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Flashcards in Test 3 Deck (201)
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1
Q

Example of a symptom?

A

Headache

2
Q

Does not involve the presence of a symptom

A

A 61-year old female who us unconscious with facial cyanosis

3
Q

Would not be performed during scene size up

A

rapidly assessing patients respiratory status

4
Q

While en route to the scene of a shooting, the dispatcher advises you that the caller states that the perpetrator has fled the scene. You should

A

confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene

5
Q

Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene you should

A

ensure that you are safe

6
Q

As you are talking to the pt your partner directs your attention to a handgun which is located on a nearby table. You should

A

position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance

7
Q

True statement regarding the MOI is correct

A

the MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient’s injuries

8
Q

Most effective way to determine whether your patient’s problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to

A

perform a careful and thorough assessment

9
Q

During an EMS call you should take standard precautions

A

upon exiting the ambulance but before pt contact

10
Q

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass casualty incident should be determined after

A

all of the patients have been triaged

11
Q

When is it most appropriate to consider requesting additional ambulances at an accident scene

A

When you determine there are multiple patients

12
Q

Goal of primary assessment

A

identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions

13
Q

Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following except

A

pulse and strength

14
Q

When approaching a 32 y/o male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain you should

A

ensure that the patient can see you approaching him

15
Q

Least level to cause an altered LOC

A

acute anxiety

16
Q

Patient who does not have AMS

A

pt with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness

17
Q

Pt who does not respond to questions but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched is also said to be

A

responsive to painful stimuli

18
Q

An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. You assess her LOC as unresponsive using AVPU. Initial care should focus on

A

airway breathing and circulation (ABC’s)

19
Q

What is AVPU?

A
means of assessing LOC - 
Alert
Verbal 
Pain 
Unresponsive
20
Q

Pt short term memory is most likely intact if they correctly answer questions regarding

A

date and event

21
Q

29-y/o male w/ head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move extremities on command. GCS score is

A

13

22
Q

Injured patient gets 9 on GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, 3 for verbal response, and 4 for motor. What clinical findings are consistent with GCS score?

A

opens eyes in response to pain, used inappropriate words, and withdraws from pain

23
Q

When inspecting pt pupils with penlight, the pupils should normally react to light by

A

constricting

24
Q

When you shine light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to

A

become smaller

25
Q

Most likely cause the pupils to remain significantly constricted

A

overdose of an opiate drug

26
Q

Open airway of unresponsive pt with suspected trauma?

A

jaw-thrust maneuver

27
Q

Most correct statement regarding stridor

A

high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound

28
Q

Indicates that pt has a patent airway

A

forceful coughing

29
Q

Pt is unconscious, has ineffective breathing and has bloody secretions. Partner is holding c-spine. I should?

A

immediately suction the oropharynx

30
Q

40 y/o crashed motorcycle, semiconscious, has snoring respirations, has laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should

A

open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver

31
Q

After performing a head tip-chin lift to open the airway of an unresponsive pt with pulse, you should

A

suction as needed and insert airway adjunct

32
Q

pt with spontaneous respirations is breathing

A

without assistance

33
Q

supplemental O2 via nonrebreathing mask should be administered to pt

A

with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume

34
Q

33 y/o male unresponsive. Patent airway and respirations are rapid and shallow. Initial action should be to

A

provide assisted ventilations

35
Q

If a patient develops difficulty breathing after primary assessment you should immediately

A

reevaluate airway status

36
Q

normal adult respiratory range

A

12-20 breaths per minute

37
Q

Normal respiratory rate should not increase ____ Breaths/min in children and ___ BPM in infants

A

30, 50

38
Q

Most effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in lungs

A

auscultating breath sounds with stethoscope

39
Q

Abnormal breath sound that indicates obstruction of the upper airway

A

stridor

40
Q

clinical signs of labored breathing do not include

A

shallow chest movement

41
Q

When pt respirations are shallow

A

tidal volume will be easily noticeable

42
Q

Sign of respiratory distress seen most commonly in peds pt’s

A

seesaw breathing

43
Q

Adult pt who is not experiencing difficulty breathing will

A

be able to to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses

44
Q

You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he/she

A

has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone

45
Q

During the primary assessment circulation is evaluated by assessing

A

pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition

46
Q

Palpable pulse is created by

A

pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contractions

47
Q

Most accurate guide to palpating a pulse

A

tips of index and long fingers over the pulse point

48
Q

In responsive pt that are over 1 y/o you should palpate the pulse at the

A

radial artery

49
Q

Carotid pulse not recommended in infants because

A

you may inadvertently compress the trachea

50
Q

When palpating carotid pulse of a responsive older pt you should

A

avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously

51
Q

Call to daycare for unresponsive 8 m/o. Arrive and perform an assessment and determine infant isn’t breathing. Next action should be

