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RUSVM Small Animal Medicine (SAM) > SAM I Exam II Material > Flashcards

SAM I Exam II Material Flashcards

1
Q

Glossopharyngeal and Vagus nerves are tested by the _____________ reflex

A

gag reflex

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1
Q

In what canine breed is congenital deafness most common?

A

Dalmations

15-30% are deaf; 8% bilateral and 22% unilateral. This is the result of an autosomal recessive gene with incomplete penetrance that causes total or partial agenesis of the cochlea and its nervous inntervations

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2
Q

T/F: KCS is a common sequela of canine polymyositis

A

False

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3
Q

What is the predominant clinical sign associated with cervical disc disease?

A

Severe neck pain

This pain may have an acute or slower onset

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3
Q

What are the most frequently observed seizures in veterinary medicine?

A

Generalized tonic-clonic seizures

Generalized tonic-clonic seizures are by far the most frequently observed seizures in veterinary medicine

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3
Q

T/F: Brain stem lesions result in contralateral deficits

A

False

Brainstem lesions result in ipsilateral deficits, so if there is a lesion on the left side of the brainstem, signs would appear on the left side of the animal

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4
Q

T/F: In dogs with masticatory myositis there is usually a good response to antibiotic therapy

A

False

In dogs with masticatory myositis there is usually a good response to steroid therapy

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4
Q

In the case of cranial trauma, what is the first thing that should be treated?

A

Shock & life-threatening injuries

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4
Q

Narcolepsy is diagnosed by:

A

EEG

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5
Q

Rear limb paresis may be seen in advanced cases of lumbosacral malarticulation-malformation and dogs often have decreased extension of the hock due to involvement of what nerve?

A

Sciatic nerve

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5
Q

T/F: Contralateral conscious proprioception deficits are often seen associated with central vestibular disease

A

False

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5
Q

What is the 1st drug of choice for anticonvulsant therapy in dogs?

A

Phenobarbital

  • Phenobarbital enhances GABA action and thus inhibits spread of seizure activity and elevates seizure threshold*
  • **Phenobarbital is contraindicated in liver disease***
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6
Q

Paresis associated with Canine Wobblers is most pronounced in the __________ limbs

(thoracic, pelvic)

A

Paresis associated with cervical spondylomyelopathy (Canine wobblers) is most pronounced in the _pelvic_ limbs

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6
Q

Elevated CK levels and hypergammaglobulinemia are consistent with:

A

canine polymyositis

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7
Q

T/F: Adult heartworms usually die within a few hours after treatment with Melarsomine

A

False

Worms mostly die between 3 and 21 days after therapy is completed

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9
Q

T/F: Severe peripheral nerve injuries may result in hyperesthesia and hyperreflexia

A

False

Severe peripheral nerve injuries may result in _an_esthesia and _a_reflexia

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9
Q

The tensilon test is used to screen for:

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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10
Q

Decreased capacity for physical sensation is termed:

A

hypesthesia

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10
Q

Why must hypercapnia be avoided in cases of cranial trauma?

A

Hypercapnia and hypoxia induce vasodilation, which increases intracranial pressure

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11
Q

T/F: Spontaneous recovery is often seen with Feline Hyperesthesia Syndrome

A

False

The condition is progressive over one to several years and the prognosis poor despite treatment with prednisone, anti-depressants, phenobarbitone, carnitine, coenzyme Q, etc.

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12
Q

What modalities are considered essential for an accurate diagnosis of cord compression in animals with canine wobblers?

A

Myelography or MRI

In many cases, survey radiographs may appear normal

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12
Q

T/F: Granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis (GME) can cause focal or multifocal neurological signs

A

True

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12
Q

Seizures in dogs typically have three phases. What are those three phases?

