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Flashcards in TEST 4 Deck (575)
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1
Q

A term that describes the contents of the stomach?

A

Chyme

2
Q

Where is lactic acid generated in muscles in converted to the usable pyruvic acid?

A

Liver

3
Q

Difficult or infrequent defecation is referred to as?

A

Constipation

4
Q

Chronic inflammation of the colon accompanied by ulceration and scarring (fibrosis)?

A

Crohn’s Disease

5
Q

The layer of the mucosa that lines the lumen is known as the?

A

Epithelium

6
Q

The elimination of solid wastes from the colon is known as?

A

Defecation

7
Q

What is the function of the serosa?

A

Produces fluid

8
Q

For the chloride shift where do the bicarbonate ions go?

A

Blood plasma

9
Q

What function does the muscularis mucosa serve?

A

Increase surface area

10
Q

A general name for the layer of simple squamous epithelium that adheres to the lungs and viscera of the abdomen is collectively known as?

A

Mesothelium

11
Q

Malfunction of which organ is suggested by jaundice?

A

Liver

12
Q

A type of diarrhea caused when the small intestines secrete massive amounts of fluids as seen with cholera?

A

Secretory

13
Q

The plicae of the small intestines increase the surface area by a factor of?

A

3x

14
Q

Hydrogen ions are essentially the same as?

A

Protons

15
Q

The layer of the alimentary canal which lines the lumen is known as what?

A

Mucosa

16
Q

Which nerve stimulates the salivary glands?

A

Vagus

17
Q

Large folds in the small intestines which are divided into villa?

A

Pilcae circulares

18
Q

An enzyme found in the saliva that kills microbes?

A

Lysozyme

19
Q

A condition demonstrated by binging then self-inducing vomiting or large doses of laxatives?

A

Bulimia

20
Q

Cells which secrete various hormones to regulate digestion?

A

Enteroendocrine cells

21
Q

To which level must proteins be digested in order to be absorbed by the small intestines?

A

Amino Acids

22
Q

Which salivary gland is located on the body of the mandible?

A

Submandibular

23
Q

What type of tissues makes up the muscularis mucosa?

A

Smooth muscle

24
Q

An antimicrobial compound contained in saliva that is also active in the immune system is what?

A

Defensins

25
Q

Generally a type of mesothelial lining that produces fluid is called?

A

Serosa

26
Q

Once in the small branches of hepatic portal veins within the hepatic lobules, where do water-soluble compounds/drugs/toxins go next?

A

Detoxified in the livers Sinusoids

27
Q

The outermost layer of most of the alimentary canal consisting of simple squamous epithelium?

A

Serosa

28
Q

Once in the Golgi apparatus, what happens next to lipids or lipid soluble compounds (what are they surrounded by)?

A

Surrounded by phospholipids

29
Q

The connective tissue layer of the mucosa that is next to the epithelium is known as what?

A

Lamina Propria

30
Q

The process of swallowing is what?

A

Deglutition

31
Q

The process in which the liver makes blood cells outside of the bone marrow cavity as seen in cases of bone marrow suppression?

A

Extramedullary Hemopoiesis

32
Q

Which segment of the small intestine produces gastrin?

A

Duodenum

33
Q

What organ releases intrinsic factor?

A

Stomach

34
Q

What type of tissues makes up the muscularis externa?

A

Smooth muscle

35
Q

Which enzyme, produced by the gastric parietal cells allows these cells to produce H+?

A

Carbonic anhydrase

36
Q

From which compound is bile derived?

A

Cholesterol

37
Q

Which sub-division of the nervous system stimulates the salivary glands (as well as the GI tract in general)?

A

Parasympathetic

38
Q

An enzyme found in the saliva that digests various lipids is known as?

A

Lipase

39
Q

During the production of gastric acid where do the potassium ions come from?

A

Gastric lumen

40
Q

What does amylase act upon (what does it digest)?

A

Plant starch or Amylose

41
Q

During the production of gastric acid, where do the hydrogen ions go?

A

Gastric lumens

42
Q

Folds in stomach that increase surface area are known as??

A

Rugae

43
Q

Once in the thoracic duct, where do the lipids and lipid soluble compounds go next?

A

LEFT subclavian vein

44
Q

Large papillae located near the back of the tongue?

A

Circumvallate

45
Q

The layer of simple squamous epithelium that adheres to the viscera of the abdomen is specifically known as?

A

Visceral Peritoneum

46
Q

What is released by pancreatic alpha cells?

A

Glucagon

47
Q

Other than harboring intestinal bacteria what is another major function of the colon?

A

Absorption of water

48
Q

The region of the stomach that is located superior to the gastroesophageal junction is called?

A

Fundus

49
Q

Another name for plant starch?

A

Amylose

50
Q

The smallest of the papillae on dorsum of tongue in which give it friction?

A

Filiform

51
Q

The loss of motility especially seen after abdominal surgery is known as?

A

Ileus

52
Q

The narrower region of the stomach below the esophagus is known as?

A

Pyloric part

53
Q

For the chloride shift what gastric cells produce the bicarbonate ions?

A

Parietal cells

54
Q

What is the major neurotransmitter released by the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Acetylcholine

55
Q

During the chloride shift, what compound is exchanged with the chloride ions?

A

Bicarbonate ion

56
Q

Which antibody is found in saliva (as well as mom’s milk)?

A

IgA

57
Q

A pathological condition in which the patient demonstrates an abnormal reduction in appetite?

A

Anorexia

58
Q

What is the major detoxification organ of the body?

A

Liver

59
Q

Other than water absorption, what is another major function of the colon?

A

Harbors bacteria

60
Q

What causes pepsinogen to change into the enzyme pepsin?

A

Low pH

61
Q

Which plexus controls motility of the intestines?

A

Myenteric Nerve Plexus

62
Q

The smallest (microscopic) finger-like projections of the small intestines which increase surface area?

A

Microvilli

63
Q

What type of receptor must be inhibited to reduce the production of acid by the stomach?

A

Histamine Type 2 (H2) Receptors

64
Q

Other than nerves and stretch, what stimulates movement and secretion along the gastro-intestinal tract?

A

Chemicals

65
Q

A term that refers to the projections containing most of the taste buds?

A

Papillae

66
Q

Name the lipids surrounded by the phospholipids within the Golgi apparatus?

A

Chylomicrons

67
Q

What type of tissue makes up the lamina propria?

A

Areolar Connective Tissue

68
Q

What is released by the pancreatic delta cells?

A

Somatostatin

69
Q

An enzyme that digests lactose?

A

Lactase

70
Q

What is the major neurotransmitter released by the vagus nerve?

A

acetylcholine

71
Q

For the chloride shift, where do chloride ions (Cl-) come from?

A

Into parietal cells

72
Q

An enzyme that breaks dipeptides into their amino acid components?