A

assess for a brachial pulse for 5-10 seconds

52
Q

If you can’t palpate pulse in an unresponsive pt, you should

A

immediately begin CPR

53
Q

Unresponsive 62 y/o. Primary assessment = apneic and pulseless, you should

A

start CPR and attach AED ASAP

54
Q

Most likely cause pt pulse rate to be slower than normal

A

beta-blocker meds

55
Q

When palpating pt pulse you notice it is grossly irregular. You should

A

count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading

56
Q

normal resting adult pulse

A

60 and 110 BPM

57
Q

bradycardia - pulse less than ____

tachycardia - heart rate grater than ____

A

60 BPM/100 BPM

58
Q

Pulse with constant pattern is

A

regular

59
Q

You notice that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates the pulse is

A

rapid

60
Q

62 y/o with crushing chest pain, pulse is rapid and irregular. In addition to administering O2 you should

A

transport at once and consider requesting medics

61
Q

black people, changes in color are apparent in certain areas such as

A

lips or oral mucosa

62
Q

In infants and small children, skin color should be assessed on

A

palms and soles

63
Q

poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear

A

ashen

64
Q

Bluish tint to skin

A

cyanosis

65
Q

cyanosis is caused by

A

decreased blood O2

66
Q

normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be

A

pink warm and dry

67
Q

Pt with HTN would be expected to have skin thats

A

flushed and red

68
Q

40 y/o
pain in RUQ
conscious and alert with stable vitals - skin and sclera are jaundiced - what do you suspect

A

liver dysfunction

69
Q

Cap refill

A

2 secs

70
Q

6 m/o male
vomiting and diarrhea
cap refil - 4 secs

A

peripheral circulation is decreased

71
Q

cap refill time is most reliable in

A

children who are younger than 6

72
Q

external bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled by a combination of

A

direct pressure and elevation

73
Q

39 y/o
stab wound to the groin
conscious - screaming in pain - attempting to control the bleeding which is bright red and spurting

A

apply direct pressure to the wound

74
Q

full body scan should take no longer than

A

60-90 secs

75
Q

after primary assessment, a rapid scan of the body should be performed in order to

A

identify less obvious injuries that require immediate treatment

76
Q

Gently palpate a pt pelvis only if

A

pt does not complain of pelvic pain

77
Q

Warrants immediate transport

A

severe chest pain and cool, pale skin

78
Q

When performing a full body scan, what part of the body is assessed last?

A

Posterior

79
Q

As you assess the head of a pt with suspected spinal injury, your partner should

A

maintain stabilization of the head

80
Q

50 y/o male - AMS
wife says he had a “small stroke” 3 years ago but otherwise in good health - responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering O2, you should

A

prepare for immediate transport

81
Q

Golden period begins when an injury occurs and ends when

A

the patient receives definite care

82
Q

After first 60 minutes of experiencing a significant injury

A

the body ability to compensate for shock decreases

83
Q

Unstable pt should be reassessed at least every

A

5 min

84
Q

during 30 min transport of stable pt you should reassess him/her at least

A

2x

85
Q

part of pt assessment that focuses on obtaining additional info about pt CC and any med problems that they may have

A

history taking

86
Q

CC is

A

most serious thing pt is concerned about

87
Q

You enter the residence and find pt sitting in chair in obvious distress. 1st action is to

A

introduce yourself

88
Q

Question used to determine CC

A

What seems to be the matter?

89
Q

When interviewing pt you can show them that you understand the situation by

A

repeating statements back to them

90
Q

50 y/o male found unconscious in car
no witnesses
when gather med hx info for pt EMT should

A

determine if pt has medical alert bracelet or wallet card

91
Q

What is SAMPLE

A
Signs and symptoms 
Allergies 
Meds
PMHx
Last oral intake 
Events leading up to
92
Q

What is SAMPLE report?

A

intake; patient history; not for unconscious pt

93
Q

What question would you ask to ascertain the M in SAMPLE history?

A

how much tylenol do you take daily

94
Q

Patient response that would establish the E in SAMPLE

A

I was mowing the lawn when the pain began

95
Q

Palliating factors regarding pt pain involve those that

A

alleviate the pain

96
Q

pertinent negative identified

A

59 y/o man c/o CP but denies SOB

97
Q

Statement regarding secondary assessment is correct

A

focuses on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the CC; you may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were determined during primary assessment

98
Q

WHen using pulse oximeter as part of assessment of a pt, it is important to realize that

A

any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of RBC’s such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value

99
Q

End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) is defined as the

A

maximal concentration of CO2 at the end of an exhaled breath

100
Q

A low ETCO2 reading, as measured by capnography would most likely be observed if

A

An endotracheal (ET) tube is correctly placed on the trachea

101
Q

EMT would most likely not perform ___ on a responsive pt with HA and no apparent life threatening conditions