A

Preictal, Ictal, and Post-ictal

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12
Q

Bacterial Meningitis is usually caused by __________ and has a __________ prognosis

A

Bacterial Meningitis is usually caused by Staphylococcus intermedius and has a poor prognosis

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12
Q

Dysautonomia is associated with toxoinfection by:

A

Clostridium botulinum

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13
Q

T/F: Dogs with diskospondylitis usually have depression, pyrexia, weight loss, head tilting, and hyperesthesia

A

False

  • Dogs with diskospondylitis usually have depression, pyrexia, weight loss, and hyperesthesia.*
  • The head tilting part is nonsense - read a book.*
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14
Q

All of the following are progressive diseases except:

  • Feline Hypesthesia
  • Coonhound Paralysis
  • Cerebellar Abiotrophy
  • IVDD
  • Hydrocephalus
A

Coonhound Paralysis

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15
Q

Bromide is commonly used in veterinary medicine as an add-on drug for epilepsy that is poorly controlled with phenobarbital alone. With what condition in dogs is bromide contraindicated?

A

renal insufficiency

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16
Q

What canine breed is most predisposed to thoracolumbar intervertebral disc disease?

A

Dachshunds

(70% of cases)

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16
Q

A dog has a lesion between T3 and L3.

Will it have a patellar reflex?

A

Yes, and it will be exaggerated

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17
Q

Complete severance of a nerve and degeneration of the distal portion and its Schwann cells is termed:

A

Neurotmesis

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17
Q

Myelin Basic Protein is usually elevated in the CSF with which condition?

A

Degenerative myelopathy

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19
Q

T/F: Idiopathic epilepsy is less common in cats than in dogs

A

True

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20
Q

What is the adulticide drug of choice for treatment of heartworm in dogs?

A

Melarsomine

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20
Q

When are signs of hydrocephalus typically noted in dogs?

A

Puppies (weeks to months of age)

The signs are progressive and include altered mental attitude, seizures, visual and auditory impairment, tetraparesis, and ventrolateral strabismus

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20
Q

In dogs with atlanto-axial subluxation, spinal cord compression occurs because of dorsal displacement of the axis by three potential mechanisms. What is the most common mechanism?

A

Absence or hypoplasia of the odontoid process/dens

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20
Q

You would NOT see ventral neck flexion in a cat with:

  • Hypokalemia
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Myasthenia gravis
  • Thiamine deficiency
A

Hyperkalemia

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20
Q

T/F: KCS is a common sequela of idiopathic facial nerve paralysis

A

True

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21
Q

T/F: Idiopathic peripheral vestibular disease occurs in both cats and older dogs

A

True

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23
Q

T/F: Short term antibiotic therapy is highly effective for treatment of diskospondylitis

A

False

The antibiotics should be given parenterally for as long as possible to ensure high blood levels and good penetration into lesions. Treatment should be continued until there are no radiographic signs of active infection

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23
Q

T/F: Left ventricular enlargement is common in dogs with heartworm

A

False

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24
Q

T/F: Phenobarbital is contraindicated for use in dogs with kidney disease

A

False

Phenobarbital is contraindicated for use in dogs with liver disease

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25
Q

T/F: Fibrocartilaginous embolism typically occurs in larger breed, middle-aged dogs

A

True

It is most common in large breed dogs anywhere between 1-7 years old

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25
Q

If you have UMN signs in all four limbs, which region of the spinal cord is most likely affected?

A

C1-C5

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26
Q

Protozoal polyradiculoneuritis is most commonly caused by __________________ infection

A

Neospora caninum

Toxoplasmosis may also be involved

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27
Q

Central vestibular disease occurs in mature dogs and is most often due to:

A

neoplasia and encephalitis

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29
Q

If you have normal forelimbs and UMN signs in the hindlimbs, which region of the spinal cord is most likely affected?

A

T3-L3

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30
Q

T/F: There is no effective treatment for degenerative myelopathy in dogs

A

True

Corticosteroids, NSAIDs, and B vitamins have no effect on the course of the disease

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32
Q

Which reflex tests the integrity of the pudendal nerve?

A

Perineal Reflex

Pinching of the skin in the perineal region should result in contraction of the anus, lifting of the vulva and dropping of the tail. This tests the integrity of the pudendal nerve.

