)-repolarization (phase 3) occurs shortly after the peak of the action potential.

147
Q

Phase 4 of a slow cardiac action potential

A

slow depolarization (the “pacemaker potential”) brings the cell back to threshold for next action potential.
contributions:
1) funny current (If) which is induced by hyperpolarization.
2) slow deactivation of IKr and IKs 3) activation of LVA Ca2+ current (ICa-T).

147
Q

Other possible influences in setting the “pacemaker potential” (phase 4)

A

internal calcium release and the resultant movements of sodium and calcium via the NCX sodium/calcium exchanger

147
Q

Why is HERG is an important “anti-target” tested in preclinical evaluation of new drugs?

A

Because IKr (tetramer of HERG) is important for repolarization of both FAST and SLOW cardiac action potentials. Altered HERG function can disrupt normal cardiac electrical activity, leading to arrhythmias. For drugs, it’s standard to determine whether investigational drug blocks HERG channels.

147
Q

If Vm < Eion then current flows ___ the cell

If Vm > Eion, then current flows ___ the cell

A

If Vm < Eion, the current flows INTO the cell

If Vm > Eion, the current flows OUT of the cell

148
Q

Which potassium currents are TIME DEPENDENT?

A
IKto 
IKr ("rapid" delayed rectifier)
IKs ("Slow delayed rectifier)
149
Q

Is the funny current (If (or Ih) voltage dependent or time dependent?

A

Time dependent and evoked by hyperpolarization

150
Q

What are the inward rectifier potassium currents?

A

Ik1 and IKACh (slows pacemaking)

151
Q

Why are cells in the SA and AV nodes poor conductors of electrical current?

A

because they lack a fast sodium current.

152
Q

Shape of AP of a purkinje fiber?

A

similar shape to myocytes with a slightly higher voltage during phase 0 and a longer total duration. Probably because of greater numbers of fast Na channels they conduct faster than contractile myocytes.

153
Q

Which His bundle has two branches?

A

The left bundle divides into anterior and posterior branches or fascicles that supply corresponding regions of the left ventricle.

154
Q

P wave

A

due to depolarization of the atria

155
Q

QRS wave

A

due to depolarization in the ventricles

156
Q

T wave

A

due to repolarization of the ventricles

157
Q

Why can’t you see repolarization of the the atria?

A

because it normally occurs at the same time as ventricular depolarization and is buried in the much larger signal from the ventricles

158
Q

The peak of the QRS, the R wave corresponds to phase __of the action potential, which is due to what?

A

0

fast sodium current

159
Q

T wave of the ECG corresponds to phase __of the action potential. What is happening here?

A

3

rapid decrease in voltage as potassium efflux continues.

160
Q

Why are the QRS of depolarization and the T wave of repolarization both
in the same direction (concordance)
in the surface ECG?

A

Endocardium depolarizes earlier than the epicardium. However, there is a transmural repolarization gradient and epicardial cells REPOLARIZE EARLIER than endocardial cells because they have shorter action potential duration.

161
Q

Discordance between the QRS and T waves in any lead is normal/pathological

A

pathological, reflecting abnormalities such as ischemia or ventricular hypertrophy.

162
Q

PR interval

A

index of conduction time across the AV node

163
Q

QT interval

A

total duration of ventricular depolarization and repolarization

164
Q

Why is the QRS voltage is much greater than the P voltage?

A

because ventricular mass exceeds atrial mass.

165
Q

Why is the T wave wider than the QRS?

A

because ventricular repolarization takes considerably longer than depolarization.

166
Q

If the activation wave is TOWARD a sensing electrode

a______ deflection will be recorded

A

positive (upward)

167
Q

The pattern of the deflection varies with what?

A

the position of the recording electrodes

168
Q

a lead with a positive electrode near the right arm normally has a predominantly _____ QRS and a lead with a positive electrode near the left leg has a _____ QRS.

A

negative

positive

169
Q

sequence of activation of the ventricles

A
  1. The upper portion of the septum is depolarized from left to right. 2. There is then depolarization downward in the septum to the apex. 3. Depolarization is from endocardium to epicardium
  2. Depolarization moves upward from apex in the free walls of both ventricles.
  3. Finally there is depolarization of the base of the ventricles.
170
Q

SA (sinoatrial node) abnormalities

A

commonly cause “sick sinus syndrome” resulting in slow sinus rates or takeover by other pacemakers which may be either fast or slow.

172
Q

What would an ECG show when the right bundle is blocked?

A

QRS widening with delayed conduction to the right ventricle

173
Q

What would an ECG show when he left bundle is blocked?

A

QRS widening with delayed conduction to the left ventricle

174
Q

What would an ECG show when left bundle fascicles are blocked

A

shifts in direction of depolarization but no QRS widening.

175
Q

Three common mechanisms leading to arrhythmias:

A
  1. Re-entry
  2. Ectopic foci
  3. Triggered activity
176
Q

Abnormal reentry pathways

A

can be present in the atria, ventricles, or the junctional tissue. Occurs when there is a unidirectional block and slowed conduction through the reentry pathway. After the slow reentry
the previously depolarized tissue has recovered and reentry into it will occur.

177
Q

Ectopic foci

A

when a focus of myocardium outside the conduction system acquires automaticity. If rate of depolarization > the SA node= abnormal rhythm. Can be isolated “ectopic beats” or sustained tachyarrhythmias.

178
Q

triggered activity

A

“afterpolarizations” triggered by the preceding action potential, triggering arrhythmias. Arrhythmias are usually associated with a delay in repolarization seen in the ECG as a “long QT interval”.

179
Q

Drug toxicity is a common cause of arrhythmic activity, frequently from

A

cardiac glycosides (digoxin), some antihistamines (e.g., astemizole, terfenadine) and antibiotics (e.g., sulfamethoxazole)

180
Q

Why even use antiarrhythmic drugs ?

A

1) remain very useful as first-line therapy in treating certain arrhythmias (supra ventricular) (2) used in conjunction with ICDs to decrease the frequency of arrhythmic episodes and thereby both prolong battery life and reduce the number of painful shocks
(3) may become more useful as research reveals new information about their mechanisms of action and their molecular targets.

