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Flashcards in Ruminants Deck (29)
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1

What is the causative agent of FMD?

Aphthovirus, family picornaviridae

2

What are the most common clinical signs of FMD?

High fever, drooling/salivation, lameness (spreads quickly), vesicles, erosions, abortion

3

What species is most commonly affected by FMD? Which species are carriers?

Bovine (most susceptible) and pigs commonly affected; buffalo often asymptomatic carriers

4

What is often the first sign of FMD infection?

Salivation

5

What are the clinical signs of scrapie?

Vary; intense pruritus, progressive neurological signs; wt. loss w/ normal appetite, head tremors, behavior change

6

How is scrapie prevented?

Cull +s, maintain closed herd; incinerate or alkaline digestion carcasses

7

How is scrapie transmitted?

Contact w/ placental/allantoic fluid

8

What tissue(s) should be submitted for diagnosis of scrapie? Antemortem tests?

Obex immunohistochemistry gold standard, cerebellum (atypical scrapie), and lymphoid tissue also used; ELISA screening of brain/lymphoid tissues also;
antemortem tests: biopsy of lymphoid tissue in 3rd eyelid (IHC), tonsils, or detection of prions in placenta

9

What is the treatment for scrapie?

None--euthanize

10

What are the clinical signs of bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)?

Adult cattle (>2yrs), insidious onset of abnormal behavior, aggression, ataxia, reduced milk yield

11

What is the primary mode of transmission of Mycobacterium avium, subsp. paratuberculosis?

Fecal-oral #1; also in colostrum; silent shedders #1 cause of infection

12

What is the gold standard test and which US govt. agency is approved to test for Mycobacterium avium, subsp. paratuberculosis?

Culture of feces/postmortem tissue; USDA

13

What is the prognosis for a cow with clinical signs of Mycobacterium avium, subsp. paratuberculosis?

Grave--no cure; death inevitable with apparent clinical signs

14

What is the common presentation of ketosis in cattle?

ADR--depression, partial anorexia in early lactation

15

What 2 things are required for ketosis to occur?

High glucose demand AND high level of fat mobilization

16

What are the signs of nervous ketosis?

CNS--circling, staggering, bellowing, licking/chewing, trembling, aggression

17

What is the treatment of choice for ketosis?

Restore normoglycemia + decrease serum ketone bodies--provide glucose/precursors: IV glucose (50% dextrose), glucocorticoids (only if NOT pregnant), propylene glycol drenches, force feed

18

What has an increased incidence of occurring in herds with ketosis problems?

Displaced abomasum

19

What is the test of choice for bovine leukosis (BLV)?

ELISA

20

What is the classic presentation of BLV?

Adult dairy cows, wt. loss, dec. milk production, poor appetite, +/- external masses, BLV+

21

What is the etiology of BLV?

Retrovirus--infection permanent, no treatment

22

What is the classical presentation of a cow with a left displaced abomasum?

Adult dairy cow, ADR (dec. appetite, dec. milk production), "ping"

23

What is the characteristic lab work of a LDA?

Decreased K, Cl, Ca--metabolic alkalosis, paradoxic aciduria

24

What is contraindicated in RDA?

Rolling (only used in LDA, but likely to recur)

25

What is the treatment of choice for listeria?

Penicillin, sulfonamides, tetracyclines (avian, mammals), OR ampicillin for 2-4wks; supportive therapy

26

Dorsomedial strabismus (stargazing) is pathognomonic for what condition?

Polioencephalomalacia

27

What is the classic presentation of polioencephalomalacia?

Fast-growing calf or lamb, NEUROLOGIC, blind, staggering, down (bilaterally symmetric signs of cerebral dysfunction)

28

What is the treatment for polioencephalomalacia?

Thiamine (Vit. B1) supplementation--IV initially, then IM/SQ

29

What are 2 key etiologies thought to be associated with polioencephalomalacia in ruminants?

Thiamine deficiency or high sulfur intake