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33
Q

What are the contraindications for use of Diazepam for seizure control in cats?

A

liver disease

Hepatotoxicity is not a recognized side effect of diazepam in humans or in dogs but idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity has been described in cats given oral diazepam for behavioral problems

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34
Q

T/F: Surgical debridement of infected tissue is the only effective treatment for dogs with diskospondylitis

A

False

Dogs with minimal neurological dysfunction can be treated with analgesics and antibiotics

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36
Q

What is the treatment of choice (initially) for dogs with cervical disc disease that do not have marked neurological deficits?

A

cage rest

If dogs improve, they should be kept in their cages until 2 weeks after all signs have resolved. If cage rest does not improve their condition, surgery is indicated

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37
Q

T/F: Ivermectin can not be used as heartworm prophylaxis in Collies

A

False

At prophylactic doses, Ivermectin can be safely given to collies

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38
Q

T/F: Hemilaminectomy is the surgery of choice to relieve pressure on the spinal cord for treatment of cervical disc disease

A

False

Ventral fenestration or ventral decompression are the surgical techniques of choice for treatment of cervical disc disease

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40
Q

T/F: Prednisolone can be used instead of cage rest in dogs that are mildly effected by thoracolumbar intervertebral disc disease

A

False

Corticosteroids given without cage rest often results in temporary improvement and then relapse with far more severe signs

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43
Q

T/F: A lesion at L4-S2 can cause LMN signs in the pelvic limbs

A

True

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44
Q

T/F: Medical therapy is successful in most cases of Canine wobblers, with a more than 70% recovery rate

A

False

Medical therapy is only palliative as the condition is progressive - 40-60% recover, 30% are stable, 20-30% deteriorate

44
Q

Dorsiflexion of the neck with extension of all four limbs is consistent with __________ rigidity

A

decerebrate rigidity

45
Q

T/F: Irregular respiration and unresponsive bilateral mydriasis indicate a poor prognosis in the case of cranial trauma

A

True

  • When the brainstem is severely damaged, the respiratory pattern becomes irregular in rate and amplitude and is associated with bradycardia.*
  • Bilateral unresponsive mydriasis is usually indicative of irreversible midbrain damage or cerebellar herniation.*
46
Q

Brain edema is best treated with:

A

mannitol

48
Q

Chronic progressive monoparesis with neurogenic muscle atrophy and ‘root signature’ is highly suggestive of:

A

Nerve Root Neoplasia

49
Q

T/F: Hyperesthesia is typically associated with LMN signs

A

False

49
Q

What intervertebral space is typically affected in Dobermans with cervical disc disease?

A

C6/C7

49
Q

What is the most common inflammatory myopathy in dogs?

A

Autoimmune polymyositis

50
Q

T/F: Degenerative myelopathy is very painful and urinary and fecal incontinence is very common

A

False

Pain and urinary & fecal incontinence usually does not occur until very very late in the progression of the disease

50
Q

What canine breed is most associated with X-linked dystrophinopathy?

A

Golden Retreivers

51
Q

T/F: A lesion between C1 and C5 will show LMN bladder signs

A

False

A lesion between C1 and C5 will show UMN bladder signs

52
Q

T/F: Dogs should be cage rested for 1-2 weeks after heartworm adulticide treatment

A

False

Dogs should be cage rested for at least 4-6 weeks after heartworm adulticide treatment

54
Q

Which nerve is being tested with the extensor carpi radialis reflex?

A

Radial nerve

55
Q

List the common signs associated with LMN lesions:

A
  • Paresis or paralysis
  • Loss of muscle tone
  • Hyporeflexia (or areflexia)
  • Muscle atrophy (rapid & severe)
56
Q

T/F: Heartworm prophylaxis is indicated for all dogs at risk, starting from 6-8 weeks of age

A

True

57
Q

Cerebellar hypoplasia in cats is due to intrauterine infections with:

A

panleukopenia parvovirus

58
Q

What canine breed is most associated with caudal occipital malformation syndrome (COMS)?