A

systematic head to toe exam

102
Q

Goal of full-body scan that is performed during secondary assessment is to

A

locate injuries not found in the primary assessment

103
Q

full-body scan should be performed on

A

pt with significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients

104
Q
MVA
young female sitting on curb
confused 
obvious respiratory disress
pale, moist skin
partner holds c-spine
i perform primary assessment. After performing any immediate life saving treatment i should
A

perform a rapid scan of her entire body and prepare for immediate transport

105
Q

Battle signs

A

bruising behind ear

106
Q

a decrease in BP may indicate

A

loss of vascular tone

107
Q

pressure exerted against walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the

A

systolic BP

108
Q

diastolic pressure represents

A

minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries

109
Q

BP 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the

A

ventricles relaxing

110
Q

BP cuff that is too small will give a

A

false high systolic and diastolic

111
Q

proper size BP cuff

A

should cover 2/3 the length from the armpit to the crease in the elbow

112
Q

BP is usually not measured in

A

children younger than 3 y/o

113
Q

When auscultating BP in pt upper extremity, you should place head of stethoscope over

A

brachial artery

114
Q

When you use the palpation method to obtain a BP, the measurement you obtain is the

A

systolic BP

115
Q

Crackling sound produced by air bubbles under skin is called

A

subcutaneous emphysema

116
Q

Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is

A

sitting up at 45 degree angle

117
Q

most accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall

A

only one section of the chest rises on inspiration while another area falls

118
Q

When performing reassessment you,

A

repeat the primary assessment

119
Q

Pharmacology is

A

study of drugs and their action on the body

120
Q

Meds with antagonistic properties is one that

A

blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them

121
Q

Example of a brand (trade) name of a drug

A

Tylenol

122
Q

Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are brand (trade) names for the genetic medication

A

ibuprofen

123
Q

Example of a drug’s generic name

A

aspirin

124
Q

Motrin can be obtained

A

over the counter (OTC)

125
Q

Correct statement regarding parenteral meds

A

Parenteral meds are absorbed more quickly than enteral meds

126
Q

Med route most appropriate to use in an unconscious pt when IV access cannot be obtained

A

intraosseous

127
Q

Subcutaneous injections deliver the meds

A

between skin and muscle

128
Q

How is nitroglycerin delivered by EMT

A

sublingually

129
Q

Medication route delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as nitroglycerin or nicotine patch?

A

transcutaneous

130
Q

a mucosal atomizer device MAD is used to deliver certain meds vi

A

intranasal route

131
Q

Meds encased in gelatin shell taken by mouth are

A

capsules

132
Q

Activated charcoal is an example of a

A

suspension

133
Q

oral glucose comes in a

A

gel

134
Q

As you assist a female who presents with signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction administer her epic pen..after you administer 100% O2 you should

A

contact medical control

135
Q

Peer assisted administration

A

administer meds to yourself or your partner

136
Q

Binding or sticking to a surface

A

adsorption

137
Q

Maximum dose of activated charcoal for a 7 y/o boy who weighs 22 kg

A

44 g

138
Q

Activated charcoal is frequently suspended in sorbitol, a complex sugar that

A

facilitates movement through the digestive system

139
Q

Correct statement regarding glucose

A

Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream

140
Q

Aspirin prevents the

A

aggregation of platelets

141
Q

When given to pt with cardiac-related chest pain, nitroglycerin

A

relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries

142
Q

Not a characteristic of epinephrine

A

decreases HR and BP

143
Q

Correct statement regarding epi-pen

A

epi-pen delivers a preset amount of the drug

144
Q

With the flowmeter set at 6 L/min the nasal cannula will deliver up to

A

44% O2

145
Q

The medication Alupent suggests that the patient has a history of

A

asthma

146
Q

The medications simvastatin (Vytorin) and clopidogrel (Plavix) suggest a history of

A

cardiovascular disease

147
Q

BLS is defined as

A

noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest

148
Q

How long without O2 is brain damage likely

A

5 min

149
Q

After establishing that an adult pt is unresponsive, you should

A

assess for breathing

150
Q

Which is not a BLS intervention

A

cardiac monitoring

151
Q

Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of

A

a cardiac arrhythmia

152
Q

Correct statement regarding ventricular fibrillation (v-fib)

A

survival rates decrease by 7% to 10% for each minute that V-fib persist

153
Q

60 y/o woman collapsed 7 min ago - unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should?