A

Dipeptidase

73
Q

Two layers of smooth muscles found in most of the alimentary canal that causes the movement of food along the tract?

A

Muscularis Externa

74
Q

Which compound made in the liver separates lipids into smaller units which can be absorbed by the intestinal epithelial cells?

A

Bile

75
Q

During the production of gastric acid, what compound is exchanged for the potassium ions (K+) in the gastric lumen?

A

Hydrogen ions

76
Q

What type of tissue lines the oral cavity and the esophagus?

A

Non-keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium

77
Q

The proteins that move hydrogen ions into the gastric lumen are known as what?

A

Proton pumps

78
Q

The name given to the type of protein that causes chloride shift?

A

Antiport

79
Q

A hormone that causes the pancreas to release protease enzymes into the duodenum?

A

Secretin

80
Q

Tiny little lymphatic vessels in the walls of the small intestines?

A

Lacteals

81
Q

The process of taking food in is referred to as?

A

Ingestion

82
Q

which salivary gland is located just in front of the earlobe?

A

Parotid

83
Q

What do the chloride ions pump into the stomach’s lumen combine with to make acid?

A

hydrogen ions

84
Q

what type of acid is produced by the stomach?

A

Hydrochloric acid

85
Q

Once in the superior mesenteric vein where do water-soluble compounds/drugs/toxins go next?

A

Hepatic Portal Vein

86
Q

What is the pH of the stomach?

A

2-3

87
Q

The proton pump for the gastric cells belongs to which class of protein receptors?

A

Histamine Type 2 Receptors

88
Q

An enzyme that digests sucrose?

A

Surcase

89
Q

Which sub-division of the nervous system stimulates vomiting?

A

Parasympathetic

90
Q

An allergic immune reaction to gluten?

A

Celiac Disease

91
Q

What drug (found in a local weed) is used for preoperatively to dry up (inhibit) the salivary glands (to prevent aspiration of saliva)?

A

Atropine

92
Q

To which level must triglycerides be digested in order to be absorbed by the small intestines?

A

Fatty acids & a monoglyceride

93
Q

The villi of the small intestines increase the surface area by a factor of?

A

10x

94
Q

An enzyme found in saliva which breaks starch into glucose?

A

Amylase or ptyalin

95
Q

Which of the tongue’s papillae do not have taste buds?

A

Filiform

96
Q

What compound allows the intestines to absorb vitamin B12?

A

Intrinsic Factor

97
Q

Where is the large majority of your body’s cholesterol made?

A

Liver

98
Q

A compound released by the pancreas that becomes trypsin?

A

Trypsinogen

99
Q

During the production of gastric acid what compound is exchanged for the hydrogen ions (H+) in the gastric lumen?

A

Potassium ions (K+)

100
Q

A type of diarrhea in which the intestinal lumen is hypertonic (like when you can’t digest lactose) which pulls excess water in?

A

Osmotic

101
Q

Name the distal section of the small intestines that attaches to the colon?

A

Ileum

102
Q

The presence of which substance causes the release of cholecystokinin (CCK)?

A

Fat

103
Q

Blood in vomit is known as?

A

Hematemesis

104
Q

A hormone that causes the stomach to produce more acid?

A

Gastrin

105
Q

Small finger-like projections in the small intestines which are divided into microvilli?

A

Villi

106
Q

Persistent splashing of gastric contents into?

A

Gastroesophageal Reflux

107
Q

The widest region of the stomach below the esophagus is known as the?

A

Body

108
Q

What structure releases secretin?

A

Small intestines

109
Q

An enzyme that digests DNA?

A

Deoxyribonuclease

110
Q

Where are phospholipids made?

A

Liver

111
Q

Where is cholecystokinin made?

A

Small intestines

112
Q

Which cells of the stomach release intrinsic factor?

A

Parietal Cells

113
Q

A hormone that causes the pancreas to release bicarbonate ion into the duodenum?

A

Secretin

114
Q

What is released by pancreatic beta cells?

A

Insulin

115
Q

A disease of the liver which is contracted via body fluids (STDs, used needles, clinicians, etc) which demonstrates a severe, chronic disease?

A

Hepatitis B

116
Q

Cells from the islets of Langerhans which release glucagon?

A

Alpha cells

117
Q

What compound is released by the liver from the breakdown of glycogen?

A

Glucose

118
Q

What does intrinsic factor allow the small intestine to absorb?

A

Vitamin B12

119
Q

What condition is indicted by extramedullary hemopoiesis?

A

Bone marrow suppression

120
Q

A hormone that causes the gall bladder to contract to release bile?

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

121
Q

What toxic compound is made from the amino groups removed from amino acids?

A

Urea

122
Q

What structures of the stomach release the hormone gastrin?

A

Enteroendocrine cells

123
Q

Cells from the islets of Langerhans which release insulin?

A

Beta Cells

124
Q

A pre-enzyme released by the zymogen cells?

A

Pepsinogen

125
Q

Which of the autonomic nervous systems stimulates the GI tract?

A

Parasympathetic

126
Q

Which structures eliminate urea from the body?

A

Kidneys

127
Q

A condition in which the gastric fundus or cardiac zone pushes up, through the diaphragm into the thorax is what?

A

Hiatal hernia

128
Q

Give the genus and species of the bacterium that causes peptic ulcers?

A

Helicobacter pylori

129
Q

Where is bile stored?

A

gallbladder

130
Q

Enzymes which digest smaller peptide into molecules small enough to be absorbed by the small intestines?

A

Peptidases

131
Q

A specialized enzyme that digests amino acids from the amino end of a polypeptide chain?

A

Aminopeptidase

132
Q

Where are the high density lipoproteins made?

A

Liver

133
Q

What percent of the feces is composed of fat?

A

10-20%

134
Q

Once in the central vein of the hepatic lobule, where do water-soluble compounds/drugs/toxins go next?

A

Hepatic Veins

135
Q

A hormone that causes the gallbladder to contract forcing bile into the duodenum?

A

Choleystokinin

136
Q

An enzyme that digests maltose?

A

Maltase

137
Q

Waves of smooth muscle contractions that propel food along the alimentary tract are known as?

A

Peristalsis

138
Q

Name the first section of the small intestines?

A

Duodenum

139
Q

A major buffer released from the pancreas

A

Bicarbonate Ion

140
Q

Name the middle section of the small intestines?

A

Jejunum

141
Q

A thick layer of areolar connective tissue containing blood and lymphatic vessels and nerves, next to the mucosa, that makes up the second layer of the alimentary canal is known as?

A

Submucosa

142
Q

During the production of gastric acid, where do the potassium ions go?

A

Parietal cells

143
Q

Enzymes which break triglycerides into smaller components?