A

Cavalier King Charles Spaniels

59
Q

T/F: Phenobarbital is contraindicated in dogs with existing liver disease

A

True

61
Q

What is the most common brain tumor in cats?

A

Meningioma

Lymphomas and gliomas are the other common primary tumors

63
Q

What are the main signs associated with vestibular disease?

A

head tilt, circling (to the affected side), and nystagmus

64
Q

T/F: Fibrocartilaginous emboli is associated with paresis or paralysis that is lateralizing and not painful

A

True

66
Q

T/F: Botulism, tick paralysis, and coonhound paralysis all cause flaccid paralysis in the dog

A

True

67
Q

T/F: Cage rest helps most dogs with Grade I, II, and III thoracolumbar intervertebral disc disease

A

True

Strict cage rest for 2 weeks is usually successful in 80-100% of patients. Only ~33% of patients treated with cage rest will have a recurrence of signs

69
Q

What diagnostic modality is typically used to determine the severity of heartworm disease in a patient?

A

Radiographs

70
Q

T/F: Surgery is indicated for decompression of the spinal cord and stabilization of vertebrae fractured by trauma, but only if the injury occurred less than 4 hours before surgery

A

True

If the injury is more than 4 hours old and there is no deep pain the prognosis is grave and surgery probably will not help

72
Q

Complete loss of voluntary motor function in a single limb is termed:

A

Monoplegia

73
Q

What are the indications for placing an animal on anticonvulsant threrapy?

A
  • Seizures occuring more frequently than once every 6-8 weeks
  • Clusters of seizures
  • Prolonged seizures
  • Status epilepticus
  • Symptomatic epilepsy caused by active CNS disease
75
Q

What are the most appropriate fluids to use in the case of cranial trauma?

A

hypertonic saline or hetastarch

These will increase cerebral perfusion and at the same time decrease intracranial pressure by their osmotic drag effect

76
Q

An abnormal increase in sensitivity to a stimuli is termed:

A

hyperesthesia

77
Q

List the common signs associated with UMN lesions:

A
  • Paralysis/paresis
  • Normal to hyperreflexia
  • Normal to increased muscle tone
  • Minimal (disuse) atrophy
79
Q

T/F: Deafness is a common congenital problem in Dalmations. It is typically recommended that bilaterally deaf puppies be euthanized

A

True

80
Q

For cervical spondylomyelopathy (Canine wobblers), long-term treatment benefits are usually provided by:

A

surgical decompression and/or surgical stabilization

(70-90% of dogs show improvement)

81
Q

T/F: UMN and LMN lesions both result in paralysis or paresis

A

True

82
Q

T/F: Peripheral vestibular disease is usually associated with otitis

A

True

Usually bacterial infections are responsible and are diagnosed by otoscopy and radiographs.

83
Q

T/F: Spontaneous recovery may be seen with Tick Paralysis

A

True

84
Q

What surgical techniques may be used to treat cervical disc disease?

A

ventral fenestration or ventral decompression

85
Q

T/F: Surgery is the treatment of choice for dogs that are paralyzed as a result of thoracolumbar intervertebral disc disease

A

True

Surgery success rates are usually over 90%. Dorsolateral hemilaminectomy is the technique of choice and the affected disc and those on either side can be fenestrated to decrease the possiblity of a relapse. Patients generally do not require a second surgery.

86
Q

What is the drug of choice for seizure control in cats?

A

Phenobarbital

Liver toxicity has not been reported in cats and there is no liver induction (no elevation of ALP, no acceleration of the phenobarbital hepatic metabolism during the first months of therapy)

87
Q

Complete loss of voluntary motor function in all four limbs is termed:

A

tetraplegia

89
Q

T/F: Clinical signs associated with fibrocartilaginous emboli typically develop over a number of days, possibly even weeks

A

False

Clinical signs associated with fibrocartilaginous emboli develop peracutely, frequently (60%) during or after vigorous exercise

90
Q

Which reflex tests the integrity of the sciatic nerve?

A

Cranial tibialis reflex

Here the belly of the cranial tibialis muscle is given a sharp tap and the hock should flex. This reflex tests the integrity of the sciatic nerve.

92
Q

T/F: Definitive diagnosis of diskospondylitis can be made with spinal radiographs

A

True

However, this diagnosis is often difficult because radiographic changes may only be seen 4-6 weeks post-infection

93
Q

T/F: Severe peripheral nerve injuries may result in anesthesia and areflexia

A

True

95
Q

T/F: Milbemycin is effective against adult heartworms, but is more effective against microfilaria

A

False

Milbemycin has very poor activity against adults but is highly effective against microfilaria

95
Q

If you have normal forelimbs and LMN signs in the hindlimbs, which region of the spinal cord is most likely affected?

A

L4-S2

96
Q

What canine breed is most associated with extraocular myositis?

A

Golden Retreivers

97
Q

What is the surgical technique of choice for dogs that are paralyzed as a result of thoracolumbar intervertebral disc disease?

A

Dorsolateral hemilaminectomy

The affected disc (and at least those on either side) can be fenestrated or treated with lasers to decrease the possibility of a relapse. Surgery success rates are usually over 90%

98
Q

What condition is associated with myelin basic protein in CSF and SOD 1 gene mutation?

A

Degenerative myelopathy

100
Q

In what order is neurological function lost as a result of spinal cord compression?

A
  1. Conscious proprioception
  2. Motor function
  3. Superficial pain sensation
  4. Deep pain sensation
101
Q

T/F: Muscle pain and increased CK are hallmarks of myopathies

A

False

In some cases (but not all), there may be muscle pain, swelling/atrophy, and elevations in CK.

103
Q

T/F: Heartworm disease usually results in left-sided heart failure

A

False

Heartworm disease may result in right-sided heart failure

104
Q

What is ‘root signature’?

A

hyperesthesia with limb palpation or manipulation

105
Q

T/F: In endemic areas, heartworms are less common in cats than in dogs

A

True

106
Q

What is the treatment of choice for dogs with hydrocephalus?

A

Shunts

Shunts can be implanted to drain CSF to the abdominal/peritoneal cavity or jugular vein.

108
Q

What are the two most common primary brain tumors in dogs?

A

Gliomas and Meningiomas

109
Q

The most common cause of infectious myelopathy is:

A

Toxoplasma

111
Q

What intervertebral space is typically affected in Dachshunds with cervical disc disease?

A

C3/C4

113
Q

What is the most common emboli responsible for causing spinal cord injury?

A

Fibrocartilaginous emboli

114
Q

T/F: Occult heartworm infections are very rare in cats

A

False

Occult heartworm infections are very common in cats (up to 80%)

115
Q

T/F: In the preictal phase of tonic-clonic seizures, the patient may have a sudden loss of consciousness and simultaneously fall to the ground

A

False

  • In the preictal phase of tonic-clonic seizures, there may be subtle behavioral changes such as seeking out the owner, restlessness, or anxiety*
  • In the ictal phase (the seizure itself), the patient may have a sudden loss of consciousness and simultaneously fall to the ground*
116
Q

What age/breed do we typically observe lumbosacral malarticulation-malformation?

A

Older, large breed dogs

Occurs in older (5-8 years) large breed dogs, especially working dogs (GSDs and Border Collies) and very rarely in cats

117
Q

Definitive diagnosis of degenerative myelopathy is only possible by:

A

histopathology

Clinical diagnoses depend on appropriate signs and exclusion of inflammatory and compressive causes

118
Q

T/F: A lesion at C6-T2 may cause UMN signs in the pelvic limbs and LMN signs in the thoracic limbs

A

True

119
Q

What canine breed is most associated with exercise induced collapse?