181
Q

The primary targets of antiarrhythmic drugs are:

A

cardiac Na+ channels (INa)
Ca2+ channels (ICa-L)
K+ channels (IKs and IKr)
β-adrenergic receptors.

direct drug targets. Via the β-adrenergic receptor pathway, the pacemaker current, If, and ICa-L, and IKs are indirect targets of antiarrhythmic drug action.

182
Q

To date, only what type of drug has been demonstrated to reduce the incidence of sudden cardiac death?

A

β-blockers

183
Q

a prolongation of the duration of the cardiac action potential that can lead to ventricular arrhythmia and sudden death is called:

A

Long QT syndrome

184
Q

Torsades de pointes is typically triggered by:

A

an abrupt increase in sympathetic tone as occurs with emotional excitement, fright, or physical activity.

185
Q

current clinical practice includes treating long QT patients with what?

A

β-adrenergic receptor blockers (β-blockers).

186
Q

Romano-Ward syndrome (RWS)

A
autosomal dominant form of long QT syndrome, genetically heterogeneous: more than 200 mutations identified.  Most prevalent: 
slow cardiac K+ channel IKs (LQT1)
rapid cardiac K+ channel IKr (LQT2)
cardiac Na+ channel INa 
(LQT3).
187
Q

Jervell-Lange-Nielson syndrome (JLNS)

A

autosomal recessive, homozygous carriers of mutations in IKs (LQT1) also suffer from congenital deafness, while the heterozygous carriers are asymptomatic.

204
Q

3 Types of AV block:

A

1st degree: conduction delayed but all P waves conduct to the ventricles.–> Long PR interval
2nd degree: only some P waves conduct–> only some P waves are followed by a QRS
3rd degree block: none of the P waves conduct & a ventricular
pacemaker takes over–> no relationship between timing to P and QRS. HEART BLOCK–> need ICD

205
Q

LQT3

A

Incomplete INa inactivation

206
Q

LQT8

A

Incomplete ICa-L inactivation (also: autism-timothy’s syndrome)

207
Q

LQT2, LQT6

A

decreased IKr current

208
Q

LQT1, LQT5

A

decreased IKs current

209
Q

LQT7

A

Decreased IK1 current during diastole

210
Q

Brugada syndrome

A

VFib =survival rate of only 40% by 5 years of age. > 30 mutations in the cardiac Na channel have been linked to Brugada, with many of these reducing peak inward Na+ current that drives action potential upstroke in ventricular myocytes.

211
Q

Finnish familial arrhythmia

A

not able to upregulate activity of K+ channels (IKs). protein called yotiao normally targets protein kinase A, the effector of β receptors, to both cardiac Ca2+ channels and K+ channels. Yotiao targets the kinase to the channels by binding directly to these channels. yotiao binding site on the K+ channel mutated= impairs yotiao binding–> diminishes β receptor upregulation of cardiac K+ channel activity. Result: w/ increased sympathetic activity, not enough repolarizing K+ current to match the increased depolarizing Ca2+ current. Phase 2 is prolonged, Ca2+ levels rise in the cytosol, triggers afterdepolarizations and arrhythmia.

212
Q

Triggered afterdepolarizations can be one of two types:

A

Early (EAD) and delayed (DAD) afterdepolarizations

213
Q

early afterdepolarizations (EADs):

A

appear during late phase 2 and phase 3 dependent on re-activation of Ca2+ channels in response to ↑[Ca2+]in
prolongation of phase 2 (long QT) contributes to ↑[Ca2+]in

214
Q

Delayed afterdepolarizations (DADs)

A

during early phase 4 initiated by ↑[Ca2+]in and, consequently, ↑Na+/Ca2+ exchange
Na+/Ca2+ exchange is electrogenic: 3 Na+ move in, 1 Ca2+ out ↑ positive charge inside myocytes = depolarization
exchanger is called NCX, and it generates INCX

215
Q

circus rhythm

A

re-entry: means loop current flowing – also called “circus rhythm” can occur in circuits made up of every type of cell in heart

216
Q

Re-entrant arrhythmias require two conditions:

A

i) uni-directional conduction block in a functional circuit

ii) conduction time around the circuit > refractory period

217
Q

In many cases, arrhythmia is triggered by _______, but is maintained by:

A

afterdepolarizations

re-entry

218
Q

What underlies atrial flutter and fibrillation, torsades de pointes and ventricular fibrillation?

A

Re-entry

219
Q

An EAD or DAD initiates______, resulting in ____ _ ____ which can degenerate into ____ ____ and sudden cardiac death.

A

re-entry
torsades de pointes
ventricular fibrillation

220
Q

What can increase the frequency of occurrence of triggered afterdepolarizations even without LQT mutations?

A

heart failure

221
Q

What ↑ likelihood of triggered afterdepolarizations because Ca2+ influx is enhanced by β-adrenergic receptor activity?

A

↑ sympathetic tone (startle)

222
Q

What triggers EADs (via Ca2+ channel reactivation) or DADs (via NCX-dependent depolarization)?

A

Ca2+ entry during the prolonged QT interval

223
Q

A few (of the many) cardiovascular GPCRs include:

A

α & β adrenergic receptors, acetylcholine receptors, endothelin receptors, adenosine receptors, angiotensin II receptors.

224
Q

GPCR activation scheme

A
  1. agonist binds receptor
  2. GTP replaces GDP on α subunit of heterotrimeric G protein
  3. The switch causes dissociation of α and βγ G protein subunits.
  4. Both α and βγ can be active signals.
225
Q

GPCR deactivation

A

auto dephosphorylation of GTP to GDP by α subunit permits reassociation with βγ. Rebinding of G protein to receptor causes inactivation.

226
Q

Gq protein

A

PLC, PKC → increases intracellular Ca2+ causing vasoconstriction via α1 adrenergic receptor

227
Q

Gs protein

β1 and β2

A

stimulates adenylate cyclase, increases cAMP

increase chronotropy, inotropy, lusitropy, dromotropy
vasodilation via the β adrenergic receptor

228
Q

Gi/o protein

A

– inhibits adenylate cyclase, decreases cAMP

– releases βγ subunits decrease chronotropy via the muscarinic Ach receptor

229
Q

cAMP Signaling

A

o Sympathetic neurons innervate the heart, release NE, which binds to β adrenergic receptors to increase cAMP.