A

Lipases

144
Q

A think layer of smooth muscle within the most of the mucosa of the alimentary canal is known as the?

A

Muscularis Mucosa

145
Q

A term that identifies a structure that produces enzymes made in the glands that have ducts that secrete these enzymes?

A

Exocrine

146
Q

An enzyme that digests RNA?

A

Ribonuclease

147
Q

What time of receptor causes the stomach to produce acid?

A

Histamine Type 2 (H2) Receptors

148
Q

The process by which amino group (NH2) is removed from amino acids before they are broke down further?

A

Deamination

149
Q

A lesion found in the epithelium of the lower esophagus, stomach, duodenum is referred as?

A

Peptic Ulcer

150
Q

Other than the stomach, where else is gastrin produced?

A

Small intestines

151
Q

Approximately, how much of your cholesterol is obtained through the diet?

A

15%

152
Q

A compound made by the liver that allows digestion of fats by emulsifying fats or simply breaking them into tiny (5 nm in diameter) droplets?

A

Bile

153
Q

Once in the intestinal veins, where do water-soluble compounds/drugs/toxins go next?

A

Superior Mesenteric Vein

154
Q

Once absorbed by the small intestines, into which organelle do lipids or lipid soluble compounds enter?

A

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

155
Q

Which plexus is found between the circular and longitudinal layers of muscle in the muscularis externa?

A

Myenteric Nerve Plexus

156
Q

The process in which the liver breaks fatty acids into acetyl groups which can be used for metabolism, etc?

A

Beta Oxidation

157
Q

An enzyme that digests oligosaccharides into individual glucose molecules?

A

Dextrinase & Glucoamylase

158
Q

A break-down product from hemoglobin that is found in bile?

A

bilirubin

159
Q

To which level must complex carbohydrates be digested in order to be absorbed by the small intestines?

A

Monosaccharides

160
Q

What do the hydrogen ions pumped into the stomach’s lumen combine with to make acid?

A

Chloride ions (Cl-)

161
Q

The simple columnar lining of the alimentary canal is known as the?

A

Epithelium

162
Q

A specialized enzyme that digests amino acids from the carboxyl end of a polypeptide chain?

A

Carboxypeptidase

163
Q

For the chloride shift reaction, do the cells want to produce H+ or remove H+ as water?

A

Produce H+

164
Q

During the production of gastric acid, in which cells are the hydrogen ions come from (where they are made)?

A

Parietal Cells

165
Q

Where are fatty acids broken into acetyl groups which can be used for metabolism, etc?

A

Liver

166
Q

The process in which lactic acid generate in muscles is converted to the usable, pyruvic acid?

A

Cori Cycle

167
Q

A compound released by the pancreas which is similar to chymotrypsin in that it digests proteins into smaller, yet still non-absorbable peptides?

A

Trypsin

168
Q

The microvilli of the small intestines increase the surface area by a factor of?

A

20x

169
Q

In what part of the alimentary canal are most peptic ulcers found?

A

Duodenum

170
Q

Once they leave the smooth endoplasmic reticulum, where do lipids or lipid soluble compounds go next?

A

Golgi Apparatus

171
Q

Which of the papillae are located along the sides of the tongue?

A

Foliate

172
Q

The process of chewing is known as?

A

Mastication

173
Q

Once in the hepatic portal vein, where do water-soluble compounds/drugs/toxins go next?

A

Branches of hepatic portal vein within liver’s lobules

174
Q

Where are most of the plasma proteins (over 2000) made?

A

Liver

175
Q

Cells from the islets of Langerhans which release somatostatin?

A

Delta cells

176
Q

What is the name for the mucus producing cells that line most of the GI and respiratory tracts?

A

Goblet

177
Q

A disease of the liver which is contracted through the fecal-oral transmission route which usually demonstrates rather mild disease symptoms often with fever?

A

Hepatitis A

178
Q

Name the cells of the pancreas that produce the digestive enzymes and bicarbonate ions?

A

Acinar cells

179
Q

A series of intrinsic neurons located in the GI tract is known as what?

A

Enteric Nervous System

180
Q

A general class of enzymes which digest fats?

A

Lipases

181
Q

After entering the Golgi apparatus in the intestinal epithelial cells, what happens to the components of the broken-down triglycerides?

A

Reassembled into triglycerides

182
Q

Once in the lacteals, where do lipids and lipid soluble compounds go next?

A

Thoracic Duct

183
Q

Inflamed out-pocketings of colon which may become clinically significant?

A

Diverticulosis

184
Q

Which salivary gland is located on the floor of the mouth?

A

Sublingual

185
Q

What drug (found in a local weed) inhibits acetylcholine?

A

Atropine

186
Q

Massive accumulation of fluid in peritoneal cavity causing distension?

A

Ascites

187
Q

The reasons that ingested lipids and lipid soluble compounds/toxins/drugs pose a potential problem is?

A

They bypass the livers detoxification on first pass

188
Q

Which cells of the stomach release pepsinogen?

A

Zymogen cells

189
Q

What percent of the feces is composed of dead bacteria?

A

30%

190
Q

Once in the intestinal lumen, where do water-soluble compounds/drugs/toxins go next?

A

Intestinal Veins

191
Q

What type of tissue lines the alimentary canal from the stomach through the colon?

A

Simple Columnar Epithelium

192
Q

Which of the transport processes is demonstrated by the chloride shift?

A

Counter transport

193
Q

During the chloride shift what compound is exchanged with the bicarbonate ions?

A

Chloride

194
Q

A type of diarrhea caused when food passes through the intestines too fast for water absorption?

A

Increase motility

195
Q

These structures allow ingested lipids to enter the intestinal lacteals?

A

Chylomicrons

196
Q

Other than nerves and certain chemicals, what stimulates movement and secretion along the gastro-intestinal tract?

A

Stretch due to the presence of food

197
Q

Intestinal gas produced by various bacteria is known as?

A

Flatus

198
Q

All the folds and folds of the folds, etc. of the small intestines increase the total surface area by a factor of?

A

600x

199
Q

Droplets of bile surrounding lipids such as broken down triglycerides which allow these lipids to be absorbed by the intestines?

A

Micelles

200
Q

A compound released by the pancreas which is similar to trypsin in that it digests proteins into smaller yet still non-absorbable peptides?

A

Chymotrypsin

201
Q

The genus and species of the major bacterium that grows in our colon is?

A

Escherichia coli

202
Q

Once through the hepatic sinusoids, where do water-soluble compounds/drugs/toxins go next?

A

Central vein

203
Q

Approximately how much of your cholesterol is made by the liver?

A

85%

204
Q

What percent of the feces is composed of fiber?

A

30%

205
Q

A term that identifies a structure that produces hormones that are released from ductless glands directly into blood?

A

Endocrine Functions

206
Q

Other than the liver, what else stores glycogen?

A

Muscle

207
Q

A glycerol with only one fatty acid is known as?

A

Monosaccharide

208
Q

Inflammation of colon is known as?

A

Colitis

209
Q

A protein in various grains that acts as an allergin in some people?

A

Gluten

210
Q

An enzyme produced by the stomach that digests proteins into smaller yet still non-absorbable peptides?

A

Pepsin

211
Q

Where is glucagon produced?

A

Pancreas

212
Q

Special cells that actively pump hydrogen ions into the stomach’s lumen to create its acid are known as?

A

parietal cells

213
Q

Which plexus controls various GI glands and the muscularis mucosa?

A

Submucosal Nerve Plexus

214
Q

Structures of the pancreas that carry out most of its endocrine functions?

A

Islets of Langerhans

215
Q

What organ releases glucose to increase plasma levels?

A

Liver

216
Q

Once in the hepatic veins, where do water-soluble compounds/drugs/toxins go next?

A

General circulation via inferior vena cava

217
Q

Which of the transport processes is demonstrated by the production of gastric acid by the stomach?

A

Counter transport

218
Q

The process by which liver makes glucose from non-carbohydrates such as proteins is known as?

A

Gluconeogenesis

219
Q

The liver breaks glucose off of which compound in order to increase plasma levels?

A

Glycogen

220
Q

What hormone is responsible for increasing plasma glucose levels by increasing hepatic release of glucose?

A

Glucagon

221
Q

Larger mushroom-shaped papillae which are scattered over tongues dorsal surface?

A

Fungiform

222
Q

Small amounts of blood in the intestines that cannot be readily seen?

A

Occult Blood

223
Q

Which nerve stimulates movement and secretion along the GI tract?

A

vagus

224
Q

What type of connective tissue makes up the submucosa?

A

Areolar Connective Tissue

225
Q

A thin layer of smooth muscle in the mucosa of the alimentary canal which serves to increase the surface area to maximize absorption of nutrients?

A

Muscularis mucosa

226
Q

B blood presenting from the rectum is known as?

A

Hematochezia

227
Q

Where are low density lipoproteins made?

A

liver

228
Q

An enzyme produced by the pancreas that digests starch into smaller carbohydrates?

A

Amylase

229
Q

Where is bile made?

A

Liver

230
Q

The accumulation of bilirubin due to the fact that the liver is unable to break it down?

A

Jaundice

231
Q

The digestive tract from mouth to anus is known as?

A

Alimentary canal

232
Q

What is the name for the disease that usually appears in adults in which patients demonstrate the loss of normal function of the insulin receptors?

A

Type II diabetes mellitus

233
Q

What is the normal value for the colloid pressure of Bowman’s capsule?

A

0

234
Q

Normal BUN levels would be:

A

7-18 mg/dL

235
Q

If the liver cannot produce plasma protein (due to liver failure), the blood becomes hyoptonic. Fluid will move “into” or “out” of the blood?

A

Out

236
Q

What percent of water (or sodium) is reabsorbed by the loop of Henle?

A

15%

237
Q

In type I diabetes does the patient typically gain or lose weight?

A

Lose

238
Q

A nitrogenous waste product from the break down of creatine phosphate?

A

Creatinine

239
Q

What type of nephron is found near the surface of the renal cortex and have relatively short reaching tubules?

A

Cortical

240
Q

ADH causes its effects by vasoconstriction and “____”?

A

Water retention

241
Q

Under normal conditions, what is the net glomerular pressure?

A

10 mmHg outward

242
Q

A condition in which the extremities (especially the lower extremities) swell to gigantic proportions due to blockage of the lymphatic vessels?

A

Elephantiasis

243
Q

Which substance is pumped into the urine due to ANP?

A

Sodium

244
Q

Openings in the specialized cells that surround the filtering capillaries to aid in the filtration process are known as?

A

Filtration slits

245
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause for renal failures?

A

Acute tubular necrosis

246
Q

What is the normal value for Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure?

A

15 mmHg

247
Q

Into which structures do the minor calyces drain?

A

Major calyx

248
Q

An enzyme produced by the kidneys which results in an increased top?

A

Renin

249
Q

What effect on urine output does a reduction in the receptors for anti-diuretic hormone have?

A

Increase

250
Q

Specialized cells that surround the filtering capillaries to aid in the filtration process?

A

Podocytes

251
Q

What is the name for a disease in which the patient is unable to produce anti-diuretic hormone?

A

Neurogenic Diabetes Insipidus

252
Q

As blood approaches the VENOUS end of a tissue capillary, fluid tends to go “in” or “out” of the capillary?

A

In

253
Q

On section, these triangular-shaped structures are found within the medulla and contain the deeper renal loops and collecting ducts?

A

Pyramids

254
Q

Into which structures does the ureter drain?

A

urinary bladder

255
Q

ANP activates the sodium pump to pump 2 potassium ions “into” or “out of” the urine, to be reabsorbed by the body?

A

Out

256
Q

What is the diameter of the openings in the specialized cells that surround the filtering capillaries to aid in the filtration process known as?

A

30 nm

257
Q

Diabetes causes clogging of the arteries of the eye resulting in a condition known as?

A

Retinopathy

258
Q

Kidney damage due, often to diabetes is known as?

A

Diabetic nephropathy

259
Q

Which part of the nephron takes filtered blood from the glomerulus?

A

Efferent arteriole

260
Q

An increased frequency of drinking is known as?

A

Polydipsia

261
Q

In what urinary organ is the compound from that stimulates the production of red blood cells produced?

A

Kidney

262
Q

The sodium pump moves how many sodium ions into the urine?

A

3

263
Q

Where does angiotensin I go to play its major role?

A

Lungs

264
Q

Which of the renal tubules drain into the collecting ducts?

A

Distal Convoluted Tubules

265
Q

Which of the renal tubules drain into the Distal Convoluted Tubules?

A

Loop of Henle

266
Q

Which of the renal tubules lies between the proximal and distal convoluted tubules?

A

Loop of Henle

267
Q

A molecule used to make ATP?

A

Creatine phosphate

268
Q

Which of the renal tubules lies between the loop of henle and the collecting duct?

A

Distal convoluted tubules

269
Q

Is ADH released due to an increase or decrease in BP?

A

Decrease

270
Q

Approximately what percentage of diabetes cases are type II?

A

90%

271
Q

Into which structures do the major calyces drain?

A

Renal pelvis

272
Q

What percent of the blood is made up by proteins?

A

7%

273
Q

The tips of these structures drain into the minor calyces?

A

Pyramids

274
Q

What type of nephrons is found in near the deeper regions of the kidney and have long tubules?

A

Juxtamedullary

275
Q

Name the inner layer o the kidney?

A

Medulla

276
Q

What effect on water loss does Aldosteron have?

A

Reduces loss

277
Q

Into which structures does the renal pelvis drain?

A

Ureter

278
Q

Damage of capillaries throughout the body due to diabetes is known as?

A

Microvascular Disease

279
Q

What is the diameter for the tiny holes in the walls of the filtering capillaries of the kidneys allowing increased filtration?

A

70-90 nm

280
Q

What must happen to the relative value of the glomerular hydrostatic pressure in order to decrease GFR (increase or decrease)?

A

Decrease

281
Q

Which structure regulates the diameter of the afferent arteriole in the case of blood pressure change?

A

Macula densa

282
Q

What percent of kidney stones are made of calcium oxylate?

A

85%

283
Q

An increased BP causes an increase in urine output. This is known as?

A

Pressure diruresis

284
Q

Name the mechanism that MAINTAINS an extremely hypertonic renal medulla?

A

Counter Current Exchanger

285
Q

What must happen to the relative value of the hydrostatic pressure of the Bowman’s capsule in order to increase GFR?

A

Decrease

286
Q

A condition in which the kidneys are excreting over 3.5 grams of protein per day due to glomerular damage?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

287
Q

Where is ANP made?

A

Atria

288
Q

What is the approximate osmolarity of the renal cortex?

A

300 mOsm

289
Q

Another name for vasopressin is?

A

Antidiuretic Hormone

290
Q

What percent of water (or sodium) is reabsorbed by the distal convoluted tubules?

A

10%

291
Q

Approximately how many of the basic filtering units of the kidneys are located in each kidney?

A

1 million

292
Q

Which of the renal tubules lies between the Distal Convoluted Tubules and the Renal Papillae?

A

Collecting duct

293
Q

Approximately what percentage of diabetes cases are type I?

A

10%

294
Q

Which part of the nephron brings unfiltered blood to the glomerulus?

A

Afferent Arteriole

295
Q

Another name for antidiuretic hormone is?

A

Vasopressin

296
Q

Which substance is pumped OUT Of the urine to be reabsorbed by the body due to ANP?

A

Potassium

297
Q

A disease in which the glomeruli are involved leading to abnormalities in their ability to filter blood?

A

Glomerulonephritis

298
Q

Into which structures do the renal papillae drain?

A

Minor calyx

299
Q

Describe the relative plasma hydrostatic pressure at the ARTERIAL end of a tissue capillary?

A

High

300
Q

Which compound allows the small intestines to absorb calcium and phosphate for bone use, etc.

A

Calcitriol or Vitamin D3

301
Q

What must happen to the relative value of the glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure in order to increase GFR?

A

Increase

302
Q

Which compound from the kidneys and liver stimulates the production of RBCs?

A

Erythropoietin

303
Q

Describe the relative interstitial hydrostatic pressure at the ARTERIAL end of a tissue capillary

A

Low

304
Q

For the basic filtering unit of the kidney, the filtering capillaries are known as?

A

Glomerulus

305
Q

The primary, toxic nitrogenous waste product by the degradation of nucleotide bases from RNA and “___”?

A

DNA

306
Q

ANP cause its effect by activating the “___”?

A

Sodium Pump

307
Q

Which of the renal tubules channels the urine to the papillae?

A

Collecting Duct

308
Q

Into which structure does the urinary bladder drain?

A

Urethra

309
Q

An enzyme produced by the kidneys which is used in the production of angiotensin II?

A

Renin

310
Q

Where is ADH stored and released?

A

Posterior Pituitary Gland

311
Q

The primary toxic nitrogenous waste product is produced by the degradation of amino acids and “____”?

A

Nucleotide bases

312
Q

Does the release of more antidiuretic hormone increase or decrease BP?

A

Increase

313
Q

Does angiotensin II cause an increase or decrease in BP?

A

Increase

314
Q

Where is ADH made?

A

Hypothalamus

315
Q

Describe the relative plasma colloid pressure at the ARTERIAL end of a tissue capillary?

A

Low

316
Q

Does activation of the Renin-angiotensin system cause an increase or decrease in BP?

A

Increase

317
Q

How does the drug prednisone cause fluid retention?

A

Increases sodium resorption

318
Q

The primary, toxic nitrogenous waste product is produced by the degradation of nucleotide bases from DNA and “___”?

A

RNA

319
Q

An inflammation of the urinary bladder is known as?

A

Cystitis

320
Q

Which mechanism of GFR regulation is based on the fact that a muscle contracts against being stretched?

A

Myogenic Mechanism

321
Q

Excretion of 3-5 grams of protein per day is known as?

A

Proteinurea

322
Q

What effect on water loss does estrogen generally have?

A

Reduces loss

323
Q

What percent of kidney stones are made of cystine?

A

less than 1%

324
Q

Name the outer layer of the kidney?

A

Cortex

325
Q

How does ADH cause water retention?

A

Turns on protein synthesis of water channels in kidneys?

326
Q

Does the Renin-angiotensin system activate due to an increase or decrease in blood pressure?

A

Decrease

327
Q

The destruction of blood vessels, especially in the legs due to diseases such as diabetes is known as?

A

Peripheral Vascular Disease

328
Q

The most common cause of end stage renal disease in western world?

A

Diabetic nephropathy

329
Q

Water always diffuses towards the “hypotonic” or “isotonic” or “hypertonic” solution?

A

Hypertonic

330
Q

Of all the fluid that is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys, what percent is reabsorbed?

A

99.3%

331
Q

What happens to the afferent arteriole if the systemic blood pressure falls?

A

Vasodilation

332
Q

The quantity of filtrate (filtered fluid) produced by the kidneys per unit time is known as?

A

Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

333
Q

For osmosis, what generally follows the osmotically active particle sodium?

A

Water

334
Q

To which group of lipids does aldosterone belong?

A

Steroids

335
Q

Which mechanism of GFR regulation is based on the fact that macula densa causes a change in the diameter of the afferent arteriole?

A

Tubuloglomerular Feedback Mechanism

336
Q

Water lost in the feces is known as?

A

Insensible

337
Q

Name the tips of the triangular-shaped structures in the medulla that drain into the minor calyces?

A

Papilla

338
Q

What is aldosterone ‘s major effect?

A

Water retention

339
Q

A type of water loss that you are aware of is known as?

A

sensible

340
Q

Does an increase in urine output (with all other parameters held constant) increase or decrease BP?

A

Decrease

341
Q

Drugs that lower BP by blocking the production of angiotensin II are known as?

A

ACE inhibitors

342
Q

The covering that surrounds the glomerulus?

A

Bowman’s capsule

343
Q

An increase in BP has what effect on the urine output?

A

Polyuria

344
Q

A measure of nitrogenous wastes in the blood?

