REVISION Flashcards

1
Q

What is a Principal in the first degree?

A

1) Where the person who is the ‘ACTUAL PERPETRATOR’ or the most IMMEDIATE CAUSE of the offence, or
2) ‘INNOCENT AGENTS’ (Innocent agent performs actus reds with no mens rea): principle is constructively present through agent, or
3) ‘JOINT CRIMINAL ENTERPRISE’ - Joint principals: 2 or more persons carry out a joint criminal enterprise.

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2
Q

What is a Joint Criminal Enterprise ?

A

2 or more persons reach an agreement or understanding that results in an agreement between them to commit a crime.

They will be both joint principals in the first degree if each of the participants commits at lease one element of the foundational crime.

Note: It may also occur when the co-accused simply encourages the accused. Principle in second degree. -Applies when the charge laid differs to the offence agreed upon.

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3
Q

What is a principal in the second degree?

A

Offenders will be principals in the second degree either:

1) By offering encouragement/assistance, or
2) Are involved via a common purpose

S 345 of the Crimes Act 1900 - Both are liable to the same punishment as principals in first degree.

Encouragement/assistance: it must be established that the accused intended to give encouragement - mere presence is NOT enough.

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4
Q

What is common purpose?

A

1) Joint criminal enterprise to commit a foundational crime
2) Participation in the foundational crime
3) An incidental crime is committed outside of the foundational crime that is within contemplation of the accused.

We apply the contemplation test regarding point 3) to identify if a co-accused is liable for the incidental crime committed by another.

The contemplation test asks whether the accused could have foreseen the incidental crime committed arising out of the planned enterprise.

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5
Q

What is BAINBRIDGE TEST.

A

The BAINBRIDGE TEST forms the basis for the CONTEMPLATION TEST;
A test on the balance of probabilities that the accused could have foreseen the co-accused incidental actions whilst committing the crime in a Joint Criminal Enterprise. It should be applied to determine the accused person’s criminal liability to those incidental actions of the co-accused.

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6
Q

What is an Accessory before the fact?

A

They are absent at the time of the actual crime is committed but are the masterminds behind it. They arrange and command it. The people that execute the crime on behalf of the accessory before the fact do so with full knowledge of the crime, they are principals.

S 346 of the Crimes Act 1900 - Accessories before the fact are treated the same was as principals in terms of punishment.

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7
Q

What is an accessory after the fact?

A

They are aware of the TYPE of offence that has been committed and they offer the principals comfort or assistance after it has been committed.

E.g. Getaway driver

S 347 of the Crimes Act 1900

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8
Q

What is ‘in company’ and what are some examples of ‘in company offences’?

A

1) Similar test to principle in second degree;
- By offering encouragement/assistance, or
- Are involved via a common purpose

‘Could the offender readily come to the aid of his co-offender if required?’

In company offences examples include:
61J - Sexual assault in company.
97 - Robbery in company.
112 (2) Aggravated break, enter and commit serious indictable offence, in company of other persons.

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9
Q

Provide three case law references and their short summary with regards to what is ‘In Company?’

A

1) Queen -v- JOYCE: Mere presence of a person IS NOT SUFFICIENT. Being ‘physically present’ is not enough.

2) R -v- BROUGHAM: Where the victim is aware and is confronted by the combined strength of two or more persons - this maybe enough even if not all intended to participate.
- ‘Could the offender readily come to the aid of his co-offender if required?’

3) R v BUTTON and R v GRIFFEN: ‘There must be such proximity as would enable the inference that those individuals in the group were doing something either to embolden or reassure the offender in committing the crime.

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10
Q

What is an attempt?

A
  • An attempt to commit a crime is an ACT DONE (Actus Reus),
  • With the INTENT TO COMMIT THAT CRIME (Mens Rea),
  • Which forms part of a SERIES OF ACTS which would constitute its actual commission if it were not interrupted.
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11
Q

What is the mens rea for an attempt?