230
Q

Phosphodiesterases

A

counterpart to adenylate cyclase – breakdown cAMP (and cGMP) – help to establish intracellular signaling microdomains and specificity of signaling

231
Q

Protein Kinase A (PKA)

A

cAMP-dependent protein kinase. Major effector for cAMP signaling in heart. Phosphorylates target proteins. Phosphorylation changes protein function by changing conformation and charge.

232
Q

Molecular targets for sympathetic regulation of inotropy and lusitropy

A

Phospholamban (PLB), L-type Ca2+ channels (LTCCs), Ryanodine Receptors (RyRs), Troponin I (TnI)

233
Q

Describe the parasympathetic innervation of the ventricle

A

Parasympathetic innervation of the ventricle is sparse, thus there is little parasympathetic control of inotropy.

234
Q

How can you determine the “intrinsic heart rate”

A

Block M2 muscarinic AChR with atropine, Block β adrenergic receptors with propanolol. decreases heart rate by inhibiting tonic sympathetic activity. Revealed by block of both sympathetic and parasympathetic tone.

235
Q

Normally, does the parasympathetic or sympathetic tone predominate in the heart?

A

Normally the parasympathetic tone at rest is greater than the sympathetic tone.

236
Q

Molecular Targets for sympathetic stimulation of chronotropy

A

a) Hyperpolarization-activated cyclic nucleotide-gated channels (HCNs)
b) L-type Ca2+ channels and ryanodine receptors
c) Ryanodine receptors and Sodium-Calcium exchanger

237
Q

Phospholamban (PLB) response to phosphorylation by PKA

A

SERCA pumps Ca2+ back into SR. PLB is an INHIBITOR of SERCA. Phosphorylation of PLB by PKA causes it to dissociate from SERCA, thereby relieving the inhibition and increasing Ca2+ reuptake rate.

238
Q

Faster Ca2+ reuptake by SERCA has two effects on cardiac performance:

A

1) increases “lusitropy” – the ability of the heart to relax, and 2) increases inotropy by increasing SR Ca2+ load.

239
Q

L-type Ca2+ channels (LTCCs) response to phosphorylation by PKA

A

Activated by depolarization. influx of Ca2+ triggers a larger Ca2+ release from the SR via ryanodine receptors (CICR). Phosphorylation of L-type Ca2+ channels by PKA SLOWS inactivation, increasing the magnitude of the L-type Ca2+ current- elicits a larger release of Ca2+ from the SR
**increases inotropy.

240
Q

Ryanodine Receptors (RyRs) response to phosphorylation by PKA

A

PKA phosphorylates ryanodine receptors, making them more sensitive to Ca2+, so that less trigger Ca2+ is needed to evoke Ca2+ release.
*****increases inotropy.

241
Q

Troponin I (TnI) response to phosphorylation by PKA

A

Phosphorylation of TnI decreases the Ca2+ sensitivity of TnC= results in faster dissociation of Ca2+ from TnC,
** increases lusitropy
allows the heart to fill more quickly

242
Q

Effects of Sympathetic stimulation of Ryanodine receptors and Sodium-Calcium exchanger

A

increases SR Ca2+ load via PKA phosphorylation- increased SR Ca2+ load in nodal cells increases spontaneous Ca2+ release rate, contributes to the diastolic depolarization by activating inward current through the sodium-calcium exchanger (NCX).

243
Q

Molecular targets for parasympathetic inhibition of chronotropy

A

GIRKs, HCNs/L-type Ca2+ channels, and RYRs

244
Q

Parasympathetic regulation of pacemaking is mediated by release of ____from vagal nerve endings in the sinoatrial node.

A

acetylcholine (ACh)
ACh activates M2 muscarinic ACh receptors, which are coupled to the Gi/o heterotrimeric G protein. Activation of Gi/o releases two signals: the Gαi/o subunit and the Gβγ subunit complex.

245
Q

G-protein coupled inwardly-rectifying K+ (GIRKs)

A

The Gβγ subunit of the Gi/o heterotrimeric G protein binds to GIRK channels, activates IKACh current. IKACh stabilizes the membrane potential near the Ek, dampening excitation, slowing the spontaneous firing frequency. This appears to be the primary mechanism for parasympathetic slowing of heart rate.

246
Q

primary mechanism for parasympathetic slowing of heart rate.

A

G-protein coupled inwardly-rectifying K+ (GIRKs)

247
Q

Parasympathetic mechanism through HCNs, L-type Ca2+ channels, and ryanodine receptors

A

Gαi/o subunit inhibits adenylate cyclase, reducing intracellular cAMP. reduction in inward current via HCN channels, L-type Ca2+ channels, and RyR-NCX.

248
Q

Differences between smooth muscle and striated muscle

A

o VSMCs= small mononucleate cells, electrically coupled via gap junctions.
o Smooth, not striated because myofilaments NOT arranged in sarcomeres in smooth muscle.
o Ca2+ release from the SR not essential for contraction in VSMCs. However, Ca2+ reuptake mechanisms are similar (SERCA and PLB are present).
o Rate of contraction slower in VSMCs, and contraction is sustained and tonic (vs. short duration in cardiac muscle).

249
Q

Smooth muscle contraction mechanism

A

o Mechanical stretching can cause contraction via the myogenic response
o Electrical depolarization can elicit contraction via activation of L-type Ca2+ channels. Different from striated muscle in that action potentials are not required; graded potentials are sufficient, and strength of contraction is proportional to stimulus intensity.
o Chemical stimulation by a number of neural and hormonal regulators (eg: NE, angiotensin II, vasopressin, endothelin, and thromboxane A2) can directly activate contraction.

250
Q

Contraction of VSMCs depends on phosphorylation of what structure

A

the myosin head.

251
Q

Ca2+ regulation of smooth vs. striated muscle contraction

A

Ca2+ regulation of smooth muscle contraction is via myosin thick filaments, whereas Ca2+ regulation of striated muscle contraction is via actin thin filaments. (smooth muscle does not have the Ca2+-sensitive troponin complex or tropomyosin).

252
Q

Steps in VSMC activation

A
  1. Ca2+ enters cytoplasm – from SR mainly, but also via voltage-gated Ca2+ channels on surface membrane.
  2. Ca2+ binds to Calmodulin (CaM)
  3. Ca2+-CaM binds to Myosin Light Chain Kinase (MLCK) to activate it.
  4. Activated MLCK phosphorylates the light chain of myosin (myosin head), which permits cross bridge cycling to occur.
  5. Contraction halted by dephosphorylation of myosin light chain by Myosin Light Chain Phosphatase (MLCP).
253
Q

What effect does cAMP have on smooth muscles?