A

begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as its available

154
Q

Correct statement regarding use of the AED in children

A

AED use in children in up to 8 y/o involves pediatric pads and an energy reduces

155
Q

Open an airway with suspected spinal injury

A

jaw-thrust

156
Q

If jaw-thrust maneuver is unsuccessful you should

A

carefully attempting head tilt chin lift

157
Q

Pt should be placed in recovery position when he or she

A

is unconscious, uninjured, and breathing adequately

158
Q

When ventilating an apneic adult with a simple barrier device you should deliver each breath

A

while watching for adequate chest rise

159
Q

If gastric distention is so severe that it makes positive-pressure ventilation extremely difficult or impossible, you may have to

A

apply manual pressure to the abdomen

160
Q

CPR will not be effective if the pt is

A

prone

161
Q

A complication not associated with chest compressions

A

gastric distention

162
Q

60 y/o M found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apnea. You should

A

begin CPR until an AID is available

163
Q

Afterpt airway is intubated during 2-rescuer CPR you should

A

deliver 1 rescue breath every 6-8 secs

164
Q

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during CPR by

A

limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filing

165
Q

In MOST cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by

A

respiratory arrest

166
Q

An apneic infants child should be ventilated an max of

A

20x/min

167
Q

Proper depth of chest compressions on a 9 month old

A

1/3 the diameter of the chest or about 1 1/2”

168
Q

max # of chest compressions that should be delivered/minute to a 4mo infant

A

100

169
Q

When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant you should palpate the

A

Brachial artery

170
Q

Correct compression/ventilations when performing 2 rescuer child CPR

A

15-2

171
Q

CPR should be initiated when

A

a valid living will is unavailable

172
Q

Most appropriate treatment for a pt with mild upper airway obstruction

A

administering O2 and transport immediately

173
Q

Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with severe upper airway obstruction are performed

A

until he or she loses consciousness

174
Q

Technique used to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a pt who is in advanced stage or pregnancy or very obese

A

chest thrusts

175
Q

Initial attempt to ventilate an unresponsive apneic 30y/o M is met with resistance and you do not see chest rise. Your second ventilation attempt is also unsuccessful. You should

A

perform 30 chest compressions

176
Q

Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves

A

back slaps

177
Q

Index of suspicion is

A

your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness

178
Q

You and EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50 y/o M c/o weakness. Primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. Closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should?

A

manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit

179
Q

When forming general impression of a pt with a medical complaint it is important to remember that

A

the conditions of many medical pt may not appear serious at first

180
Q

Upon initial contact with a pt who appears to be unconscious you should

A

attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the pt

181
Q

Primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert but experiencing difficulty breathing. Hx of emphysema, HTN, and CHF. As you asses circulatory status you should direct your partner to

A

administer O2 with the appropriate device

182
Q

In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment, or circulation in the conscious pt should involve

A

checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temp, and condition of skin

183
Q

When assessing a pt with a medical complaint, which of the following would most likely reveal the cause of his or her problem

A

history taking

184
Q

What will most reliably allow you to determine the nature of pt illness

A

asking questions related to the CC

185
Q

58 y/o M - c/o chest discomfort and nausea - conscious and alert - BP 140/90 - pulse 104 - respirations 16/min - partner applied supplemental O2 - prior to assisting the pt with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets you ask him if he takes meds to treat erectile dysfunction and he tells you that he does. You should

A

ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it

186
Q

The secondary assessment of a medical pt

A

is not practical if the pt is critically ill or your transport time is short

187
Q

When performing a secondary assessment with a conscious pt with non traumatic abdominal pain and stable vitals you should

A

focus on the CC

188
Q

Assessment finding indicative of a cardiovascular problem

A

Jugular venous distention

189
Q

33 y/o F - lower abdominal quadrant pain - conscious and alert - moderate pain - unable to locate radial pulse - you should?

A

assess rate, regularity and quality of her carotid pulse

190
Q

End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for pt who presents with

A

respiratory distress

191
Q

Reassessment of pt with a medical complaint should begin by

A

repeating the primary assessment

192
Q

Primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies

A

address pt symptoms more than the actual disease process

193
Q

EMT Least likely administer to a pt with a medical complaint

A

naloxone (Narcan)

194
Q

AMS and signs of circulatory compromise you should

A

limit your time at the scene to 10 min or less, if possible

195
Q

The determination of whether a medical pt is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made

A

after the primary assessment has been completed

196
Q

Correct statement regarding SARS

A

SARS is caused by a virus and usually starts with flulike symptoms that deteriorate to pneumonia and respiratory failure

197
Q

Factors that increase the risk for developing MRSA include

A

prolonged hospitalizations, especially in an intensive care unit

198
Q

In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis

A

is not a communicable disease

199
Q

Pt with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk o transmitting the disease when they

A

cough

200
Q

Hep B is more virulent than Hep C which means that it

A

has a greater ability to produce disease

201
Q

Typical CC of patient with infectious disease

A

fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing