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Flashcards in Small Animal Medicine Deck (309)
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1

What is the main reason for a Pre-GA Exam?

Determine the ability of the CV and Respiratory system to maintain O2 delivery and waste removal

2

T/F Smaller dogs and youngsters should decrease fasting time due to decreased glycogen stores & higher metabolic rates.

true

3

What are the parts of a signalment?

1) Species
2) Breed
3) Weight
4) Age
5) Sex
6) Reproductive status

4

Normal temperature for dog and cat.

dog: 99.5-102.5
cat: 100-102.5

5

______ can cause abortions

glucocorticoids

6

6 divisions of anesthetic risks- ASA classification of Patient Risk:
1) Class I-
2) Class II-
3) Class III-
4) Class IV-
5) Class V-
6) Class VI-

1) minimal risk, healthy animal with no underlying dz
2) slight risk (neonate or geriatric) mild systemic disease
3) moderate risk, moderate systemic disease and mild clinical signs
4) high risk, pre-existing systemic dz of severe nature
5) extreme risk, patient not expected to survive
6) patient will not recover

7

Atropine and Glycopyrrolate are what type of preanesthetics?

anticholinergics

8

Name 2 tranquilizers/sedatives.

1) Phenothiazines
2) Benzodiazepines
3) Alpha-2 agonists
4) Opioids

9

How do anticholinergics work?

Block acetylcholine (vagus nerve) from parasympathetic on the muscarinic receptors

10

What's the difference between Benzodiazepines and Alpha-2 agonists?

Alpha-2 agonists can be reversed and give analgesia

11

What are 2 parts of the minimum database?

1) Patient history
2) Nature of procedure
3) Complete physical examination
4) Diagnostic tests
5) In consult with DVM, patient status and anesthetic risk

12

What are the three basic action of the anesthesia machine?

1) Deliver O2
2) Safe anesthesia concentration
3) Remove CO2

13

What are the basic components?

1) Compressed gas source
2) Anesthetic machine
3) Breathing circuit

14

What does the pressure gauge do?

Indicates the pressure of the gas remaining within the cylinder

15

What does the flow meter do?

1) Controls rate at which specific gas is delivered
2) Further reduces pressure to 15 psi

16

What is a Rotameter?

Ball or bobbin rising within graduated glass tube to height proportional to flow of gas in tube

17

The Oxygen Flush valve bypasses the _____ and is direct to common gas outlet or anesthetic circle

vaporizer

18

What does the O2 flush valve do?

Dilutes anesthetic gas in system

19

What does the vaporizer do?

Volatilizes liquids & inhaled anesthetics & delivers clinically useful concentrations of anesthetic vapor

20

If someone is color blind, how will they know where the oxygen tank and the nitrogen tank goes?

the Pin-index cylinders, for those connecting to the machine directly it has different positions for different gases

21

When should an O2 flush valve not be used?

1) should NEVER be used in closed breathing system without an open expiratory valve
2) should NEVER be used in a nonrebreather
3) should NEVER be used while the patient is connected

22

What's the difference between the rebreather vs the nonrebreather?

Rebreather: Eliminate CO2 by chemical removal and allows same gas to be rebreathed by patient
Nonrebreather: Eliminates CO2 by flushing of waste or exhaust system

23

What transfers gas from machine to patient

endotracheal tube

24

Used to increase visibility of larynx

laryngoscopes

25

Define Anesthesia.

State of controlled and reversible unconsciousness achieved through the use of injectable and/ or inhaled drugs and characterized by the absence of pain perception, memory, motor response to stimuli or reflex responses

26

What are the two routes of anesthesia?

injectable and inhalant

27

Advantages and disadvantages of inhalation anesthesia.

1) Advantages: Depth of anesthesia can be readily altered, Elimination occurs mainly through the lungs, Allows the constant delivery of 100% O2
2) Disadvantages: Requires an anesthetic machine, Induction is slow when used alone

28

What are the uses for an ET tube?

-Efficient delivery of gas
-Correct size improves efficiency by reducing anatomic dead space (portions of breathing passages containing air but no gas exchange)
-Prevents aspiration
-Inflated cuff decreases risk

29

ET placement Disadvantages:

-Increased vagal tone
-Difficulty
-Laryngeal damage
-Blind
-Using human tubes= can be too long which increases anatomic dead space
-Pressure necrosis

30

What stage of anesthesia is where the 4 planes occur?

stage 3