A

cAPM causes relaxation of vascular smooth muscle cells
(contrast to effect of cAMP in cardiac myocytes, where it promotes contraction via PKA). In smooth muscle, PKA phosphorylates myosin light chain kinase to inhibit its activity, and thus reduce VSMC contraction.

254
Q

The vasculature is primarily under _____ innervation

A

sympathetic innervation of the vasculature (relatively little parasympathetic innervation)

255
Q

_____stimulation generally causes vasoconstriction

A

Sympathetic

256
Q

Sympathetic stimulation causes ____ of VSMCs, independent of membrane depolarization.

A

contraction

257
Q

Neural control of vasoconstriction

A

Recall that Gαq activates phospholipase C (PLC), an enzyme that produces diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol trisphosphate (IP3). IP3 activates IP3 receptors on the sarcoplasmic reticulum of VSMCs. IP3Rs are intracellular Ca2+ release channels, which are similar to ryanodine receptors. Activation by IP3 opens IP3Rs causing Ca2+ release from the SR into the cytoplasm. This increase in intracellular Ca2+ causes VSMC contraction and thus vasoconstriction.

258
Q

Hyperpolarization-activated cyclic nucleotide-gated channels (HCNs)

A

“pacemaker channels”- produce cardiac funny current (If), an inward (depolarizing) current at diastolic (hyper polarized) potentials. Sympathetic stimulation of sinoatrial cells causes an increase in cAMP. cAMP binds to HCN channels to shift the voltage dependence of activation, making the channels MORE LIKELY TO OPEN–>more inward current–> faster diastolic depolarization.

259
Q

Is sympathetic innervation equal in all vascular beds?

A

NO- not equal in all vascular beds. Abundant in skin and kidneys (so that sympathetic stimulation decreases blood flow). Sparse in cerebral and coronary circulation; thus sympathetic activation reduces blood flow to skin without compromising blood flow to the brain and heart.

260
Q

baroreceptor reflex

A

Fast (minute-to-minute) neural mechanism for control of blood pressure: acute, short term effect that plays little role in long term regulation of blood pressure Baroreceptors adapt to prolonged changes in blood pressure by simply resetting to the new level over a time course of minutes to hours. This is useful because the feedback mechanism is preserved even in hypertension. However, sensitivity of the baroreceptor reflex decreases in hypertension and aging, so there is less feedback response to changes in blood pressure.

261
Q

Baroreceptors

A

pressure-sensitive NEURONS in the aortic arch and carotid sinus that respond to stretch of arterial walls by increasing their firing rate. This stretch sensitivity is conferred by mechanosensitive ion channels (NOT voltage-gated channels). eNaCs open in response to mechanical stimulation and the Na+ current depolarizes the neurons–>APs
They project to the sensory area of the “cardiovascular control center” in the brainstem. The CV control center integrates signals from baroreceptors. Output areas of the CV center project sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers to the heart and sympathetic fibers to the vasculature.

262
Q

Low Pressure Baroreceptors

A

o In atria and vena cavae (NOT arteries).
o Respond to changes in venous pressure by changing firing rate
o Afferents project via vagus nerve, efferents primarily innervate the sinoatrial node to control heart rate.
o Low pressure baroreceptors mediate the “Bainbridge reflex”- stretch of the atria causes an increase in heart rate.

263
Q

Peripheral and Central Chemoreceptors

A

found in aortic and carotid bodies, respond to changes in arterial PO2 and PCO2. They are primarily involved in control of respiration, but they also project to cardiovascular control center to regulate the heart and vasculature, such that low PO2/high PCO2 results in increased sympathetic output (thus sparing O2 delivery to heart and brain).
o Other chemoreceptors in the heart respond to ischemia to transmit the sensation of angina.
o Central chemoreceptors are found in the medulla, and increase cerebral blood flow in response to ischemia.

264
Q

What is the primary mechanism by which flow in a capillary bed is matched to the metabolic demand of the tissue it perfuses?

A

vasoactive metabolites

265
Q

Vasoactive metabolites include:

A

o decreased PO2
o increased PCO2/ decreased pH
o increased K+
o increased adenosine

266
Q

Adenosine

A

produced by hydrolysis of ATP. In VSMCs, binds to A2 purinergic receptors, which are GPCRs that are coupled to Gs (the stimulatory G protein that activates adenylate cyclase). Thus, adenosine increases cAMP levels in VSMCs —> vasodilation by inhibition of myosin light chain kinase.

267
Q

Myogenic response (autoregulation)

A

Intrinsic feedback mechanism to maintain constant flow despite changes in pressure (independent of metabolic demand).
o Example: postural change
Stretch causes VMSC contraction via stretch-activated channels. Inward Ca2+ current through Trp channels causes vasoconstriction, also depolarizes the VSMC, thereby further increasing intracellular Ca2+ via L-type Ca2+ channels.

268
Q

Nitric oxide

A

(a gas) potent vasodilator produced in vascular endothelium by the enzyme nitric oxide synthase.
o NO = free radical, highly reactive & labile, ½ life 10-60 s
o Readily oxidized. Oxidizing agents reduce NO lifetime, so reduce potency of vasodilatory response.
o Short t1/2 means LOCAL response.
o Basal release of NO helps set resting vascular tone (decrease NO = increase BP)
o Agonist-stimulated release = MAJOR physiological mechanism for vasodilation.
o NO = anti-atherosclerotic
o NO is decreased in hypertensive patients
o Nitric oxide synthase – highly susceptible to CV disease risk factors (eg: oxidative stress, compounds in cigarette smoke)

269
Q

What produces NO and where does it act?

A

vascular endothelial cells produce NO and it acts on vascular smooth muscle cells. This is an example of “paracrine” signaling.

270
Q

NO mechanism in VSMCs

A

NO activates guanylate cyclase, producing cGMP. cGMP activates Protein Kinase G (PKG), which reduces intracellular Ca2+ via activation of SERCA and inhibition of L-type Ca2+ channels (among other targets). The decreased [Ca2+]I causes relaxation of the VSMC (vasodilation).

271
Q

Endothelin system

A

o Endothelin = potent vasoconstrictor produced by vascular endothelium
o peptide, synthesized from precursors with Endothelin Converting Enzyme (ECE) being the rate-limiting step.
o Endothelin binds to ET receptors on VSMCs. ET receptors that are primarily coupled to Gq and so increase intracellular Ca2+ levels, which results in vasoconstriction.
o Natural counterpart to Nitric Oxide

272
Q

Renin

A

proteolytic enzyme released into the circulation by the juxtaglomerular (JG) cells (adjacent to renal glomerulus).
cleaves angiotensinogen to angiotensin I (AI), another inactive precursor.

273
Q

Renin release is stimulated by:

A

1) sympathetic stimulation of JG cells

2) decreased blood pressure in the renal artery, and 3) decreased Na+ reabsorption in the kidney.

274
Q

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE)

A

Cleaves Angiotensin I to form the active peptide, Angiotensin II (AII), which is a potent vasoconstrictor.

275
Q

Direct effect of Angiotensin II

A

systemic vasoconstriction via binding to GPCRs on VSMCs

276
Q

Indirect effects of Angiotensin II

A

1) stimulates sympathetic activity (thus more vasoconstriction)
2) stimulates Aldosterone release from adrenal cortex
3) stimulates release of endothelin from vascular endothelium (= more vasoconstriction)
4) stimulates release of ADH from the pituitary

277
Q

Aldosterone

A

a steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex. It acts on receptors in the kidney collecting ducts to promote reabsorption of Na+ and water. This increases blood volume, and thus increases blood pressure.

278
Q

Anti-Diuretic Hormone (ADH, Arginine Vasopressin)

A

o Peptide hormone formed in hypothalamus, released by pituitary in response to hypovolemia, hypotension, high osomolarity, Angiotensin II, and sympathetic stimulation.
o Major role: Binds to receptors in kidney and increases water reabsorption.
o Minor role: can also bind to receptors in vasculature to cause vasoconstriction.

279
Q

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

A

o Vasodilator released by atria (more right than left) = endocrine function of heart.
o long-term regulation of Na+ and water balance, blood volume, and arterial pressure.
o Secretion stimulated by mechanical stretch of atria.
o In kidney, ANP increases glomerular filtration rate and increases secretion of Na+ and water.
o In vasculature, ANP is a vasodilator, mechanism similar to NO, but longer lasting.
o In adrenal gland, ANP inhibits release of aldosterone and renin.

280
Q

Natriuretic

A

Natriuretic = sodium excretion.

281
Q

The junctional SR contains which kind of Ca2+ channel?

A

ryanodine receptor (RyR).

282
Q

Which required the presence of external Ca2+ to contract- skeletal or cardiac muscle?

A

Cardiac muscle requires the presence of external calcium to contract, while skeletal muscle does not.

283
Q

CaV1.2 is present in _____ muscle

CaV1.1 is present in _____ muscle

A

CaV1.2 is present in CARDIAC muscle

CaV1.1 is present in SKELETAL muscle

284
Q

Where is the SERCA2 pump located?

A

SERCA2 pump located in longitudinal SR (2 Ca2+ per cycle)

285
Q

calsequestrin

A

A Ca2+ buffer that is low affinity, high capacity in the termini cisternae of the SR

286
Q

Why does the SERCA2 pump dominate the process of removing Ca2+ from the cytosol?

A

since SR surrounds each myofibril; requires less energy since VSR≈0.

287
Q

The NCX sodium/calcium exchanger exchanges __Na for __ Ca. What direction does it run?

A

3 Na+ for 1Ca2+
The NCX exchanger can run in either direction depending on the current membrane potential and the concentration gradients of the ions

288
Q

Consider the NCX exchanger. A sudden increase in [Ca]i would result in what?

A

A net INWARD current as Ca2+ was pushed out so that Na+ could come in. 3Na+/1Ca2+ would depolarize the cell overall

289
Q

calcium-dependent inactivation (CDI)

A

the L-type Ca2+ channel undergoes a form of inactivation that depends on the concentration of Ca2+ near the cytoplasmic side of the channel. if the amount of Ca2+ in the SR (and thus the amount released via RyR2) increases, greater CDI causes less Ca2+ to enter via the L-type channel.

290
Q

Norepinephrine released by sympathetic nerve terminals and circulating epinephrine act to:

A
  1. Increase Heart Rate (positive chronotropy) by raising the firing rate of pacemaker cells in the SA node.
  2. Alter propagation through the conduction pathways
  3. Increase Contractile Force (positive inotropy)
  4. Increase Rate of Relaxation (positive lusitropy)
291
Q

Four important targets for PKA in myocardium are:

A
  • The L-type Ca2+ channel
  • RyR2
  • Phospholamban (PLB)
  • Troponin
292
Q

Timothy Syndrome

A

syncope, cardiac arrhythmias and sudden death. patients display intermittent hypoglycemia, immune deficiency and cognitive abnormalities including autism. de novo mutations in CaV1.2 (the principle subunit of the L-type Ca2+ channel), which is consistent with the multi-system nature of the syndrome.
**Prolonged Q-T intervals (indicate prolonged ventricular AP) and episodes of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia.

293
Q

Brugada Syndrome (aka Sudden Unexplained Death Syndrome)

A

Heterogenous group of mutations that appear to cause a large reduction in the magnitude of the L-Type Ca2+ current.
**Shortened QT interval

294
Q

Catecholaminergic Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia (CPVT)

A

do not display ECG abnormalities at rest, but do display abnormalities upon exercise or infusion of catecholamines. Ca2+ “leak”
RYR2 or CasQ2 mutation
+
activation of B-adrenergic receptors
= aberrant leak/release of Ca2+ NOT triggered by L-type Ca2+ channels. Rather, it takes place after repolarization.
Leads to arrhythmias.

295
Q

____ is a class 1C anti-arrhythmic that may be used to treat CPVT

A

Flecainide may prevent tachycardia (blocks sodium channels)

296
Q

Heart failure

A

inability of hear to pump blood forward at a sufficient rate to meet metabolic needs of body (FORWARD failure) or the ability to do so only if the cardiac filling pressures are abnormally high (BACKWARD failure)

297
Q

Basic components of HF

A

LOW FLOW resulting from poor forward blood flow

CONGESTION resulting from increased filling pressures/backward buildup of pressure (often a response to low flow)

298
Q

Inotropy

A

contractility, which is based on hormonal influences like catecholamines

299
Q

A loss of contractility from weak/damaged myocardium is consistent with _____ failure

A

systolic

300
Q

Systolic dysfunction’s hallmark is…

A

a decreased ejection fraction. A problem with the SQUEEZE-decreased contraction and decreased inotropy
HFrEF

301
Q

A stiff/noncompliant heart is consistent with ______ failure

A

diastolic, affecting the preload

decreased SV and decreased inotropy

302
Q

The impaired filling of diastolic HF increases/decreases lusitropy

A

decreases lusitropy

303
Q

The hallmark of Diastolic dysfunction is…

A

Normal ejection fraction

HFpEF

304
Q

Under normal circumstances, the right ventricle pumps the same amount of blood as the left ventricle, but it does so against much _____ ______

A

lower pressures. Overall, the right ventricle does much less work so a normal RV is a thin-walled structure

305
Q

In right sided heart failure, stress to the RV can cause it to fail to adequately pump blood through the lungs, which causes:

A

decreased circulating blood flow (forward RV HF)

increased venous pressure (backward RV HF)

306
Q

Primary causes of right heart failure

A

Left heart failure
Lung disease (called “for pulmonale” when primary lung disease causes HF)
RV volume overload (tricuspid regurg)
damage to myocardium

307
Q

Two fundamental parts to the pathophysiology of HF

A

decreased cardiac output and increased filling pressures.

308
Q

The “solution” of the body that works for short term gain but longterm loss (neurohormonal activation)

A

a decrease in CO causes adrenergic ANS activation to increased HR, vasoconstriction.

RAAS activation leads to increased sodium retention and an increase in blood volume.

Chronic supranormal fill in pressure can impair LV squeeze and cause ventricular stiffness (systolic and or diastolic HF)

309
Q

What would you see in a Frank Starling graph of heart failure compared to normal ventricular function?

A

The curve would be shifted downward in the case of heart failure

310
Q

Why is chronic compensation via Frank-Starling a bad thing in HF?

A

In order to preserve SV, EDP is increased significantly

311
Q
How does the body compensate for low CO through the following factors:
-Heart Rate
Stroke volume:
-contractility
-preload
A

-Heart Rate: tachycardia
Stroke volume:
-contractility: hypertrophy and dilation
-preload: Na+/fluid retention

312
Q

If neurohormonal response can normally be used to adjust CO, why does chronic neurohormonal activation PROMOTE heart failure?

A

adrenergic and RAAS activation increase CO in the short term, but over time they

  • increase cardiac workload
  • increase metabolic demand
  • cause ventricular hypertrophy/dilation
  • cause myocardial damage/fibrosis
313
Q

Why does “HF beget HF” via remodeling?

A

chronic neurohormonal activation causes cardiac remodeling leading to hypertrophy, necrosis, and fibrosis. These changes further decrease the contractile force and increase diastolic stiffness

314
Q

The symptoms of heart failure generally attributable to one of three overarching categories:

A

those resulting from:

  • decreased CO (symptoms of decreased organ perfusion)
  • increased Pulmonary venous pressure (left sided)
  • increased central venous pressure (right sided)
315
Q

Symptoms of “low flow” or low cardiac output in HF

A

Decreased organ perfusion:

  • cerebral: sleepiness, confusion
  • muscle: weakness/fatigue
  • gut: anorexia, cachexia
  • kidney: reduced urine output, renal dysfunction
316
Q

Symptoms of increased pulmonary venous pressure

left-sided

A

-breathlessness (dyspnea)
-Dyspnea on exertion
-Orthopnea
-paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
acute pulmonary edema

317
Q

Orthopnea

A

immediate SOB when lying flat, related to lost venous pooling in the legs. Immediate shift in volume to the R atrium, causing filling pressure to increase

318
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)

A
  • Delayed SOB that wakes patients from their sleep
  • patient classically gets out of bed to ambulate and relieve symptoms
  • Delayed shift in volume: mobilization of fluid from edema in tissue–>lymphatics and blood stream
319
Q

Symptoms of increased central venous pressure (right-sided)

A
  • peripheral edema
  • ascites
  • hepatic congestion
  • intestinal congestion (protein-losing enteropathy)
320
Q

NYHA functional class system for HF

A

I: asymptomatic
II: Symptomatic with moderate exertion
III: symptomatic with minimal exertion
IV: symptomatic at rest

321
Q

ACC/AHA HF stages

A

A: high risk but without structural heart disease or symptoms
B: Structural heart disease
C: Structural heart disease with prior or current symptoms of HF
D: Refractory heart failure requiring specialized interventions

322
Q

Describe the clinical course of heart failure:

A

non linear and progressive

323
Q

What might a pulmonary exam of someone with HF reveal?

A

rales
hypoxia
tachypnea
sitting bolt upright

324
Q

What might a cardiac exam of a patient with HF reveal?

A

gallops,
tachycardia,
low pulse pressure (systolic-diastolic) from low output- in LATE heart failure. Early on you would be more likely to see HTN

325
Q

What might an extremity exam of a patient with HF reveal?

A

cool extremities from low flow

326
Q

On physical exam, what systemic signs might you find if a patient has HF?

A

Jugular venous distention
hepato-jugular reflux
Edema
Hepatic congestion

327
Q

Jugular venous pressure approximates what?

A

central venous pressure and right atrial filling pressure

328
Q

Wave shape of JVP

A

Triphasic wave distinguishes it from carotid

329
Q

S3 is caused by what?

What type of HF is this commonly seen in?

A

rapid expansion of the ventricular walls

seen in HFrEF/dilated heart

330
Q

S4 is caused by what? What type of heart failure is it commonly seen in?

A

S4 is caused by atria contracting forcefully in an effort to overcome an abnormally STIFF or hypertrophic LV

331
Q

Co-exisiting conditions which predispose patients to heart failure:

A
  1. heart diseases: coronary, valve disease, HTN

2. Cardiac risk disorder: diabetes, renal failure

332
Q

Differential diagnosis for HF signs and symptoms

A

-pulmonary disease: COPD, asthma, pneumonia, PE, pulmonary HTN
-sleep apnea
-obesity
-deconditioning
-anemia
-renal failure
-hepatic failure
venous stasis/lymphadema
-depression

333
Q

Tests to diagnose HF

A

ECG, CBC, blood chemistry, BNP, chest x ray, CMR, coronary angiography, heart catheterization, exercise tests

334
Q

What would a patient’s chest x ray show if they have HFrEF?

A

enlarge cardiac silhouette, increased upper lobe vascular markings with acute decompensation

335
Q

Acute pulmonary edema

A

Acute intense shortness of breath that occurs when fluid retention/left atrial pressure overwhelms compensatory mechanisms (i.e. lymph)

336
Q

Natriuretic peptide (BNP)

A

B-type natriuretic is secreted by myocardium in response to ventricular stretch (measure of preload)

337
Q

Two assay can test for natriuretic peptides:

A

BNP (<100)
NT-proBNP: N terminus breakdown of BNP, inactive, longer half-life and equal to 6 times the [BNP]. Both increase with age and kidney failure. A low BNP makes HF unlikey

338
Q

What might be reasons for an elevated BNP other than heart failure?

A

sepsis, PE

339
Q

What are methods for imaging and measuring EF?

A

ultrasound (echocardiography), nuclear, MRI, CT

340
Q

Echocardiography provides information about:

A

LVEF, chamber size, LV wall thickness, measures of relaxation, valve anatomy/function, estimated filling pressures, estimated pulmonary pressure

341
Q

Advantages of an echocardiogram

A

real time, non-invasive, no radiation, relatively “inexpensive”

342
Q

Right-heart catheterization (Swan-Ganz catheter)

A

plastic catheter introduce into a major vein and then floated through the right heart into the pulmonary artery. Has a balloon to help carry it into the lungs. Balloon can occlude pulmonary artery for approximation of the left-sided filling pressure

343
Q

A PA catheter gives 2 major types of measurements:

A

Pressures (CVP/RA, RV, PA, PCWP)

Flow (Fick CO, thermodilution CO)

344
Q

Since catheters give information about pressure and flow, ____ can also be calculated

A

resistances

345
Q

Diuretics

A

Reverses fluid retention via Na+ loss. Can be used chronically and acutely. Most common HF therapy

346
Q

Classes of diuretics

A

loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics

347
Q

Side effects of diuretics

A

dehydration, hypokalemia, sulfa, tinnitis

348
Q

How do diuretics treat volume overload?

A
increased salt and water excretion
decreased intravascular fluid volume
decreased venous congestion
=
decreased dyspnea and edema
349
Q

What does a diuretic do, as explained by a frank-starling curve

A

leftward shift on the flattened portion. Minima decrease in stroke volume but much lower ventricular EDP

350
Q

What type of HF has the most treatment options?

A

HFrEF

351
Q

Drugs to treat HFrEF (LVEF <40%)

A
-Diuretics (furosemide)
Beta Blockers
-ACEI/ARB
-Aldosterone antagonist
-Hydralazine/ISDN (vasodilators)
\+/- digoxin
352
Q

SIde effects of ACE inhibitors

A

hypostension, worsening renla function (afferent vasoconstriction) hyperkalemia, cough, angioedema

353
Q

Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (MRA)

A

spirolactone and eplerenone. Effect: block mineralocorticoid receptor. Side effects: hyperkalemia (monitoring) gynocomastia (spiro only)

354
Q

In terms of Beta Blockers,
The B1 blockade:
The a1 blockade:

A

-acts as a negative chronotrope and negative inotrope to slow HR, decrease arrhythmias, and decrease metabolic demand
a1- vasodilates

355
Q

Side effects of Beta blockers

A

“short term loss of long term gain”
-Negative inotrope causes:
fluid retention, hypotension, decreased cardiac output
-Broncoconstriction

356
Q

Aldosterone receptor blockade

A

hastens salt/water excretion

357
Q

Implanted cardioverter defibrillators

A

used for patients with LVEF <35% or prior dangerous heart rhythms. Abort sudden death from Vtach/fib

358
Q

Cardiac resynchronization Therapy

A
  • pacemakers with LV lead placed through coronary sinus
  • for patients with QRS duration >120msec
  • cause the LV lateral wall and septal wall to contract TOGETHER, producing amore efficient contraction and increased SV
  • usually placed with an ICD
359
Q

Treatment for chronic HFpEF

A

control risk factors : DM, HTN, obesity
Control volume with diuretics
control BP with vasodilators
control ventricular rate in patients with A fib

(ARBs and ACEIs don’t really help like in HFrEF)

360
Q

Treatment for acute (unstable) HFrEF

A
  • IV diuretics
  • Nitrates (if BP allows)
  • CPAP/BiPAP (if SOB)
  • Pressors (vasoconstricters)-if severely decreased CO and shock
361
Q

Treatment for Acute (unstable) HFpEF

A

IV diuretics
Nitrates (if BP allows)
CPAP/BiPAP

362
Q

Is a B-blocker good or bad for a patient with HF?

A

It depends.
GOOD-in a stable patient with low EF
BAD- patient in the ED in acute heart failure with shock

363
Q

When are IV inotropes used in cases of acute decompensated HF?

A

in cases of shock only (likely ICU) or if a patient is in hospice care to make them feel better for a short time

364
Q

Types of positive inotropic agents

A

Digoxin (PO) Na+/K+ exchange
Dobutamine (IV)- B-agonist (opposite of BB)
Milrinone (IV)-PDE inhibitor, effect similar to ^

365
Q

Clinical use of positive inotropic agent

A

Acute: IV to reverse shock (long term it may worsen remodeling)
Chronic: digoxin has no effect on mortality but helps with symptoms and hospitalizations

366
Q

In the short terms, positive inotropic agents improve _____, but in the long term, HF is worsened

A

contractility (and HR, CO)

367
Q

Can MRAs be used for HFpEF?

A

no, there was no difference in the peak VO2

368
Q

How can epigenetics be studied?

A

chromatin immunoprecipitation and PCR for the promoter of the gene of interest

369
Q

In terms of acetylation, who is the eraser and who is the writer?

A

writer: HAT
eraser: HDAC

370
Q

HDAC9

A

experimental evidence suggests that over expression of HDAC9 blocks cardiomyocyte hypertrophy. HDAC9 knockdown/knockout stimulates cardimyocyte hypertrophy

371
Q

HDAC 1 and 2

A

Inhibition of HDACs 1/2 Blocks Cardiac Hypertrophy In Vitro and In Vivo

372
Q

Overall function of the CNS

A

Homeostasis: Maintain stable internal environment amid changing external conditions Via widespread and complementary actions on organ systems in response to sensory stimuli

373
Q

ANS motor system is voluntary/involuntary and has specific/diffuse projections

A

ANS motor system is involuntary and is characterized by diffuse projections

374
Q

What does the ANS innervate?

A

smooth and cardiac muscle, gland cells

375
Q

Skeletal motor system is __synaptic, while ANS motor system is __synaptic

A

skeletal muscle is MONOsynaptic

ANS motor system is DIsynaptic

376
Q

Compared to somatic motor system, the ANS has very ____ action

A

slow. Somatic motor system has rapid action

377
Q

Nucleus of the solitary tract (in medulla): conveys ____ ____ ____

A

visceral sensory input

378
Q

What part of the brain conveys internal goals/states?

A

hypothalamus in the forebrain

379
Q

The ANS consists of 3 subdivisions:

A

Sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric

380
Q

What controls pupil dilation: sympathetic or parasympathetic?

A

both of them

381
Q

Preganglionic SYMPATHETIC neurons originate where?

A

in thoracic and lumbar spinal cord

382
Q

Where are sympathetic ganglia located?

A

near spinal cord

383
Q

Preganglionic PARASYMPATHETIC neurons originate where?

A

in brainstem and sacral spinal cord

384
Q

Where are the parasympathetic ganglia located?

A

Ganglia located near target organs

385
Q

Sympathetic and parasympathetic PREGANGLIONIC neurotransmitter is

A

Acetylcholine

386
Q

Postganglioninc neurotransmitter for the sympathetic nervous system

A

Norepinephrine (NE) and epinephrine

387
Q

Postganglioninc neurotransmitter for the parasympathetic nervous system

A

ACh

388
Q

ACh acts on two types of receptors:

A

nicotinic and muscarinic

389
Q

NE acts on two types of receptors:

A

α- and β-adrenergic

390
Q

ANS regulation of blood pressure

A

Sympathetic stimulation (via increased NE) – increases blood pressure

Parasympathetic stimulation (via increased ACh) – decreases blood pressure

391
Q

Sympathomimetic drugs

A

mimic sympathetic activation

Atropine: muscarinic (M2) antagonist in heart; increases heart rate

392
Q

Parasympathomimetic drugs

A

mimic parasympathetic activation

Propranolol: β-adrenergic (β1 and β2) antagonist in heart; decreases heart rate

393
Q

Humoral regulation of CV system

A

Hypothalamus controls release of hormones via the pituitary

394
Q

Vasopressin (aka ADH)

A

Released from posterior pituitary in response to low blood pressure detected by subfornical organ. Causes vasoconstriction

Acts on kidneys to increase water retention

395
Q

Adrenal medulla – functionally, a ____ ____

A

sympathetic ganglion

396
Q

How does the adrenal medulla affect heart rate?

A
  • Innervated by preganglionic sympathetic neurons
  • Releases norepinephrine and epinephrine into bloodstream
  • Widespread sympathomimetic effects (e.g., increased heart rate)
397
Q

Hypothalamus coordinates __ and___ responses

A

ANS

humoral

398
Q

The top 3 most common causes of heart failure are:

A

CAD, HTN, valve disease

399
Q

In a healthy person, _______ tone predominates by releasing ACh and controlling heart rate

A

parasympathetic

400
Q

In heart failure, there is an elevation of sympathetic tone. Why is this problematic?

A

HF symptoms (low pH, low PO2, low ATP, etc) tell the body to respond in a sympathetic way through NE. NE increases HR and contractility in response, and prolonged NE cause metabolic changes, fibrosis, and myocardial damage. That’s why BBs are useful in heart failure

401
Q

As HF gets worse, the body paradoxically produces more __, eliciting a GREATER sympathetic response

A

NE

402
Q

Why are nitrates used to treat heart failure?

A

Nitrates are NO donors, so they are vasodilators.

403
Q

Vasodilators used in treatment of HF

A
  1. Nitrates (HZ + ISDN)
  2. ACEIs
  3. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)
404
Q

:( effects of Angiotensin II

A

vasoconstriction, hypertrophy, fibrosis and apoptosis

Growth and remodeling

405
Q

Why can ACE inhibitors lead to hyperkalemia?

A

Angiotensin II saves Na+ at the expense of K+. When ANG II is inhibited, Na+ leaves with water and K+ can build up and cause hyperkalemia

406
Q

Laundry list of Ang II effects:

A
vasoconstriction
SNS activation
Increase aldosterone
Elevate vasopressin
Elevate endothelia
Elevate PAI-I/thrombosis
Superoxide production
Platelet aggregation
Collagen deposition
VSMC hypertrophy
Cardiomyocyte hypertorphy
elevation of cytokines
407
Q

Are there major differences between he ACE inhibitors?

A

No, only half life and potency. Enalapril is an oral prodrug: possible metabolism interaction

408
Q

Are 1st generation Beta Blockers used in HF?

A

No. Nonselective 1st generation BBs like propanolol are negative inotropic agents.

409
Q

Example of a 2nd generation BB

A

Metoprolol, a B1selective or “cardioselective” agent.

410
Q

Example of a 3rd generation BB

A

Carvedilol

411
Q

Explain how BBs Metoprolol and Carvedilol help treat heart failure

A

at the receptor level, they block B adrenergic receptors and reduce the adverse effects of NE on the heart, allowing it to recover and to undergo “reverse remodeling”

412
Q

B1 adrenergic receptors are mostly in the ____

B2 receptors are mostly in the ____

A

B1-heart (increase contraction)

B2- lungs and vasculature

413
Q

Why are Beta Blockers used to block NE in HF?

A

B1 and B2 act through AC, producing cAMP, activate PKA, induce CICR, increasing contraction and hypertrophy in the heart. Chronically, this sympathetic tone causes BAD remodeling, including apoptosis and remodeling

414
Q

What important factor about BB administration affects their effectiveness?

A

BBs must be up-titrated until they reach their target dose of mg/Kg of body weight.

415
Q

Do Beta blockers work immediately?

A

No, they take 3-6 mo for reverse remodeling to occur and to see an increase of EF. The decrease in mortality takes 3-6 months to show up