Test Questions 1 Flashcards
Which of the following would most likely be the focus of an object-relations therapist?
A communication skills training and facilitating catharsis
B paradoxical interventions and circular questioning
C helping the client identify introjects and providing support
D exploring intergenerational transmission processes and cognitive restructuring
The Correct Answer is “C”
There are a variety of object-relations theories and therapies based on them. However, most focus on how
introjects, or internalized images of significant others from the past, affect our current relationships and
functioning. In addition to helping clients identify introjects, an objects-relations therapist would be likely to
provide support and “re-parenting,” in order to help the client develop new, healthier introjects.
According to Holland, a highly differentiated person:
A is most flexible, possessing traits found in all six personality types.
B scores high on only one of the six personality types.
C scores high on two personality types that are on opposite sides of the personality hexagon.
D has the emotional maturity to effectively deal with many different personality types
The Correct Answer is “B”
Holland proposed that all behaviors, including career choice, are a function of personality and the social
environment. He distinguished between six personality types - realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising,
and conventional. A highly differentiated person would be someone who scored high on only one of the
personality types. Holland believed that high differentiation would best predict the outcome of a personality and occupational match.
According to Self Verification Theory, a person who believes that he dances poorly would prefer to be told by
friends:
A “You are a pretty bad dancer”
B “You are not a bad dancer”
C “You should become a professional dancer”
D nothing about dancing
The Correct Answer is “A”
Self Verification theory proposes that people need and seek confirmation of their self-concept, regardless of
whether their self-concept is positive or negative. Thus, people prefer to be right rather than happy. According to
this theory, a person who dances poorly would prefer to be told so (assuming the other’s evaluation matches the
person’s self evaluation).
According to recent outcome studies, which of Yalom’s therapeutic factors is the most direct indicator of
group outcome success as well as growth within the individual group members?
A catharsis
B collusion
C cohesion
D universality
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. Recent studies indicate cohesiveness in a group, characterized by warmth and acceptance, self-disclosure and risk-taking behavior, freedom to express feelings openly (both positive and negative) is most associated with group member improvement and outcome success. As Yalom described, the therapeutic factors do not occur in isolation - they are interdependent and group cohesion serves as a necessary precondition for the other factors.
Early confrontation, later positive alliance, later affective confrontation and fewer leader interventions in later
sessions are also associated with successful group outcomes. (See: Burlingame, G.M., MacKenzie K.R., Strauss B. (2004). Small group treatment: evidence for effectiveness and mechanisms of change. In: Lambert, M., editor. Bergin and Garfield’s handbook of psychotherapy and behavior change. 5th ed. New York: John Wiley and Sons Inc, 647-96.)
A psychologist who obtained a Ph.D. in experimental psychology wants to change her specialty to clinical
psychology. To meet the requirements set forth by the General Guidelines for Providers, the psychologist must
A complete an internship in clinical psychology under the supervision of a professional clinical psychologist.
B complete appropriate doctoral-level classes and supervised post-doctoral training.
C obtain a Ph.D. in clinical psychology from an accredited college or university.
D meet her state’s requirements for licensure in clinical psychology.
The Correct Answer is “B”
The licensing exam often contains questions such as these, and in approaching them, you should remember these buzzwords: training AND experience. Specifically, the Specialty Guidelines state that “professional psychologists who wish to qualify as clinical psychologists meet the same requirements with respect to subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral and postdoctoral education and training in clinical psychology.” Choice “B” is the only one that includes an element of both training and experience, and is therefore the best answer. Moreover, unlike as stated by choice “C”, a second Ph.D. would not be necessary – doctoral level coursework in clinical psychology would be sufficient to meet the academic training aspect of this requirement
Children raised by parents who are very demanding but warm are likely to be highly: A neurotic B oppositional C insecure D resilient
The Correct Answer is “D”
Authoritative parents are very demanding but also warm and responsive to their children. Children raised by
authoritative parents tend be more mature and have better coping skills, or resilience to life stressors, than
children raised with other parenting styles.
The WAIS-III subtest which is least affected by normal aging processes is A comprehension. B similarities. C arithmetic. D vocabulary.
The Correct Answer is “D”
This is a variation on the question about the “classic aging pattern” on IQ. The accepted finding is that as we get older, certain cognitive functions begin to fail, particularly those which rely on the neurochemical substructure of
the nervous system. Thus our speed is not as quick, our motor skills show deficits, etc. But cognitive abilities
relying on crystallized processes, such as long-term memory, show little change. Hence, of the alternatives listed here, vocabulary skills would show the least age-related decline. We tend to retain our capacity for language throughout the lifespan.
An individual imagining others engaging in a variety of alternative or desirable behaviors is using the technique known as: A overcorrection B simple modeling C covert sensitization D covert modeling
The Correct Answer is “D”
D. Covert modeling is based on its overt, simple modeling equivalent. Covert modeling involves the learning of new behaviors or the altering of existing behaviors by imagining scenes of others interacting with the
environment. Overcorrection (a.) involves an individual consistently being reinforced for engaging in behaviors
other than the target behavior during a predetermined period of time. Covert sensitization (c.) uses counterconditioning in imagination to reduce or eliminate a target behavior. An individual imagines he/she is
engaging in the undesirable behavior and then imagines an aversive consequence for doing so.
Which of the following is most true about individuals with Moderate Mental Retardation?
A They constitute 3-4% of the population of mentally retarded individuals.
B They can reach up to about a sixth grade level in academic skills.
C They can be trained to perform unskilled work in the competitive job market under close supervision.
D They acquire little or no communicative speech during the pre-school period.
The Correct Answer is “C”
Individuals with moderate retardation have an IQ between 35-40 and 50-55. According to the DSM, as adults, they can contribute to their own support by performing unskilled or semi-skilled tasks under supervision – in
sheltered workshops or in the competitive job market. They constitute 10% of the mentally retarded population,
they are unlikely to progress beyond the second grade level in academic skills, and they can talk or learn to
communicate during the preschool years.
Continuing Education Credits (CE Credits) earned through an APA approved sponsor means that the program is: A sanctioned by APA. B endorsed by APA. C approved by APA. D the responsibility of the sponsor.
The Correct Answer is “D”
An organization is approved by the APA to sponsor continuing education programs. The sponsor then becomes responsible for each program. The APA periodically asks for reports from the sponsor, but the specific program is not endorsed, sanctioned, or approved by the APA. Only the overall sponsorship is approved by the APA.
While attending a staff meeting at a mental health facility where you work, you learn that one of your
colleagues, a psychologist, is behaving in an unethical manner toward one of her patients. Despite being advised
to do so by several members of the staff, she states that she will not change her behavior. What should you do in
this situation?