A

Labradors

120
Q

T/F: Prognosis with Coonhound paralysis is poor

A

False

Prognosis with Coonhound paralysis is good

121
Q

If a vestibular patient has horizontal and vertical nystagmus, the lesion is likely __________ and could be caused by __________

A

If a vestibular patient has horizontal and vertical nystagmus, the lesion is likely central and could be caused by neoplasia

122
Q

T/F: Conscious proprioceptive deficits are consistent with cerebellar lesions

A

False

123
Q

T/F: Anorexia is a side effect of phenobarbital

A

False

It isn’t.

124
Q

Feline Ischemic Encephalopathy is caused by:

A

Cuterebra

It is presumed that the condition results from a Cuterebra larva entering the nasal passages and migrating through the cribriform plate, inducing vasospasm of brain arteries

125
Q

Which has a poorer prognosis?

  • Neurotmesis
  • Axonotmesis
  • Neuropraxia
  • All are equally bad
A

Neurotmesis

Complete severance of a nerve and degeneration of the distal portion and its Schwann cells. Regeneration usually does not occur. Usually anesthesia and paralysis

126
Q

T/F: In the postictal phase of tonic-clonic seizures, animals very rapidly regain consciousness and soon appear normal

A

False

  • This phase is a gradual return to consciousness with varying degrees of depression, fatigue, fright, dazed appearance, aimless pacing, thirst, or hunger. Occasionally, neurological deficits such as blindness, paresis and/or incoordination may occur during this period.*
  • Postictal depression may last for seconds to days (average about 5 hours)*
127
Q

Partial loss of voluntary motor function in a single limb is termed:

A

Monoparesis

128
Q

T/F: Brain herniation is a possible complication of a CSF tap

A

True

130
Q

Dorsiflexion of the neck with extension of the thoracic limbs and flexion of the pelvic limbs is consistent with _____________ rigidity

A

Decerebellate rigidity

131
Q

What canine breed is most associated with episodic falling?

A

Cavalier King Charles Spaniels

132
Q

T/F: Canine wobblers occurs most commonly in younger Great Danes and older Dobermans

A

True

Cervical spondylomyelopathy (Canine wobblers) is most often seen in Great Danes (3-18 months) and Dobermans (5-8 years)

133
Q

What canine breed is most associated with Shaker Dog Disease?

A

Maltese

Also West Highland White Terriers

134
Q

Most thoracolumbar disc protrusions are between what spinal cord segments?

A

T11 and L2

135
Q

T/F: Fibrocartilaginous embolus is typically not associated with pain

A

True

136
Q

What are the most common agents associated with diskospondylitis?

A

S. intermedius, Brucella canis, Streptococcus spp.

137
Q

T/F: Early signs of lumbosacral malarticulation-malformation are of lumbosacral pain with difficulty rising and negotiating stairs

A

True

138
Q

Crossed-extensor reflex in a dog in lateral recumbency is indicative of a ____ lesion

(UMN/LMN)

A

UMN

There are long spinal reflexes between limbs that are usually suppressed by UMNs. Damage to the UMNs releases this inhibition and flexion of one limb in response to a noxious stimulus is accompanied by extension of the contralateral limb.

139
Q

T/F: Dyspnea in a dog post-heartworm adulticide treatment is an emergency and requires strict cage rest, oxygen therapy, prednisolone, and perhaps bronchodilators

A

True

140
Q

T/F: Surgery is contraindicated to treat lumbosacral malarticulation-malformation

A

False

Good results are obtained with lumbosacral dorsal laminectomy and removal of the ligaments and bone putting pressure on the nerves

141
Q

Pentoxifylline is used for treatment of what inflammatory condition?

A

Dermatomyositis

142
Q

Degeneration of axons, but intact endoneurium and Schwann cells is termed:

A

Axonotmesis

Degeneration of axons but the endoneurium and Schwann cells remain intact allowing regeneration of the axon (1 mm/day) and return of function. Usually paresis and hypesthesia

RUSVM Small Animal Medicine (SAM) (3 decks)

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