A

Blood Urine Nitrogen (BUN)

345
Q

Which results in the release of renin, an increase or decrease in BP?

A

Decrease

346
Q

Where is the active form of the compound that allows the small intestines to absorb calcium and phosphate for bone use, etc produced?

A

Kidney

347
Q

What effect of water loss does atrialnatriuretic hormone have?

A

increases water loss

348
Q

Which of the renal tubules drain into the loop of henle?

A

Proximal Convoluted Tubules

349
Q

Water lost in the urine is known as?

A

Sensible

350
Q

What effect on water loss does antidiuretic hormone have?

A

Reduces loss

351
Q

If your body needed to increase urine output to regulate BP, would you see an increase or decrease in the release of aldosterone?

A

Decrease

352
Q

The sodium pump moves how many potassium ions out of urine?

A

2

353
Q

What is the normal value for the colloid pressure of the blood?

A

30 mmHg

354
Q

A pathogenic condition demonstrating an increase in BUN and creatinine?

A

Azotemia

355
Q

How does aldosterone cause water retention?

A

Activates sodium pump in kidneys to reabsorb sodium

356
Q

Water that is lost by being exhaled from the lungs is known as?

A

Insensible

357
Q

Name the mechanism that creates an extremely hypertonic renal medulla?

A

Counter Current Multiplier

358
Q

What enzyme is responsible for changing angiotensin I into angiotensin II?

A

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme

359
Q

If your body needed to increase urine output to regulate BP, would you see an increase or decrease in the release of antidiuretic hormone?

A

decreased

360
Q

Where is aldosterone made?

A

Adrenal cortex

361
Q

The presence of blood in the urine is known as?

A

Hematuria

362
Q

What is the clinical name for the condition in which plasma glucose levels are greater than 200 mg/dL?

A

Hyperglycemia

363
Q

Describe the relative plasma hydrostatic pressure at the venous end of a tissue capillary?

A

Low

364
Q

If your body needed to increase urine output to regulate BP, would you see an increase or decrease in the release of atrialnatriuretic peptide hormone?

A

Increase

365
Q

Does an increase in BP (with all other parameters held constant) increase or decrease urine output?

A

Increase

366
Q

A condition marked by renal function that has dropped to approximately 25% of normal?

A

Renal insufficiency

367
Q

A condition marked by the production of toxic compounds causing a “fruity” smelling breath that may lead to coma due to diabetes?

A

Ketoacidosis

368
Q

How many sodium ions are pumped to the ECM under the influence of aldosterone?

A

3

369
Q

What must happen to the relative value of the colloid pressure of the glomerular capillary blood in order to decrease GFR?

A

Increase

370
Q

Does angiotensin II cause vasoconstriction or vasodilation?

A

Vasoconstriction

371
Q

What must happen to the relative value of the colloid pressure of the Bowman’s capsule in order to decrease GFR?

A

Decrease

372
Q

The general term for the manner in which kidneys maintain constant GFR even though the systemic BP changes?

A

Autoregulation

373
Q

Which diabetes is less common?

A

Type I

374
Q

As blood approaches the ARTERIAL end of a tissue capillary, fluid tends to go “in” or “out” of the capillary?

A

Out

375
Q

Tiny holes in the walls of the filtering capillaries of the kidneys allowing increased filtration?

A

Fenestrae

376
Q

How much of the interstitial fluid is removed by the lymphatics?

A

10%

377
Q

A condition that is indicated when renal function is approximately 10% of normal is known as?

A

End Stage Renal Failure

378
Q

What is the name for a disease in which the patient is unable to produce receptors for antidiuretic hormone?

A

Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

379
Q

The term “colloid” really refers to which major organic compounds?

A

Proteins

380
Q

What percent of water (or sodium) is reabsorbed by the collecting ducts?

A

9.3%

381
Q

Which of the renal tubules drain into the Renal Papillae/Major Calyx?

A

Collecting Duct

382
Q

Type I diabetes may destroy beta cells of the pancreas by way of?

A

Autoimmune mechanism

383
Q

Which of the following is a primary defect in neurogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

Patient is unable to produce ADH

384
Q

The primary toxic nitrogenous waste product is produced by the degradation of nucleotide bases and “___”?

A

Proteins or their Amino Acids

385
Q

How many potassium ions are pumped into the urine to be excreted under the influence of aldosterone?

A

2

386
Q

The most common form of kidney stones are made of?

A

Calcium Oxylate

387
Q

What is the primary defect in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

Lacking functional receptors for ADH

388
Q

Describe the relative interstitial colloid pressure at the VENOUS end of a tissue capillary?

A

Low

389
Q

Describe the relative interstitial colloid pressure at the ARTERIAL end of a tissue capillary?

A

High

390
Q

In diabetes, how much above the normal can the urine output reach?

A

12 times

391
Q

As blood approaches the VENOUS end of a tissue capillary, it becomes more?

A

Hypertonic

392
Q

ANP activates the sodium pump to pump 3 sodium ions “into” or “out of” the urine?

A

Into

393
Q

What structure in the kidneys indirectly monitors BP through urine flow?

A

Macula densa

394
Q

A protein hormone, made by the heart that helps regulate fluid retention/loss by the kidneys?

A

Atrialnatriuretic peptide

395
Q

How does ANP have its effect?

A

Increases sodium excretion

396
Q

Is ANP due to an increase or decrease in BP?

A

Increase

397
Q

Water that is lost directly though the skin via mild un-noticed perspiration is known as?

A

Insensible

398
Q

On what compound does renin act?

A

Angiotensin

399
Q

What must happen to the relative value of the colloid pressure of the Bowman’s capsule in order to increase GFR?

A

Increase

400
Q

A type of water loss that you are unaware of is known as?

A

Insensible

401
Q

Hyperglycemia makes the blood hypertonic leading to “hypervolemia” or “hypovolemia”?

A

Hypervolemia

402
Q

Where does renin have its direct effect?

A

Liver

403
Q

What percent of water (or sodium) is reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubules?

A

65%

404
Q

What is the approximate osmolarity of the renal medulla?

A

1200 mOsmm

405
Q

Describe the relative plasma colloid pressure at the VENOUS end of a tissue capillary?

A

High

406
Q

Where is angiotensin II made?

A

Lungs

407
Q

Without regulation of GFR a slight increase in BP would?

A

Cause a drastic increase in filtration

408
Q

What is the normal value for the glomerular hydrostatic pressure (BP)?

A

55 mmHg

409
Q

Which type of diabetes is directly attributed to obesity?

A

Type II

410
Q

What must happen to the relative value of the colloid pressure of the glomerular capillary blood in order to increase GFR?

A

Decrease

411
Q

A nitrogenous waste product not filtered by kidneys?

A

Creatinine

412
Q

IF you smash your thumb in the car door, cells are damaged and spill their contents into the interstitium making it hypertonic. Does fluid move “into” or “out” of the interstitium?