A Approach the colleague individually and urge her to change her behavior; if she refuses, report her to the
appropriate ethics committee.
B Approach the colleague individually and urge her to change her behavior; if she refuses, recommend to the
director of the facility that she be fired.
C Report the colleague to the appropriate ethics committee immediately, since she has already stated that she will not change her behavior.
D Announce in the staff meeting that you want to “go on the record” as noting that the psychologist is behaving
unethically.
The Correct Answer is “A”
The Ethics Code states that you should deal with ethical violations by another psychologist in an informal manner,
by bringing it to the attention of the psychologist. A report to an ethics committee should be made when the
attempt at informal resolution has failed or if the violation is not amenable to informal resolution. Thus, you
should speak to the psychologist privately and report her to an ethics committee if she still refuses to change her
behavior. You may have thought that, since the psychologist has already stated her refusal to behave ethically, you should go ahead and report her, without bothering to talk to her. This actually makes sense, but the Ethics Code requires that you attempt an informal attempt at resolution first. A staff meeting is a formal setting, and
does not personally give you the opportunity to attempt an informal resolution.
Of the following, the highest rate of suicide occurs among A married persons. B never-married persons. C widowed persons. D divorced persons.
The Correct Answer is “D”
Marriage, especially when reinforced with children, appears to lessen the risk of suicide. Among married people, the rate of suicide is about 11 per 100,000. This rate is higher for single, never-married persons (about 22 per 100,000), even higher for widows (24 per 100,000), and higher still for divorced individuals (40 per 100,000).
When performing cognitive tests, most older adults are able to best perform at what time of day: A morning B early afternoon C late afternoon D evening
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. May and Hasher (1998) referred to the beneficial effect of matching task demands and preferred time of day as
the “synchrony effect.” Acknowledging age and individual differences in arousal patterns, research has found there are large differences in circadian cycles between young and older adults. The optimal time of day for successful completion of certain cognitive tasks for young children and individuals in late adulthood is primarily
morning. There appears to be a shift beginning about the age of 12 away from morningness towards the peak
arousal and task performance levels for young adults to the evening. Eventually, the life-span trend for time of
day preference appears to come full circle. The research shows that synchrony between individual preferences and the time of testing is a powerful effect and that only highly practiced responses are invariant across the day - all others are affected. It is noted that attentional regulation over both incoming information and outgoing responses are particularly vulnerable to time of day effects. (See: May, C. P., & Hasher, L. (1998). Synchrony effects in inhibitory control over thought and action. Journal of Experimental Psychology: Human Perception and Performance, 24(2), 363-379. See: Hasher, L., Goldstein D., & May, C.P. (in press). It’s about time: Circadian rhythms, memory and aging. In C. Izawa & N. Ohta (Eds.), Human learning and memory: Advances in theory and application. Mahwah, NJ: Lawrence Erlbaum Associates, Inc.)
In regard to sensory memory, information is retained for
A less than two seconds.
B less than twenty seconds.
C a few minutes, if using rehearsal techniques.
D an indefinite amount of time, but it is difficult to access.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Sensory memory holds information from the senses for a very brief period of time–generally less than two
seconds. It is not held any longer than this, even with rehearsal techniques (answer C). While some researchers
hypothesize that information is retained in long-term memory indefinitely but may be difficult to access, this is
not a characteristic of sensory memory.
The Stroop Test is commonly used to assess: A posture B contralateral neglect C visual problems D attention problems
The Correct Answer is “D”
John Stroop, a psychologist, developed the Stroop Color Word Test in 1932 as a screening device for frontal lobe
damage. The test involves the presentation of a list of color words (blue, green, red, and so forth) with each word printed in colored ink, but not in the color denoted by the word (for example, the word “yellow” is printed in
blue, green or red ink). The participant’s task is to name the ink color in which each word is printed as quickly as
possible. A correct response requires the inhibition of reading the color name. Patients with left frontal lesions are often unable to inhibit reading the words and thus are impaired at this task. Others with attention deficits,
including those with ADHD, also perform more poorly on the Stroop Test compared to those without attention
deficits
Which of the following is likely to be most effective for alleviating chronic pain?
A biofeedback
B hypnotherapy
C relaxation and coping skills training
D autogenic training and contingency management
The Correct Answer is “C”
Most experts advocate a comprehensive treatment approach for chronic pain. Their recommended treatments involve teaching the patient a number of coping skills designed to alleviate pain and improve the patient’s feelings of control. See, for example, H. Philips, The effects of behavioral treatment on chronic pain, Behaviour Research and Therapy, 1987, 25, 365-377.
In schizophrenia, haldol is used primarily to treat: A negative symptoms B apathy C psychotic symptoms D blunted affect
The Correct Answer is “C”
Antipsychotic drugs such as haldol (butyrophenones) are more effective for alleviating the positive symptoms of
schizophrenia: hallucinations, delusions, disordered thought, and agitation, than the negative symptoms: apathy, blunted affect, autism, and social withdrawal. In clients with schizophrenia, antipsychotics induce a “neuroleptic state” characterized by emotional quieting (decreased hallucinations and delusions), psychomotor slowing (less agitation, impulsivity, and aggressiveness), and affective indifference (lower arousability and lack of concern with the external environment).
In terms of interviews as selection techniques, which of the following is most consistent with the research?
A
Panel interviews generally have the highest levels of validity, and they are especially valid when an average
(versus consensus) rating is derived.
B
When interviewers are given biodata information about an interviewee prior to the interview, interviewers give
less credence to interview information when the biodata is not supportive of a decision to hire than when the
biodata is very supportive of a decision to hire.
C
Although the research is inconsistent, the best conclusion about interviews is that future-oriented (situational)
interviews are more valid than past-oriented (behavior description) interviews regardless of whether the interview
is structured or unstructured.
D
One of the difficulties with interviews, even when they are structured, is that they are highly susceptible to gender
biases, especially when the interviewee and the interviewer are of different genders.
The Correct Answer is “B”
There is some evidence that interviewers place less importance on interview information when biodata is not very favorable and more importance when it is supportive of a hiring decision. Apparently, a good interview cannot
make up for a bad history, but a good history can be supported or canceled out by the results of the interview.
Classical Adlerian psychotherapy:
A
provides six stages as a systematic procedure
B
provides twelve phases as a teaching guideline
C
is a progression through twelve stages
D
is a creatively practiced art without stages
The Correct Answer is “C”
Classical Alderian psychotherapy is characterized as a diplomatic, warm, empathetic, and Socratic style of
treatment. For teaching purposes, Adlerian psychotherapy can be divided into twelve stages, and within each stage, cognitive, affective, and behavioral changes are gradually advanced. The stages reflect progressive strategies for awakening a client’s underdeveloped feeling of community. There are six different phases in this psychotherapy and within these phases there can be up to three stages. These are not rigid, systematized steps as therapy is considered a creative practice and unique for the individual. (See: Stein, H. (1988). Twelve Stages of Creative Adlerian Psychotherapy. Individual Psychology, 44, 138-143.)
You have been working with a couple in marital therapy for four months, with slow but notable progress.
After a session one day, the wife pulls you aside and asks to make some individual appointments with you. You
should
A
refer her to another therapist.
B
wait until the completion of marital therapy and then see her individually.
C
terminate with the couple and see the woman individually.
D
encourage her to discuss any relevant issues within the context of marital therapy.
The Correct Answer is “A”There is a potential for role conflict when a client in conjoint therapy asks you to see him or her individually. It’s possible that there may be a conflict between your considerations as a couple’s therapist and as an individual therapist. Thus, although your actions would vary depending on the parameters of the individual case, the best answer in light of the information we have is to refer the woman to another therapist for individual therapy.
Functional nocturnal enuresis
A
is associated with some physical medical disorder.
B
most often occurs during REM sleep and is associated with dreaming.
C
is not found in children above 12 years of age.
D
is not associated with any particular stage of sleep.
The Correct Answer is “D”
If the wetting is associated with a physical cause, then it is not diagnosed as “functional” enuresis. This disorder is
not associated with dreaming REM-sleep as one might expect. It actually is not significantly correlated with any
particular sleep stage, although it is most likely to occur during the first third of the night. And, while it is less
common in older than in younger children, it does exist in older children and adolescents.
Raising the cutoff score on a predictor test would have the effect of A increasing true positives B decreasing false positives C decreasing true negatives D decreasing false negatives.
The Correct Answer is “B”A simple way to answer this question is with reference to a chart such as the one displayed under the topic
“Criterion-Related Validity” in the Test Construction section of your materials. If you look at this chart, you can
see that increasing the predictor cutoff score (i.e., moving the vertical line to the right) decreases the number of
false positives as well as true positives (you can also see that the number of both true and false negatives would
be increased).
You can also think about this question more abstractly by coming up with an example. Imagine, for instance, that
a general knowledge test is used as a predictor of job success. If the cutoff score on this test is raised, fewer
people will score above this cutoff and, therefore, fewer people will be predicted to be successful. Another way of
saying this is that fewer people will come up “positive” on this predictor. This applies to both true positives and
false positives.
The research has shown that, in the treatment of nicotine dependence, adding a behavioral intervention to
nicotine replacement therapy
A
has little or no effect in terms of either short- or long-term abstinence.
B
has little additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but does improve long-term abstinence.
C
has some additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but doesn’t improve long-term abstinence.
D
has a substantial effect on both short- and long-term abstinence.
The Correct Answer is “B”
This question is difficult since the research on this issue has been inconsistent. However, there is evidence that a
combined treatment (behavioral intervention plus nicotine replacement therapy) is best, especially in terms of
long-term abstinence (abstinence for six months or more). See, for example, R. C. Klesges et al., Smoking
cessation: A successful behavioral/pharmacologic interface, Clinical Psychology Review, 1996, 16(6), 479-496.
Bill comes to session and reports that for the last five months, his wife and employer have been poisoning his
food. In addition, his next door neighbor has assisted them by switching lunch boxes with him. The local DJ is in
on the scheme–telling him over the radio to “eat right to stay fit.” The appropriate diagnosis is
A
Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type.
B
Schizophrenia, Disorganized Type.
C
Brief Psychotic Disorder.
D
food poisoning.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Bill’s symptoms meet the criteria for Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type. He has one or more delusions and auditory
hallucinations. He does not have the symptoms of Disorganized Type (answer B), which requires a prominence of disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, and flat affect. His symptoms have lasted for more than one month
which rules out Brief Psychotic Disorder (answer C).
A patient complains that she cannot stop thinking about killing her child, though she has no intention of doing so. The patient is depressed about these thoughts and occasionally has a drink in an attempt to escape from them, though this attempt is usually unsuccessful. The most likely diagnosis for this person is A Major Depressive Disorder. B Substance Dependence. C Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. D Delusional Disorder.
The Correct Answer is “C”
This person’s thought seems to qualify as an obsession. Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts,
impulses, or images that are experienced as intrusive and cause marked distress. A person with obsessions
attempts to ignore, suppress, or neutralize them and recognizes that they are a product of one’s own mind.
Recurrent obsessions or compulsions are the defining feature of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. A person with
this disorder may be depressed about it and may use alcohol or other substances in an attempt to neutralize his or her distress.
From the perspective of rational emotive therapy (RET), emotional disturbances are maintained primarily by A self-indoctrination. B environmental consequences. C social pressure. D denial
The Correct Answer is “A”
Ellis, the founder of RET, viewed behavioral disorders as stemming from both biological predisposition and early
life experiences but argued that their maintenance was due primarily to self-indoctrination. Specifically, during
early childhood, children tend to internalize the critical attitude of their parents and then perpetuate that attitude
as they grow older.
27. What percent of individuals diagnosed of Panic Disorder also have Agoraphobia in community samples according to the DSM-IV-TR? A less than 10% B 15-25% C 33-50% D 50-66%
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. The DSM-IV-TR reports prevalence rates for Panic Disorder of 1 to 2% in community samples and states that
“approximately one-third to one-half of individuals diagnosed with Panic Disorder in community samples also
have Agoraphobia” (p. 436).
- In industrial settings, administration of a trainability test would be done for the purposes of determining
whether
A the examinee is likely to do well on the job.
B the examinee is likely to do well on a job sample.
C the examinee will be satisfied on the job.
D the examinee is suited to train others.
The Correct Answer is “B”
A trainability test is designed to determine whether or not potential employees are suitable for training. It is not
designed to be directly predictive of how well the person will do on the job itself. Instead, it would more directly
indicate how well the person would do on a job sample, which is likely to be a part of the training sessions. In
fact, trainability tests typically include job samples and are described as a type of job sample.
Deficits in organizational ability, decision-making, and problem-solving are most likely to be the result of damage to the A corpus callosum. B prefrontal lobe. C parietal lobe. D basal forebrain.
The Correct Answer is “B”
The activities listed in the question are “executive functions,” which are mediated by the frontal lobes, or, more specifically, by the prefrontal lobes. (The basal forebrain connects with the temporal lobes and is involved in long-term memory.)
- Despite his many accomplishments and positive feedback from his supervisor, a client believes his work
performance is below average because he feels like a failure. This is an example of:
A minimization
B selective abstraction
C emotional reasoning
D personalization
The Correct Answer is “C”
Emotional reasoning is one of several cognitive distortions described by Beck. It refers to a person believing that
because he or she feels a negative emotion, there must be a corresponding negative external situation.
Minimization (A) is seeing something as less significant than it really is. Selective abstraction (B) occurs when
one focuses on a detail, taken out of context, at the expense of other information. Personalization (D) is the
attribution of external events to oneself without evidence of a causal connection.
Fee arrangements should be made with clients A at the beginning of treatment. B at the end of the first session. C on the phone before the first session. D as soon as possible.
The Correct Answer is “D”
This is an example of a question with more than one good answer. Choices “A”, “B”, and “C” may all be
acceptable, depending on the circumstances. But because there are a number of acceptable answers to this question, you’d hope to find one general answer, such as “D”, that covers most or all of the specific possible options. More importantly, of the choices listed, “D” is most consistent with the language of APA’s Ethical
Standard 6.04(a), which states: “As early as is feasible in a professional or scientific relationship, psychologists
and recipients of psychological services reach an agreement specifying compensation and billing arrangements.
An adolescent swearing with friends but not when around adults is example of: A response generalization B stimulus generalization C stimulus discrimination D overcorrection
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. Discrimination and generalization refer to the differences in precision of stimulus control, or the ability of a stimulus to alter the probability of a response. Response probabilities vary with different contexts, discriminative stimuli, and reinforcement contingencies (e.g., what is likely to be rewarded, ignored, or punished). In this case, the adolescent behaves differently in one context (with friends) than in another context (with adults). Friends are a discriminative stimulus in which the response of swearing is more likely to occur. Overcorrection (d.) is a technique that is used to reduce an undesirable behavior and replace it with a more desirable one.
Feature integration theory predicts that the perception of an object as an entity rather than as a cluster of unrelated features depends on: A focused attention. B integrated attention. C selective attention. D divided attention.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Feature integration theory is what it sounds like. It’s a theory about how an object’s features are integrated, and it
proposes that focused visual attention is required for perception of an object to occur.
What is the area of the brain in which lesions cause indifference or apathy? A Corpus callosum B Frontal C Parietal D Pyramidal system
The Correct Answer is “B”
The frontal lobe contains the prefrontal association cortex. Lesions in this area disrupts the control and regulation
of cognition and planning (so-called executive functions). Individuals with such lesions show decreased initiative,
deficient self-awareness and concreteness in thinking.
Stimulus A is paired with stimulus B. Stimulus B is then paired with stimulus C until stimulus C elicits the same response that was elicited by stimulus A. This is an example of: A chaining B shaping C secondary reinforcement D higher-order conditioning
The Correct Answer is “D”
Higher-order conditioning is a classical conditioning procedure in which two stimuli (CS and US) are paired until the conditioned stimulus (CS) produces the conditioned response (CR) and then the CS (which is now referred to as a US) is paired with another CS to elicit the same response. All of the other choices in this question are operant conditioning terms. Operant conditioning involves behaviors and the consequences that follow, rather than the pairing of stimuli. Chaining (A) is the operant procedure that enables complex behaviors to develop through reinforcement of a sequence of simple behaviors. That is, Behavior A is followed by a reinforcer, which serves as a discriminative stimulus for Behavior B, which is followed by a reinforcer, and so on. Shaping (B)
involves reinforcing successive approximations of a desired behavior.
The phenomenon of cross-modal perception, for example, hearing colors or tasting shapes is referred to as: A achromatopsia B sensory hallucinations C nystagmus D synesthesia
The Correct Answer is “D”
Synesthesia is a perceptual condition in which stimulation of one sensory modality is reliably perceived in one or more other senses. For example, individuals with synesthesia may hear odors or see sounds. The cause of
synesthesia is unknown, but is more prevalent among women and non-right-handed people. Achromatopsia (A) is a rare form of color blindness that is accompanied by hypersensitivity to light and poor visual acuity.
Hallucinations (B) are sensory perceptions that occur without external stimulation of the sensory organ.
Nystagmus (C) refers to involuntary jerky eye movement.
According to Anne Cleary’s model of test fairness, a job selection test would be considered unfair if
A Based on the use of the test, a higher proportion of Caucasians than African-Americans are chosen for the job.
B the test has a higher validity coefficient for Caucasians than for African-Americans.
C the slope of the test’s regression line is different for African-Americans than for Caucasians.
D the content of the test is culturally biased.
The Correct Answer is “C”
Under the Cleary model, a test is considered unfair if the slope and/or the y-intercept of the regression line is
different for one subgroup than for another. The effect of these statistical phenomena is that differences between
subgroups on predictor scores would not be reflective of differences between the groups on the criterion. For
instance, low scorers in one subgroup might do just as well on the criterion as high scorers in the other subgroup.
An attorney contacts a psychologist requesting that his client be given a psychological evaluation prior to
appearing in court. Following the evaluation the client asks that his records not be released to the court, although his attorney believes that releasing the records would be in his client’s best interest. The psychologist should:
A release the records since there is no privilege regarding forensic evaluations
B release the records since the attorney requested the evaluation
C not release the records
D seek consultation
The Correct Answer is “C”
Since this does not appear to be a court-ordered evaluation, the examinee remains the holder of the privilege; thus, his records should not be released to the court without his consent.
The theory that proposes convergent and divergent thinking as dimensions of intelligence is associated with: A Galton B Thurstone C Guilford D Cattell
The Correct Answer is “C”
C. J.P. Guilford identified 120 elements using factor analysis that he proposed in sum comprise intelligence.
Convergent thinking is the ability to group or analyze divergent ideas usually leading to a unifying concept or
single solution. Divergent thinking is the ability to generate creative, new ideas or to elaborate or branch off from traditional approaches, such as in brainstorming or “thinking out of the box.” Galton (a.) postulated that
intelligence is an inherited trait distributed normally across the population. Thurstone (b.) applied his method of factor analysis to intelligence leading to his proposed theory of Primary Mental Abilities (that individuals possess
varying degrees of sub-components of intelligence). Cattell’s (d.) theory distinguished between fluid and
crystallized intelligence.
A loss of memory for autobiographical information is referred to as: A functional amnesia B anterograde amnesia C retrograde amnesia D malingering
The Correct Answer is “A”
Functional amnesia is a condition, caused by a psychological trauma, in which individuals are unable to remember significant events in their lives, i.e., autobiographical information. Anterograde amnesia (B) is an impaired ability to form new permanent memories. Retrograde amnesia (C) is an inability to recall previous memories (i.e., for events that occurred prior to a head trauma), and is not necessarily for, or limited to, autobiographical information. Someone who is malingering (D) could feign memory loss for autobiographical memories; however,
most cases of autobiographical memory loss are not due to malingering.
When a psychologist working out of the Adlerian model serves as a consultant in a school, they:
A Work primarily with the school
B Identify the areas of inferiority within the system
C Primarily educate the parents and teachers through an emphasis on preventive interventions
D Reverse roles–having the teachers see themselves as children and the students as parents in the family school
system.
The Correct Answer is “C”
In general, consultants work with the teachers and parents rather than individual students. With the Adlerian
model, preventive interventions are emphasized and the consultants educate the parents and teachers. (Dustin and
Ehly 1992).
The term “neuronal threshold” refers to the fact that
A
all nerve cells fire simultaneously.
B
the strength of a nerve cell’s action is positively correlated with the electrical stimulation it receives.
C
the strength of a nerve cell’s action is negatively correlated with the electrical stimulation it receives.
D
a nerve cell’s stimulation must reach a certain intensity before it fires.
The Correct Answer is “D”
The term “neuronal threshold” refers to the minimum level of energy required for a neuron to fire. If the energy in
the cell is below this threshold level, the cell will not fire at all. And increasing the energy in the cell above the
threshold does not increase the intensity of firing. This is referred to as the “all-or-none” law – either the cell fires
at maximum intensity or it does not fire at all.
For months following the break up of a relationship with her finance, a woman is very distressed and obsessed with thoughts about the former relationship. Her most likely diagnosis would be: A Adjustment disorder B Bereavement C Obsessive Compulsive Disorder D Borderline Personality Disorder
The Correct Answer is “A”
Based on the limited information provided, her most likely diagnosis would be Adjustment Disorder. According
to DSM-IV-TR, Adjustment Disorder involves a psychological response to an identifiable stressor that results in clinically significant symptoms. Bereavement (“B”) is reserved for a reaction to the death of a loved one. In OCD the obsessions must not simply be excessive worries about real-life problems and the person must experience them as intrusive and, at least at times, attempt to ignore or suppress them. Before we could diagnose Borderline Personality Disorder we would need many more symptoms of instability of relationships, self-image, and affects, along with marked impulsivity.
The best explanation for group members’ reluctance to provide negative feedback to one another is: A minority influence B group think C Yalom’s principle D the mum effect
The Correct Answer is “D”
D. Rosen and Tesser (1970) conducted research on message transmission in different groups of people to
determine how individuals respond to relaying a message that may be displeasing. They proposed there is
emotional stress placed on the messenger, predicated on a fear of being infected with the emotional distress of the
recipient or of having to assume an emotional state congruent with the bad news, and for this reason there may be a decrease in the transmittance of bad news. Their findings, which have been subsequently supported by others,
indicated that bad news is transmitted less frequently than good news. MUM refers to the tendency to keep ‘Mum
about Undesirable Messages’ (See: Rosen, S. & Tesser, A. (1970). On reluctance to communicate undesirable
information: The MUM effect. Sociometry. 33, 253 - 263.) Minority influence (a.) refers to attempts by a
minority to alter of attitudes and beliefs on part of the majority typically involving a break with the accepted
norms and conventions; inspiring majority resistance; and creating a cognitive conflict for the majority. The
effectiveness of minority influence depends on the extent that it exhibits behavioral consistency, persistence and
internal coherence as well as congruency with the prevailing Zeitgeist, that is with values, norms and goals salient
for the majority. Groupthink (b.) is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group, which
prevents full consideration of alternative decisions, to the point where the decisions reached may become
irrational. Factors which contribute to groupthink include high cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader.
According to Sue and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, a person in the dissonance stage
would experience:
A
appreciation of the self and depreciation of the dominant group
B
depreciation of the self and appreciation of the dominant group
C
appreciation of the self and the dominant group
D
conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and the dominant group
The Correct Answer is “D”
Even if you were unfamiliar with Sue and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, you may have been
able to guess correctly if you realized that the term “dissonance” refers to conflict. Sue and Sue’s (1990)
Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CID) is an elaboration of the Minority Identity Development
model (MID) proposed by Atkinson, Morton, and Sue (1989). Both models describe the same stages
(conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness) but the R/CID
model elaborates on individuals’ attitudes toward self and others. During the Conformity stage, a person
depreciates the self (and others of the minority group) but appreciates the dominant majority group. During the
Dissonance stage, minority individuals experience conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and
the majority group. In the Resistance and Immersion stage, the individual appreciates the self and depreciates the
majority group. In the Introspection stage, the person again experiences conflict and questions the basis of his or
her appreciation and depreciation of self and others. And, finally, in the Integrative Awareness stage, the person
experiences self-appreciation and selective appreciation of the majority group [D. W. Sue and D. Sue, Counseling
the culturally different: Theory and practice, 3rd edition, 1999, New York, John Wiley].
Cluster sampling involves
A
randomly selecting individual subjects from a larger target population.
B
randomly selecting a naturally-occurring group of subjects from a larger target population.
C
randomly selecting several naturally occurring groups from a larger population, and then randomly selecting
individuals from each group.
D
randomly selecting individuals from a larger target population and dividing subjects into groups on the basis of
their status on a demographic variable.
The Correct Answer is “B”
In cluster sampling, naturally occurring groups of subjects, rather than individual subjects, are randomly selected
for participation in research. For instance, if a researcher wants to use elementary school students in an
educational study, he or she could randomly choose a school from the schools in his state, and use all the students
in that school as participants in the study. That’s cluster sampling. A variation of cluster sampling, known as
multistage cluster sampling, involves selecting a large cluster (group) and then selecting selectively smaller
clusters. For example, the researcher studying elementary school students could randomly select a school district,
then randomly select a school from the chosen school district, and then randomly select a classroom from the
chosen school. In this case, both forms of cluster sampling would be more practical than the alternative of simple
random sampling. That would involve randomly selecting individual elementary school students from across the
state.
According to Kohlberg, an individual who is concerned with obeying society's laws and rules is in which stage of moral development? A preconventional B conventional C postconventional D heteronomous
The Correct Answer is “B”
Kohlberg distinguishes between three levels of moral development (preconventional, conventional, and
postconventional). At the preconventional level, morality is based on the consequences of an act. Good behaviors
are rewarded and bad behaviors are punished. The next level is conventional, in which morality is guided by the desire to maintain existing social laws, rules, and norms. In the post-conventional level individuals view morality
in terms of self-chosen principles. Heteronomous morality (D) is a term use by Piaget to describe preschool
children who believe that rules are absolute and unchangeable.
Of the following, the best way to reduce rater errors such as the halo and leniency biases would be
A
use of a forced-choice rating scale.
B
use of the forced distribution rating scale.
C
use of Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales.
D
adequate training of raters.
The Correct Answer is “D”
A number of special types of rating scales designed to reduce rater bias (such as the forced-choice and the
Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales) have been derived, and, in fact, there is some research to show that they
are effective in doing so. However, no rating scale will be effective unless raters are trained adequately in its use.
Indeed, research shows that relevant training can minimize some rating errors – specifically, the halo effect,
constant error such as the leniency or strictness bias, and contrast effects. The operative word here is “relevant”:
unless training focuses on matters such as the multi-dimensionality of work performance, objective recording of
behavior, and rating people in terms of actual job requirements, training the raters won’t work.
. Use of which of the following strategies is most likely to increase a person's level of chronic pain? A biofeedback B active coping C passive coping D cognitive-behavioral therapy
The Correct Answer is “C”
Several studies have found that passive coping strategies (e.g., depending on others, restricting social activities,
use of medication for immediate pain relief) result in an increase in subjective pain among chronic pain patients.
Conversely, helping patients reduce the frequency of passive coping strategies is believed to result in decreased pain. Active coping strategies (e.g., staying busy or active, distracting attention from the pain), as well as
biofeedback and cognitive-behavioral therapy, have most often been found to decrease pain [A. C. Mercado, L. J.
Carroll, J. D. Cassidy, & P. Cote, Coping with neck and low back pain in the general population, Health
Psychology, 2000, 19(4), 333-338].
The purpose of State Licensing Boards is primarily to A educate the public. B educate the profession. C protect the public. D set minimum standards of practice.
The Correct Answer is “C”
The State Boards derive their authority from the principle of protecting the public. That’s the justification for
giving exams, setting requirements for licensure, writing and enforcing regulations, and so on.
. Clonidine, an alpha-noradrenergic drug, is often preferable to dopaminergic blocking agents for treating
Tourette’s Disorder because it is safer for chronic use. However, clonidine does produce some undesirable side
effects including:
A
Parkinsonism, akathesia, and dysphoria.
B
dry mouth, headache, and hypotension.
C
anorexia, sexual dysfunction, and emotional blunting.
D
vomiting, dizziness, and irritability.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Since the question mentions that clonidine is safer for chronic use, you’d want to look for less serious side effects,
which narrows it down to responses b and d. In addition to dry mouth, headache, and hypotension, clonidine may
also cause sedation and dizziness.
Some experts argue that panic attacks do not occur in young children because
A
children do not experience the bodily sensations associated with panic.
B
children do not think catastrophically.
C
children are not capable of making internal interpretations of bodily sensations.
D
children are not capable of predicting that certain external events may trigger bodily symptoms.
The Correct Answer is “C”
Not all experts agree that children cannot experience panic attacks. However, those that do, for the most part,
argue that children do not experience panic because they are cognitively incapable of making internal catastrophic
interpretations (e.g., I’m going crazy) of bodily symptoms.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement?
A
It generates a high and constant rate of responding.
B
It produces behaviors that are the most resistant to extinction.
C
The relationship between the behavior and reinforcement is unpredictable.
D
It produces the “scallop effect,” with a decreased rate of response following reinforcement.
The Correct Answer is “D”
In the variable ratio schedule, reinforcement occurs after a variable number of responses. The variable ratio has
been found to result in a high and constant rate of response (A) and, compared to the other schedules of reinforcement, the responses are the most resistant to extinction (B). Since it is a variable schedule, the relationship between the behavior and reinforcement is unpredictable (C), which contributes to the above
characteristics. However, the scallop effect (D), in which the response rate drops after each reinforcement and
increases just before reinforcement is due, is characteristic of fixed schedules, especially the fixed interval schedule.
According to the catecholamine hypothesis, depression is due to a deficiency in: A dopamine B gamma-aminobutyric acid C acetylcholine D norepinephrine
The Correct Answer is “D”
Research with drugs led to the formulation of the “catecholamine hypothesis” about the cause of mood disorders.
First presented in 1965, Schildkraut et al.’s theory of depression emphasized the association of depression with a decrease in the levels of brain catecholamines dopamine (DA) and norepinephrine (NE), especially norepinephrine. This hypothesis in its simplest form, stated that depression was due to a deficiency of
norepinephrine, one of the major catecholamine systems in the brain. This early hypothesis is based on evidence from three groups of drugs: reserpine, monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors, and tricyclics. Reserpine depletes
the brain of dopamine and norepinephrine and is used primarily to treat hypertension. It is also used for severe
agitation. MAO inhibiters and tricyclics, although they work in somewhat different ways, are used to treat
depression and tend to increase the amount of norepinephrine available in the central nervous system. A variety of approaches, especially in the United States, tested this hypothesis and the results are inconclusive. Nonetheless, this theory served as he “standard” theory for depression in the United States until the 1980s. (See: McNeal, E. T., and Cimbolic, P. (1986). Antidepressants and Biochemical Theories of Depression. Psychological Bulletin, 99(3), 361-374.)
You are working with a couple in marital therapy and are conducting the initial interview. You realize that
although the husband doesn’t remember you, the two of you once dated. You should
A
speak to the husband alone, explain the situation and ask him if he feels comfortable with proceeding.
B
see the wife in individual therapy only.
C
refer the couple to another therapist.
D
let the couple know the situation and then proceed with therapy.
The Correct Answer is “C”
This question is fairly easy to answer once you remember you are not obliged to provide services for all your
referrals. This is an initial interview and you have a situation that involves a multiple relationship. You need to
refer this couple to one of your competent colleagues.
In contrast to traditional organizational culture, a quality-oriented culture emphasizes all of the following
except:
A
using cross-training so that each worker can perform a variety of tasks.
B
viewing workers as requiring continuous learning and development.
C
basing rewards on long-term (versus short-term) achievement.
D
rewarding employees for individual (versus group) achievement.
The Correct Answer is “D”This is the opposite of what is true about organizations that focus on quality where the policy is to emphasize rewarding group performance and organization-level achievement rather than individual achievement (which is
characteristic of the traditional approach). The other characteristics listed in the responses are relatively new
approaches and are characteristic of “total quality” organizations.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between environmental factors and the
course of Bipolar Disorders?
A
Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact during the early stages of the disorder.
B
Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact during the latter stages of the disorder.
C
Environmental factors are likely to have an approximately equal impact throughout the course of the disorder.
D
Environmental factors are likely to have no impact because Bipolar Disorders are entirely due to biological
factors.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Bipolar Disorders have a strong genetic and biological component. Nonetheless, evidence suggests that
environmental factors can trigger episodes. This is especially true in the early stages of the disorder; psychosocial stressors often trigger the initial mood episodes; they less frequently trigger subsequent episodes.
. A unilateral throbbing headache that is aggravated by light, sound, or any movement is characterized as a: A cluster headache B migraine headache C tension headache D sinus headache
The Correct Answer is “B”
Migraine headaches are typically unilateral, that is, felt on one side of the head and are typically throbbing in
nature. Migraines are also frequently accompanied by sensitivity to light, sound, and movement, and may be
accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Cluster headaches (A) are characterized by severe pain usually behind one
eye and typically last for a few minutes to several hours and reoccur at the same time each day for several weeks,
until the cluster period is over. Tension headaches (C) are described as a constant, dull, pain on both sides of the
head. They are typically accompanied by tension in the head or neck muscles and begin slowly and gradually.
Sinus headaches (D) are usually located in the mid-facial area and are described as a dull ache often accompanied
by nasal congestion.
In Huntington's Disease, the first brain structure to show signs of damage is the A superior colliculus. B medulla oblongata. C nucleus cuneatus. D caudate nucleus.
The Correct Answer is “D”
Huntington’s Disease is due to degeneration of neurons in the basal ganglia, and the degeneration is usually first
apparent in the caudate nucleus. (The basal ganglia include the caudate nucleus, the putamen, and the globus
pallidus.)
In regards to learning, children generally have an advantage over adults due to their greater: A brain plasticity B explicit memory C implicit memory D metamemory
The Correct Answer is “A”
Brain plasticity refers to the ability of the nervous system to adapt to different circumstances and to find new
ways of learning. Plasticity is particularly useful for acquiring a new skill or recovering from a brain injury.
Children, as you might expect, have greater plasticity than adults, although adults maintain some degree of
plasticity throughout their lives. The greater plasticity in children is attributed to their brains not being fully
developed. The human brain continues its development throughout childhood and into early adulthood, with
significant increases in neural connections and myelination. However, adults, having more life experience, have
more explicit and implicit memories. Adults also tend to have better metamemory, that is, greater knowledge of
what one knows and how one’s memory works, although this ability may decline among older adults.
When an impulsive group decision that reflects an incomplete consideration of alternatives and consequences is the result of high stress, high group cohesiveness, and a directive leader, this is an example of: A groupthink. B group polarization. C the risky shift. D the Rosenthal effect.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Although group polarization and the risky shift also refer to poor decision-making, their antecedents have not
been as well-defined as those associated with groupthink (i.e., only groupthink has been linked theoretically and
empirically to an incomplete consideration of alternatives and consequences, high group cohesiveness, etc.).
Large amounts of information can be kept in short-term memory through the use of: A the "savings" method. B eidetic memory. C chunking. D mnemonics
The Correct Answer is “C”
The classic finding in the area of research into short-term memory (STM) is the “7 +/- 2” finding; i.e., that STM
has the capacity of storing 7 plus or minus 2 pieces of information at one time. Chunking is a technique designed to increase the amount of information that can be kept in STM – it involves grouping larger amount of
information into single chunks. In other words, STM is used to store 7 +/- 2 chunks rather than 7 +/- 2 isolated
bits of information. Mnemonics (choice D) are used to increase the efficiency of encoding newly learned
information, which increases the ease with which that information is retrieved from long-term memory.
. To determine two rater's level of agreement on a test you would use: A Kappa coefficient B Discriminant validity C Percentage of agreement D Item response theory
The Correct Answer is “A”
There are a number of ways to estimate the interscorer reliability, but the most common involves calculating a
correlation coefficient between the scores of two different raters. The Kappa coefficient is a measure of the
agreement between two judges who each rate a set of objects using the nominal scales.
. High-context cultures are characterized by
A
reliance on elaborated (versus restricted) communication codes.
B
heavy reliance on nonverbal (versus verbal) messages.
C
restraint of feelings.
D
emphasis on short-term goals.
The Correct Answer is “B”
The terms “high context” and “low context” have been used to describe cultural differences in communication. A high-context style is characterized by reliance on nonverbal and culturally-shared cues and is characteristic of a
number of cultural/racial minority groups including African-, Hispanic-, and Asian-Americans.
esearch on group performance has examined the effects of the heterogeneity of group members in terms of
personality, gender, experience, and so on. Overall, these studies have found that heterogeneity is
A
positively related to creativity and decision-making effectiveness.
B
positively related to creativity but negatively related to decision-making effectiveness.
C
negatively related to creativity but positively related to decision-making effectiveness.
D
negatively related to creativity and decision-making effectiveness.
The Correct Answer is “A”
Most of the research on group heterogeneity has focused on its impact on creativity and problem-solving and has
found it to have beneficial effects on both.
If someone presents with complaints and symptoms including anxiety, irritability, and hypomania, and the diagnosed disorder is not exclusively psychogenic, the most likely non-psychiatric cause would be A Addison's Disease. B hyperthyroidism. C Sleep Apnea. D Alcohol Amnestic Disorder.
The Correct Answer is “B”
Hyperthyroidism, or over secretion of thyroxine by the thyroid gland, is a possible physiological cause of
symptoms that resemble generalized anxiety or hypomania.
A high level of expressed emotion by family members has been found to be predictive of relapse for which of the following disorders? A schizophrenia B eating disorders C mood disorders D all of the above
The Correct Answer is “D”
The relationship between a family’s level of expressed emotion (EE) and the risk of relapse among patients with
Schizophrenia has been known for many years; however, recently EE has also been linked to eating disorders and
mood disorders. In fact, in a meta-analysis the relationship of EE to relapse in eating disorders and mood
disorders was significantly greater than the relationship found for Schizophrenia (mean effect sizes were .51, .39,
and .31, respectively) [R.L. Butzlaff & J.M. Hooley, Expressed emotion and psychiatric relapse: A meta-analysis, Archives of General Psychiatry, 55, 1998, 547-552].
Since his parents separated four months ago, Jessie Jr. is withdrawn, cries, and is easily angered for a day or
two after visiting his noncustodial father on alternate weekends. When mom asks Jessie Jr. what’s wrong, he says
“nothing.” Mom should interpret this as:
A
a lack of attachment to dad.
B
a lack of attachment to mom.
C
a clear sign of sexual abuse.
D
a normal response.
The Correct Answer is “D”
This is a difficult question because it provides so little information about Jesse Jr.’s behavior. However, it is
normal for children to show distress before and after visits to the noncustodial parent, especially during the first
few months after the divorce. (For sexual abuse to be the right answer, you’d want to see more severe symptoms
that last for a longer period of time.)
Individuals with the diagnosis of Seasonal Affect Disorder are most likely to respond to light if they
experience:
A
atypical symptoms such as carbohydrate craving and hypersomnia
B
melancholic symptoms such as insomnia and weight loss
C
incomplete summer remission
D
more chronic forms of depression
The Correct Answer is “A”
A. Research on the use of light therapy for the treatment of various forms of depression has yielded the findings
that for true SAD, atypical symptoms such as carbohydrate craving and hypersomnia predict a robust response,
whereas melancholic symptoms such as insomnia and weight loss are generally less responsive to light (See:
Terman et al., American Journal of Psychiatry, 1996, 153,:423-9). Additionally, a clear onset period with
complete remission in the spring and summer months is the SAD phenotype that is most likely to respond to light.
Whereas patients with more chronic forms of depression or incomplete summer remission are less likely to have a
robust response, they may benefit to some extent (See: Lam et al., Journal of Affective Disorders, 2001, 63,
123-32).
A manufacturing company hires a psychologist to screen job applicants using standardized cognitive ability tests. The company then asks the psychologist to train their human resources staff to administer and score the
tests. The psychologist should:
A
agree to do so if the psychologist is able to provide adequate training to the staff
B
agree to do so if the psychologist is able to supervise the human resources staff
C
refuse to do so because cognitive ability tests are not valid predictors of job performance
D
refuse to do so because the human resources staff lacks the appropriate qualifications
The Correct Answer is “D”
Ethical Standard 9.07 states, “Psychologists do not promote the use of psychological assessment techniques by unqualified persons.” A human resources staff would be unqualified to use these tests and should not be trained in their use. Contrary to C, cognitive ability tests are considered to be a relatively good predictor of job
performance.
The leading cause of infant mortality is: A respiratory distress B sudden infant death syndrome C homicide D congenital malformations
Although there has been about a 75% decrease in the infant mortality rates from 1950 to 1999, the proportion of
deaths caused by congenital deformities has actually increased, making it the leading cause of death during
infancy (i.e., the first year of life). The next leading cause is low birthweight followed by sudden infant death
syndrome (B). These three causes accounted for almost one-half of all infant deaths in 1999. Respiratory distress
(A) was the 5th leading cause of infant deaths. Homicide (C) was ranked 15th (although homicide risk is higher
during infancy than in any other year of childhood before age 17 years)
A 60-year old couple complains of a decrease in their sex life. Although they don’t feel they need
psychotherapy, they would like some information. There is no indication of medical or emotional problems. You
should tell them that:
A
there is nothing that you as a psychotherapist can do at this time.
B
they should seek help since it is normal to continue sexual behavior.
C
there is a wide variation in sexual activity depending on physical and emotional variables.
D
everyone’s sexual activity drops with age
The Correct Answer is “C”
C is the more conservative and more appropriate answer since we don’t know too much about the couple. If we knew more about why they sought help, we could make a more specific recommendation.
High levels of stress are associated with:
A
tension headaches, but not migraine headaches.
B
migraine headaches, but not tension headaches.
C
both tension headaches and migraine headaches.
D
neither tension headaches nor migraine headaches.
The Correct Answer is “C”
As their name suggests, tension headaches are associated with stress. The psychological correlates of migraine
headaches are less clear, and more than one theory has been proposed regarding this issue; however, clinical observation has suggested that stress often plays a role in their onset.
. A 17-year-old male involved in a skateboarding accident suffered a head trauma resulting in deficits to his
declarative memory. He would likely have the most difficulty:
A
riding a skateboard
B
recalling when he rode his first skateboard at 10-years-old
C
recalling his own name
D
recalling what he ate for lunch yesterday
The Correct Answer is “D”
Declarative or explicit memories are long-term memories that one can consciously recall. They include semantic
(factual information) and episodic (personally experienced) memories. Riding a skateboard (A) requires procedural memory. All of the other choices require explicit memory; however, memory deficits due to head trauma or disease usually affect recent long-term memory before affecting remote long-term memory.
. A 50-year old has memory loss as the result of her long-term heavy alcohol consumption. Most likely, she has trouble A getting dressed. B remembering someone she met a week ago. C recalling her first date. D repeating five digits forward and backward.
The Correct Answer is “B”
People with Korsakoff’s Syndrome (amnesia due to heavy, long-term alcohol consumption) have severe anterograde amnesia along with retrograde amnesia for events that occurred in the relatively recent past.
Procedural memory is undisturbed (response A); remote memories are usually intact (response C); and short-term memory is unaffected (response D).
A leader should adopt a “telling” style if:
A
The employee has low ability but high willingness to accept responsibility
B
The employee has high ability but low willingness to accept responsibility
C
The employee’s ability to and willingness to accept responsibility are both high
D
The employee’s ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both low
The Correct Answer is “D”
The “telling style” according to Hersey and Blanchard’s (1974) description, is more effective when an employee’s
ability and willingness to accept responsibility are low. This leadership style involves high task orientation and low
relationship orientation. With A, the leader should adopt the “selling” style–high task orientation and high
relationship orientation. With B, the leader should adopt a “participatory” style–low task orientation and high
relationship orientation. With C the leader can use a “delegating style”; both low task and low relationship
orientation.
Which of the following work schedules would most likely result in improved job satisfaction? A five-day fixed day shift B compressed week C rotating shifts on a weekly basis D rotating shifts on a quarterly basis
The Correct Answer is “B”
The research on alternative work schedules is mixed, however, one consistent finding is that rotating shifts result in lowered productivity and satisfaction, higher accident rates, and more physical and mental health problems. Obviously, the more frequent the change in schedule, the more difficult it would be to adapt. On the other hand, compressed work week schedules, such as the 4/40, usually result in improved job satisfaction and decreased absenteeism. However, compressed schedules usually have no effect on productivity or, depending on the job,
possibly a negative affect. (while flextime schedules result in improved productivity, absenteeism, and
satisfaction).
The risk of sampling error is greatest when a: A sample size is small B test has low reliability C test has low validity D confounding variable exists
The Correct Answer is “A”
Sampling error is the extent to which a sample value deviates from the corresponding population value which it is
supposed to represent. Thus, the smaller the sample size, the greater the risk of sampling error. You should have been able to eliminate reliability (“B”) and validity (“C”), since those are characteristics of a test – which is not applied until after the sampling procedure. Sampling error, as it’s name implies, takes place during the sampling or selection of subjects. A confounding variable (“D”), is a variable that is not of interest in a study but which exerts a systematic effect on the DV. Thus it would threaten the internal validity of a test but it is not related to sampling error.
People diagnosed with PTSD are often successfully treated with psychotherapy and don’t need to be referred
for medication treatment unless:
A
They also have a high level of cognitive functioning
B
They experience feelings of numbness
C
They tolerate exploratory psychotherapy well
D
Their target symptoms of avoidance and derealization interfere with daily life
The Correct Answer is “D”
PTSD is not usually treated with phamacotherapy unless the target symptoms of intrusive experiences, flashbacks, transient psychosis, marked derealization, and avoidance and numbing markedly interfere with daily life. With
these symptoms, short-term medication is indicated. When the target symptoms of major depression, panic disorder or persistent psychotic symptoms become too intense, long term medication is indicated (Barry Pierce, R
cassidy seminars, Santa Rosa CA).