A

Into

413
Q

ADH causes its effects by water retention and “___”?

A

Vasoconstriction

414
Q

A reversible condition in which blood vessels feeding the heart are damaged?

A

Coronary Artery Disease

415
Q

What must happen to the relative value of the hydrostatic pressure of the Bowman’s capsule in order to decrease GFR?

A

Increase

416
Q

An increase in blood volume has what effect on BP?

A

Hypertension

417
Q

The major, toxic nitrogenous waste product found in our blood is?

A

Urea

418
Q

Clogging of the arteries

A

Atheroscerosis

419
Q

Name the structure responsible for CREATING an extremely hypertonic renal medulla?

A

Loop of Henle

420
Q

The basic filtering unit of kidneys is known as the?

A

Nephron

421
Q

Name the structure that MAINTAINS an extremely hypertonic renal medulla?

A

Vasa Recta

422
Q

Which of the following is a disease of the renal pelvis and interstitium?

A

Pyelonepritis

423
Q

The most common cause of renal failure is?

A

Acute Tubular Necrosis

424
Q

Where is angiotensin I made?

A

Liver

425
Q

What happens to the afferent arteriole if the systemic blood pressure rises?

A

Vasoconstriction

426
Q

Describe the relative interstitial hydrostatic pressure at the VENOUS end of a tissue capillary?

A

High

427
Q

In diabetes insipidus, how much above normal can the urine output reach?

A

24 times

428
Q

Without regulation of GFR a slight decrease of only 15% in blood pressure would?

A

Stop filtration

429
Q

A condition in which arteries of the brain are clogged, stopping blood flow to certain areas of the brain?

A

Stroke

430
Q

Very high BP seen in hypertension causes fluid to move “into” or “out” of the blood?

A

Out

431
Q

The most common cause of neurological damage in western world is?

A

Diabetic neuropathy

432
Q

What is the disease that strikes young people in which the patient is unable to produce insulin

A

Type I diabetes

433
Q

Does the release of atrialnatriuretic peptide increase or decrease blood pressure/blood volume?

A

Decrease

434
Q

For osmosis, water generally follows which osmotically active particle?

A

Sodium

435
Q

What percent of kidney stones are made of uric acid?

A

7%

436
Q

What percent of the urine is made up by proteins?

A

0.03%

437
Q

What percent of kidney stones are made up of magnesium-ammonium-phosphate?

A

15%

438
Q

Anabolic reactions tend to be “endergonic” or “exergonic”?

A

Endergonic

439
Q

The metabolic norm in which an organism is biochemically balanced is?

A

Homeostasis

440
Q

All the chemical processes of an organism is?

A

Metabolism

441
Q

The process of breaking complex compounds into simpler ones is?

A

Catabolism

442
Q

In order to make ATP, lipids must be broken down into which 2-carbon molecules?

A

Acetly group

443
Q

What is the formula for glucose?

A

C6H12O6

444
Q

The water produced during intermediate reactions is what?

A

Metbolic water

445
Q

The disruption of homeostasis is generally known as?

A

Disease

446
Q

The process of combining simple compounds into complex such as growth, weight gain, etc is?

A

Anabolism

447
Q

An enzyme activity that causes the phosphorylation of ADP into ATP?

A

ATP Synthase

448
Q

Another name for electron transport chain that reflects the fact that ADP is phosphorylated into ATP?

A

Oxidative Phosphorylation

449
Q

A type of respiration that does not require O2 and makes fuel for the Kreb’s cycle and Electron Transport Chain is?

A

Anaerobic

450
Q

How many CO2 molecules are produced by the processing of 1 glucose molecule by the intermediate reaction?

A

2

451
Q

In order to make ATP proteins must be broken down into which 2-carbon molecules?

A

Acetyl group

452
Q

Where in the cell does the intermediate reaction occur?

A

Matrix of mitochondria

453
Q

In which organ is lactic acid changed into pyruvic acid?

A

Liver

454
Q

How many carbons are in one glucose molecule?

A

6

455
Q

Name the electron and H+ transfer molecule that is produced during the Kreb’s cycle that will result in the production of 2 ATPs?

A

Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide

456
Q

In order to make ATP, carbohydrates must be broken down into which 2-carbon molecules?

A

Acetyl group

457
Q

The process in which lactic acid is produced at the end of glycolysis due to low oxygen levels?

A

Anaerobic Fermentation

458
Q

Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?

A

Cytoplasm

459
Q

What is the net ATP production during glycolysis?

A

2

460
Q

What do the 2-carbon that is chemically cut away from the acetate ion during the Kreb’s cycle become?

A

CO2

461
Q

The removal of the amino group from an amino acid is what?

A

Deamination

462
Q

Where in the cell does the kreb’s cycle occur?

A

Matrix of Mitochondria

463
Q

What is the fate of the NADH produced by the intermediate reaction?

A

goes to the electron transport chain (system)

464
Q

How many CO2 molecules are produced by the processing of 1 pyruvic acid by the intermediate reaction?

A

1

465
Q

The process by which glucose is broken down into 2, 3-carbon molecules?

A

Glycolysis

466
Q

Name the electron and H+ transfer molecule that is produced during the intermediate reaction?

A

Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide

467
Q

Name the electron and H+ transfer molecule that is produced during glycolysis?

A

Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide

468
Q

Catabolic reactions tend to be “endergonic” or “exergonic”?

A

Exergonic

469
Q

Digestion is an example of “anabolism” or “catabolism”?

A

Catabolism

470
Q

What type of reaction is demonstrated when a peptide bond is broken by the addition of the equivalence of water?

A

Hydrolysis

471
Q

Give the abbreviation for the reduced form of the electron and H+ transfer molecule that is produced during glycolysis?

A

NADH

472
Q

If the NADH produced during glycolysis passes its electrons and hydrogen ions to NAD+ within the mitochondria, how many ATPs will result?

A

3

473
Q

The process in which lactic acid is changed back to pyruvic acid in the liver?

A

Cori Cycle

474
Q

What molecule is produced when oxygen accepts electrons and hydrogen ions during the very last step of respiration?

A

Water (H2O)

475
Q

Name the 3-carbon molecules produced during glycolysis with plenty of oxygen available?

A

Pyruvic acid

476
Q

What does the carbon that is chemically cut away from the pyruvic acid during the intermediate reaction become?

A

CO2

477
Q

What compound is produced from the amino groups that are removed during amino acids or nucleic acid breakdown?

A

Urea

478
Q

What molecule must attach to co-enzyme A in order to enter the Kreb’s cycle?

A

Acetate ion

479
Q

If the NADH produced during the glycolysis passes its electrons and hydrogen ions to FAD+ within the mitochondria, how many ATPs will result?

A

2

480
Q

The primary importance of the Kreb’s cycle is that it?

A

Makes more “fuel” for electron transport chain

481
Q

What happens to the carbons that are chemically cut away from the pyruvic acid that enters the intermediate reaction?

A

We breathe it out as CO2

482
Q

What do the 6 carbon that is chemically cut away from the original GLUCOSE molecule during metabolism become?

A

CO2

483
Q

What is the fate of 3-carbon molecule produced during glycolysis?

A

Intermediate reaction

484
Q

The process in which in the presence of plenty of oxygen, pyruvic acid is oxidized to carbon dioxide and water?

A

Aerobic Fermentation

485
Q

How many ATPs are directly produced from one acetate ion during the Kreb’s cycle?

A

1

486
Q

The finger-like projections of the inner mitochondrial membrane are?

A

Cristae

487
Q

Another name for glucose?

A

Dextrose

488
Q

How many ATPs will result from the NADH produced by the intermediate reaction?

A

3

489
Q

Growth is an example of “anabolism” or “catabolism”?

A

Anabolism

490
Q

Once toxic product of several metabolic processes such as glycolysis that causes a reduction in the body’s pH?

A

H+ ions

491
Q

Where does the electron transport chain occur?

A

Cristae of mitochondria

492
Q

How many acetate ions are produced by the processing of one GLUCOSE molecule during the intermediate reaction?

A

2

493
Q

How many acetate ions are produced by the processing of 1 pyruvic acid during the intermediate reaction?

A

1

494
Q

Where does oxidative phosphorylation occur?

A

Cristae of the mitochondria

495
Q

Name the electron and H+ transfer molecule that is produced during the Kreb’s cycle that will result in the production of 3 ATPs?

A

Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide

496
Q

Give the appreciation for the oxidized form of the electron and H+ transfer molecule that is produced during glycolysis?

A

NAD+

497
Q

A process by which the equivalence of water is added to a compound in order to break it down into simpler compounds?

A

Hydrolysis

498
Q

How many NADHs are produced by the processing of one pyruvic acid during the intermediate reaction?

A

1

499
Q

Pyruvic acid is broken down into what 2-carbon molecule during the intermediate reaction?

A

Acetate ion

500
Q

What is the fate of the electron and H+ transfer molecule produced during glycolysis?

A

Pass their electrons and H+ to another transfer molecule in the mitochondria

501
Q

Name the high energy molecule that is necessary to carry out most life processes that require energy?

A

Adenosine Trophosphate

502
Q

As electrons and hydrogen ions are passed from molecule to molecule to molecule during cellular respiration, what molecule is the very last to receive them?

A

Oxygen

503
Q

A 3-carbon molecule produced in low oxygen conditions that causes pain as in exercising or coronary artery disease?

A

Lactic acid

504
Q

Another name for the electron transport chain that reflects its dependency on oxygen?

A

Oxidative Phosphorylation

505
Q

How many NADHs are produced by the processing of 1 glucose molecule during the intermediate reaction?

A

2

506
Q

What is the fate of the NADH produced by the Kreb’s cycle?

A

goes to the electron transport system

507
Q

Before entering the Kreb’s cycle, what molecule must the acetate ion attach to?

A

Co-Enzyme A

508
Q

How many NADH are produced from one acetate ion during the Kreb’s cycle?

A

3

509
Q

How many ATP’s will result from each of the NADHs produced during the Kreb’s Cycle?

A

3

510
Q

How many ATPs will result from NADHs made in the cytoplasm?

A

2 or 3

511
Q

What is phosphorylated to make adenosine triphosphate?

A

Adenosine Diphosphate

512
Q

How many ATPs will result from each of the FADH2s produced during the kreb’s cycle?

A

2

513
Q

What is phosphorylated to make adenosine diphosphate?

A

Adenosine monophosphate

514
Q

The process in which H+ are pumped out of the mitochondrial matrix into the outer chamber?

A

Chemiosmosis

515
Q

A type of reaction that gives off energy such as heat is?

A

Exergonic

516
Q

How many ATPs will result in NADHs made during glycolysis?

A

2 or 3

517
Q

The center portion of the mitochondria is known as?

A

Matrix

518
Q

Pain in the left neck, shoulder, arm due to build up of a toxic molecule due to the lack of sufficient oxygen in the heart muscle?

A

Angina Pectoris

519
Q

What is the fate of the FADH2s (Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide) produced by the kreb’s cycle?

A

goes to electron transoport chain

520
Q

How many FADH2s are produced from one acetate ion during the kreb’s cycle?

A

1

521
Q

A type of reaction that required the input of energy is?

A

Endergonic

522
Q

ob-

A

before, against

523
Q

odyn-

A

pain in a certain part

524
Q

-oid

A

like, resembling

525
Q

oligo-

A

few

526
Q

oo-

A

egg

527
Q

-opia

A

defect of eye

528
Q

orchi-

A

testis

529
Q

orth-

A

straight, direct

530
Q

ory-

A

referring to

531
Q

osm-

A

smell

532
Q

osmo-

A

pushing

533
Q

pan-

A

all

534
Q

papill-

A

nipple

535
Q

para-

A

beside, near

536
Q

(pectus) pect-

A

breast

537
Q

pelv-

A

a basin

538
Q

peni-

A

a tail

539
Q

penna-

A

feather

540
Q

Pep (s) (t)

A

digest

541
Q

per-

A

through

542
Q

peri-

A

around

543
Q

permea-

A

through

544
Q

phago-

A

eat

545
Q

-phasia

A

speech

546
Q

pheno-

A

show

547
Q

phleb-

A

vein

548
Q

-phragm

A

partition

549
Q

-phylax

A

guard

550
Q

pia

A

tender

551
Q

pili

A

hairy

552
Q

pin(o)-

A

drink

553
Q

-plas

A

grow

554
Q

-plasm

A

form, shape

555
Q

platy-

A

flat

556
Q

-pelgia

A

paralysis

557
Q

pleur-

A

side, rib

558
Q

plex(us)-

A

net

559
Q

pod-

A

foot

560
Q

pre-/pro-

A

before, ahead of

561
Q

procto-

A

rectum, anus

562
Q

pron-

A

bent forward

563
Q

propri-

A

one’s own

564
Q

ptos-

A

fall

565
Q

pub-

A

of the pubis

566
Q

pulmo-

A

lung

567
Q

pyo-

A

pus

568
Q

rect-

A

straight

569
Q

retic/retin-

A

net

570
Q

retro-

A

backward, behind

571
Q

rheum-

A

water flow, change, or flux

572
Q

rhin(o)-

A

nose

573
Q

-rrhagia

A

excessive dischange

574
Q

-rrhea

A

flow or discharge

575
Q

-ruga

A

fold