A

The accused must have the mens rea to commit the SUBSTANTIVE OFFENCE.

For prosecution regarding an attempt offence to succeed, the offence with which the defendant is charge must be a CRIME OF SPECIFIC INTENT.

Note: Lesser intent such as recklessness or negligence will not suffice. There must be evidence converting the fact the accused had intention to complete the substantive offence.

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12
Q

With reference to R -V- EAGLETON, what is the actus reus required for an attempt?

A

“R -V- EAGLETON: “Acts remotely leading towards the commission of the offence are not to be considered as attempts to commit it, but acts immediately connected with it are.”

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13
Q

Summarise the EAGLTON case?

A

The acts comprising an attempt must be PROXIMATE with the offence. If the accused was not interrupted they would have committed the offence. On the THRESHOLD OF COMMITTING THE OFFENCE.

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14
Q

What are the two aspects you need to consider whether you have established proximity?

A

-Is there act of PREPARATION? Acts of preparation by themselves are NOT ENOUGH
(PRE-PAR-ATION)

-Is there an act of PERPETRATION? - Only acts of prepetration will amount to proximity required for an attempt, these acts cannot reasonably be regarded as having any other purpose than the commission of that specific crime.
(PER-PET-RATION)

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15
Q

Can you charge if something is impossible to attempt?

A

Yes.

  • But, it must amount to an offence at law.
  • You can charge for something that is factual impossible but the mens rea was still to commit an offence at law.
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16
Q

What are the 6 stages in the Timeline for a Crime?

A

1) Plan
2) Incitement
3) Conspiracy
4) Attempt
5) Commit offence
6) Conceal offence

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17
Q

What are the 6 explanations for each stage of the Timeline for a Crime? (The explanations for each stage)

A

1) An individual who merely thinks about committing an offence has not commit a crime as no actus reus has occured. (PLAN)
2) An individual who approaches another and suggests committing an offence may be guilty of common law or statutory incitement. (INCITEMENT)
3) If both parties (2 or more) then agree to commit an unlawful act, in which all intended to participate then they maybe guilty of a conspiracy. (CONSPIRACY)
4) If the individual or other participants in the conspiracy then carry out unlawful acts which are close to committing the crime in its entirety then they or the individual maybe guilty of an attempt. (ATTEMPT)
5) When all elements of the actual offence are committed by the parties (Or an individual) it will move from being an attempt to the commission of the complete crime. (COMMIT OFFENCE)
6) Post even acts may also constitute a crime. (CONCEAL OFFENCE)


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18
Q

What is a conspiracy?

A

CONSPIRACY: The existence of an agreement between two or more persons to commit an unlawful act with the intention of carrying it out.

  • EXISTENCE : Proof that there was an agreement by 2 or more people.
  • NATURE: Proof is required that the agreement was to commit a particular unlawful act.
  • INTENTION TO PARTICIPATE: Proof that at the time the defendant agreed to participant in the act, the defendant intended to so participate.
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19
Q

With regards to a conspiracy, what are;

1) EXISTENCE + NATURE
2) INTENTION TO PARTICIPATE

A

1) EXISTENCE and NATURE = The actus reus of a conspiracy.

2) INTENTION TO PARTICIPATE = The mens rea of a conspiracy.

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20
Q

How do you prove a conspiracy?

A

We need to prove the 3 elements (EXISTENCE, NATURE and INTENTION) of a conspiracy based on;

A) Direct evidence - Of the AGREEMENT in the PLANNING STAGE.
(Examples include admissions, informants, covertly recorded conversations and plans.)

B) Circumstantial evidence - Evidence of any act or
conversation during a later stage that infers the earlier AGREEMENT took place - OVERT ACTS.

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21
Q

What are overt acts?

A

1) Things said and done in preparation for the object of the agreement.
2) The actual commission of the object of the agreement.

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22
Q

What is the co-conspirators rule?

A

It can be used circumstantially to prove the PARTICIPATION of an accused in the conspiracy.

S87 (1)(c) Evidence Act
The co-conspirators’ rule is an evidentiary rule. Conduct or words used by other members of a conspiracy that implicate the accused as a member of the conspiracy, to be used as evidence that the defendant was a participant in the conspiracy, even if he or she wasn’t present when they were said.

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23
Q

What is Crabbs case?

A

Crabbs case is the common law precedent test for recklessness in regards to murder.

The High Court of Australia ruled that to be guilty of murder, the defendant can be reckless in that they did the act knowing it was probable (meaning a substantial or real chance) that death or grievous bodily harm would occur as a result of their actions. Not just possible; must be probable or higher.

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24
Q

What’s required to satisfy the co-conspirators rule?

A

87 (1)(c) Evidence Act

1) A PRIMA FACIE case; independent of the acts and declarations of the other co-conspirators, that the defendant was a participant.
2) Any OVERT ACTS done by the other co-conspirators in furtherance of the conspiracy are to be regarded as acts done by the accused. (common purpose) even if he wasn’t present when these overt acts occurred

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25
Q

A conspiracy is appropriate when?

A
  • The SUBSTANTIVE offence is not committed, or
  • The offence agreed upon as part of the conspiracy was far more SERIOUS than the offence that was committed,
  • Only the conspiracy charge reflect the true CRIMINALITY involved .
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26
Q

What are the 9 Criminal defences?

​ P.A.N.I.C. D.I.S.S.

A
P - Provocation
A - Automatism
N - Necessity
I- Insanity
C - Claim of right

D - Duress
I - Intoxication
S - Substantial impairment
S - Self Defence

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27
Q

How are defences raised?

A
  • All defences need to be raised by the defence during investigation or trial.
  • The defence are obliged to disclose the defence, but not specifics under 139 of the Criminal Procedures act.
    ​- This burden is lower than on the balance of probabilities, but higher than reasonable suspicion. - Once they are in issue we need to negate them beyond reasonable doubt.
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28
Q

Can the defence of intoxication be considered as complete and/or partial?

A
  • May provide a COMPLETE defence to all mens rea offences by eliminating mens rea.
  • Or intoxication may be a PARTIAL defence, having the effect of reducing culpability/criminal responsibility.

We need to identify offences of ‘Specific Intent’ and ‘Basic Intent’ to detemine the apllicability of intoxication.

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29
Q

In accordance with the Intoxication defence, Section 428C; allows evidence of intoxication to be taken into account in SPECIFIC INTENT OFFENCES. Such evidence CANNOT be taken into account on what occasions?

A

a) If the person had resolved before becoming intoxicated to do the particular act, or
b) Became intoxicated to stregthen his or her resolve to do the relevant conduct.

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30
Q

Regarding ‘Basic Intent’ offences when can evidence of intoxication be taken into account?

A

In accordance with section 428D - evidence of intoxication is allowed to be taken into account for offences of ‘Basic Intent’ only if the intoxication was NOT self induced.

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31
Q

What is the defence of self defence in accordance with Section 418 of the Crimes Act 1900.

A

Section 418 Crimes Act;
‘A person is not criminally responsible for an offence if the person carries out the conduct constituting the offence in self-defence’ Self defence is a COMPLETE defence.

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32
Q

What two elements form thetest for self defence?

A

1) - Subjective (In the mind of the accused): Is there a reasonable possibility that the accused believed that their conduct was necessary in order to defend themselves?
(Typically dependant on admissions,evidence of preperation or circumstantial evidence, includingexcessive acts;to negate)

  • Objective (Would a reasonable 3rd person thought similarly): Is there a reasonable possibility that what the accused did was a reasonable response to the circumstances as he or she percieved them?
    (Inquiries and evidencecan be used to refute whether their acts could be considered reasonable in those circumstances)
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33
Q

What is automatism?

A

Automatism provides aCOMPLETEdefence to all mens rea offences, in is concerned with;

  • Involuntary behaviour.
  • It is a COMPLETE common law defence to murder and other criminal offences.
  • Automatism means an act which is done by the muscles without any control by the mind.
  • It can include a spasm, a reflex action or a convulsion.
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34
Q

How can we negate the defence of Automatism?

A

If we can show the conduct of the accused immediately prior to the involuntarty act was voluntary and that this conduct then caused the involuntary act which caused the consequent criminal act, the defence of automatism may fail.

Section 428G of the Crimes act explains; ‘In determining whether a person has committed an offence evidence of self-induced inoxication CANNOT be taken into account in detemining whether the relevant conduct was voluntary.

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35
Q

What is defence of insanity?

A

Instanity is;

  • A partial defence to murder.
  • Institutionalising a person indefinitely for medical treatment.
  • Ordinarily a defendant will be presumed sane; unless they raise the issue of ‘insanity’.
  • Insanity is concerned with a lack of mens rea via a’disease of the mind’.
  • The court must be satisfied on the balance of probabilities that the defendant is legally INSANE AT THE TIME OF THE OFFENCE. Which will return a special verdict of ‘not guilty; on the grounds of mental illness or insanity.
  • Insanitly is concerned with intellect and not emotion. It is not available where emotion causes an uncontrollable impulse.
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36
Q

How do you establish the defence of insanity?

A
McNaughten Rules (common law test for insanity);
The accused must clearly prove that at the time of committing the act, he was labouring under such a defect of reason, from the disease of the mind:
1) as to not know the nature and quality of the act he was doing, or
2) as not to know that what he was doing was wrong.
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37
Q

What is the defence of Substantial impairment by an abnormality of the mind?

A

Section 23A Crimes Act - and- Previously known as Diminishing responsibility.

It is aPARTIAL DEFENCE to MURDER ONLY. And reduces murder to manslaughter.

The accused must show at the TIME OF DEATH;
a)The persons capacity to understand events, or
b) To judge whether the persons actions were right or wrong, or
c) To control themselves,
Was substantiallyimpaired by an abnormality of the mind arising from an underlying condition.
The impairment must be substantial to justify reducing murder to manslaughter.

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38
Q

How is substantial impairment (diminished responsibility) negated?

A
  • Failure of the objective test.
  • There need to be an underlying medical cause for the abnormaility. Impulsive behaviour is NOT enough by itself, you need to establish an underlying medical cause this will generally be established by the diagnosis of a medical condition.
  • The medical condition must be of a ‘permanent quality’.
  • It must be ‘substatial’.
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39
Q

What is the defence of provocation?

S23 Crimes Act 1900

A
  • The killing of one person resulting from a temporary loss of self control brought about by the words or acts of the deceased.
  • PARTIAL defence to Murder only.
  • Reduces Murder to Manslaughter.

This requires a TRIGGER ACT and the ACT OF PROVOCATION.

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40
Q

What are the characteristics of a trigger act for provocation?

A

1) Words alone as a trigger must be sufficiently provocative in nature.
2) History/culmination of provocative conduct relevant (battered wife syndrome)
3) Acts of Adultery can justify provocation.
4) Trigger must take place in the presence of the accused.
5) The trigger must come the Deceased
6) The trigger generally must be Aimed at the defendant or the defendant must be present.
7) Trigger need not be unlawful.

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41
Q

How does the prosecution negate provocation?

A
  • Subjective element: 23(2)(a): -and-Objective element: 23(2)(b)
    How we can negate provocation when raised:
    1) If the actions of the accused amount to premeditation (examine accused conduct between events).
    2)The conduct of the deceased must be capable of provoking retaliation of a relevant degree (objective test).
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42
Q

What is the defence of claim of right?

A
  • Honest claim (subjective test) the defendant honestly believes they were entitled to the property. (based on facts not law),AND
  • The belief must be one as to legal entitlement (objective test) Complete defence to mens rea offences. Usually property/fraud type matters.

(COMPLETE defence to Mens Rea offences (typically with a dishonesty element)

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43
Q

What is the defence of duress?

A

The defence of duress may arise in circumstances where a person commits a crime out of extreme fear or threat of ‘immediate death’ or ‘immeidiate serious personal violence’.

  • Duress is a COMPLETE defence.
  • Duress has bot bee recieved in NSW as a defence to murder.
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44
Q

What is the defence of necessity?

A
  • The criminal acts must be done to avoide ‘serious harmful consequences’ to the accused or others they were bound to protect.
  • The accused must honestly believe on reasonable ground that he was placed in a situation of imminent peril.
    (COMPLETE defence)
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45
Q

What does the case ofRvKatarzynski indicate regarding the legal defence of self defence?

A

It poses the question whether the self defence in question was a REASONABLE and PROPORTIONATE RESPONSE.

And uses the two elements of the test for self defence;

1) Is therea reasonable possibility that the accused believed that his or her conduct was necessary in order to defend himself or herself; and,
2) If there is, is there also a reasonable possibility that what the accused did was a reasonable response to the circumstances as he or she perceived them.

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46
Q

What does the case ofRvFugeindicate regarding the legal defence of claim of right?

A

‘The existence of such a claim may constitute an answer to a crime in which the means used to take the property involved an assault, or the use of arms. The relevant issue being whether the accused had a genuine belief in the legal right to the property rather than a belief in a legal right to employ the means in question to recover it.’

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47
Q

What sections of the Crimes Act 1900 have been indicated as important for the DEP?

A
Crimes Act 1900;
S18 - Murder / Manslaughter
S33 - Wounding / Assault GBH
S61 - Sexual intercourse without consent
S86 - Kidnapping / take and detain
S93 - b) Riot, and c) Affray
S94 - Robbery
S112 - Break enter and commit serious indictable offence
S116 - Larceny
S192 - Fraud
S308 - Computer crimes
S311 - Public justice offences
S344 - Attempts, Accessories and other machinery offences
S417 - Defences
S431 - Sentences
S502 - Miscellaneous offences

(Note there may be more, however these were on the white board at the start of the class)

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48
Q

What the elements for murder in accordance with section 18 of the Crimes Act?

A

1) - (DEATH OF A PERSON) - The death of the deceased, being a human being.

2) - (CAUSATION OF DEATH) - An unlawful act or omission of the accused which caused the death.
(Actus Reus)

3) - (INTENT TO MURDER) - Such act or omission was done or committed to be don with -
i) reckless indifference to human life
ii) intent to kill or inflict grievous bodily harm
iii) in an attempt to commit, or during, or immediately after the commission by the accused, or by some accomplice with him, of a crime punishable by penal servitude for life or 25 years.
(Mens Rea)

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49
Q

What is death defined as in accordance with S33 of the Human Tissues Act?

A

a) The irreversible cessation of the functions of a persons brain, or
b) The irreversible cessation of the circulation of a persons blood.

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50
Q

What is causation and the test for it?

A

This element relates to the Actus Reus or the physical doing of the criminal act.

It is assessed on the OBJECTIVE TEST without reference to the state of mind of the accused.

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51
Q

Is it possible to murder a foetus?

A

NO - As the end of life must be rived, in the case of a foetus the beginning of life must be proved.

S20 of the Crimes Act states, ‘On the trial of a person for the murder of a child, such child shall be held to have been BORN ALIVE, IF IT HAS BREATHED, HAS HAS BEEN WHOLLY BORN INTO THE WORLD. Left the mothers body completely whether it has independent circulation or not.

52
Q

What is the Prima Facie test for causation?

A

The BUT FOR test.

BUT FOR the actions of the accused, the victim would not have died. This test is a tool used by the courts to when determine whether a causal link or nexus exists between the accused’s actions and the death of the victim.

53
Q

How do we establish the ‘Prima Facie test for causation?

A

In order to establish ‘prima facie’ causation we need to satisfy by ‘sine qua non’ (“without which it could not be”); the BUT FOR test.

The death being event (B) is said to have been caused by the actions of the accused being event (A) When we have established sine qua non we have established a prima facie causal chain.

54
Q

What is the egg shell rule?

A

Accused must take the victim as he finds them (the egg shell skull rule). Failing to accept medical treatment does not rupture the causal nexus

55
Q

What is a novus actus interveniens’?

A

It is a NEW INTERVENING ACT - which is something that supervenes and takes over as the dominant cause of injury or death.

This means the defence will argue some other act caused the death and not the actions of the accused if they can do this actus reus will not be established = no offence.

56
Q

What are the three heads of murder?

A
  • INTENTIONAL (with INTENT TO KILL or INFLICT GBH)
  • RECKLESS (was done or omitted with RECKLESS INDIFFERENCE to human life)
  • FELONY (done in an attempt to commit, or during or immediately after the commission, by the accused, or some other accomplice with him, of a CRIME PUNISHABLE BY PENAL SERVITUDE FOR LIFE OR FOR 25 YEARS)
57
Q

What is an intentional murder?

A

The accused intended to kill or inflict GBH on the victim and did kill the victim.

58
Q

What is a reckless murder?

Reference Crabbe’s case.

A

The actions of the accused were PROBABLE to result in death (Crabbe’s Case). A possibility is insufficient; the accused must force that death will PROBABLY result from their actions.

NO NEED TO PROVE INTENT TO KILL

59
Q

What is a felony murder?

A

Commit a foundational crime being a 25 year/life offence and as a result death ensues during or immediately after.

60
Q

What is Crabbe’s case?

A

Common law precedent test for RECKLESSNESS in regards to murder. The High Court of Australia ruled that to be guilty of murder, the defendant can be RECKLESS in that they did the act knowing it was PROBABLE (meaning a substantial or real chance) that death or grievous bodily harm would occur as a result of their actions. Not just possible

THE ACCUSED MUST FORSEE THAT DEATH WILL PROBABLY RESULT FROM THE ACCUSED’S ACTIONS.

61
Q

What are some examples of a foundational Crimes with regards to a Felony Murder

A

Crimes punishable by 25 years or life in prison
S33 discharging firearm etc with intent.

S61JA aggravated sexual assault in company

S66 sexual intercourse child under 10

S96- robbery with wounding

S98 robbery with arms etc and wounding

S112(3) Special aggravated break and enter.

S198 Destroying or damaging property with intention of endangering life

62
Q

What is transferred malice?

A

The mens rea from one offence can be transferred to another - DOCTRINE OF TRANSFERRED MALICE.

63
Q

What is the difference between murder and manslaughter?

A

Manslaughter and murder are alike – that each have the same actus reus – the killing of a human being.

You do not have the mens reas for manslaughter. You have the act not the intent.

64
Q

When can a trail judge determine an alternate verdict for murder?

A

Alternate verdict – manslaughter is an alternative verdict for murder. –Trial judge determines it under four situations

  1. Evidence of manslaughter and the issue raised – judge must direct a jury they have this alternative
  2. No evidence of manslaughter and the issued is not raised – the judge does not have advise the jury of their power to return a verdict of manslaughter.
  3. No evidence of manslaughter and their issue is raised
  4. Evidence of manslaughter and the issued is not raised
65
Q

What is a voluntary manslaughter?

A

This is where there is a killing, which at prima facie amounts to murder but is reduced to manslaughter by reason of mitigating circumstances;

  • Extreme Provocation
  • Abnormality of the mind.
  • Infanticide - 22A the killing of a child under 12 months by mother suffering from PND
66
Q

What is involuntary manslaughter?

A

Under this heading there is no prima facie evidence of murder. Here there is lesser mens rea than required for murder.

1) The death of a person was caused by an act of the accused.
2) The act was both,
a) UNLAWFUL, and
b) DANGEROUS.

67
Q

What are the two type of involuntary manslaughter?

A

There are two types of involuntary manslaughter, they are;

  • Act or omission by gross negligence, or
    (Criminal Negligence, Gross Negligence, Duty of Care)
  • An act which is unlawful and dangerous.
68
Q

What is criminal negligence?

A

The accused :

1) Was under a duty of car for the deceased.
2) Was grossly negligent (perhaps reckless) and failed thereby to perform that duty;
3) As a result of the failure to perform the duty, whether through act or omission, death was occasioned or accelerated.

The standard of care is the objective test.

69
Q

What is defined as being under the Duty of care of the deceased?

A

1) Where statue imposes a duty of care for another, (parents, care givers, etc)
2) Where one stands in certain status relation to another, (doctors, police, etc)
3) Where on has assumed a contractual duty to care for another. (Drivers on the road, OH&S, etc)
4) Where one had voluntarily assumed the care of another and so secluded the helpless person as to prevent other from rendering aid. (See R v TAKTAK)

70
Q

Is a body required to prove death? Reference the relevant case law.

A

NO.
The case of Murdoch v R;
Murdoch was alleged to have murdered Falconie, but no body was ever recovered.

The prosecution is NOT required to prove the finding of a body as a pre-condition to a conviction for murder.

71
Q

How can death be proven?

A

The fact of death can be proved by DIRECT or CIRCUMSTANTIAL EVIDENCE.

72
Q

If the prosecution intends to prove a death using CIRCUMSTANTIAL EVIDENCE, how compelling should the evidence be to convince the jury?

A

If CIRCUMSTANTIAL it should be so compelling as to convince a jury that no other reasonable hypothesis could exist other than murder.

73
Q

Explain Royall’s case?

A

The accused will have caused the death if the victim’s fear was WELL-FOUND or REASONABLE, and the escape a NATURAL CONSEQUENCE of the accused’s behaviour.

74
Q

Explain the case R V TAKTAK ?

A

Having regard to duty of care; 4) Where one had voluntarily assumed the care of another and so secluded the helpless person as to prevent other from rendering aid.

The accused took a female who had overdosed on heroin, thereby preventing her from obtaining medical treatment. In the morning she was dead.

75
Q

What is a riot in accordance with Section 93B - Crimes Act 1900?

A

Section 93B - Crimes Act 1900
1) Where 12 OR MORE PERSONs who are present, together USE or THREATEN UNLAWFUL VIOLENCE for a COMMON PURPOSE and the conduct of them (taken together) is such as would cause a PERSON OF REASONABLE FIRMNESS present at the scene to FEAR for his or her PERSONAL SAFETY, each of the persons using unlawful violence for the common purpose is guilty of riot and liable to imprisonment for 15 years.

2) It is immaterial whether or not the 12 or more persons use to threaten unlawful violence simultaneously.
3) The common purpose may be inferred from conduct.
4) No person of reasonable firmness need actually be, or be likely to be present at the scene.
5) Riot may be committed in private as well as in public places.

76
Q

What is an affray in accordance with Section 93C - Crimes Act 1900?

A

Section 93C - Crimes Act 1900
1) A person who USES OR THREATENS UNLAWFUL VIOLENCE towards another and whose conduct is such as would cause a PERSON OF REASONABLE FIRMNESS present at the scene to FEAR for his or her PERSONAL SAFETY is guilty of affray and liable to imprisonment for 10 years.

2) If 2 or more persons use or threaten the unlawful violence, it is the conduct of them taken together that must be considered for the purposes of subsection 1).
3) For the purposes of this section, a threat cannot be made by the use of words alone.
4) No person of reasonable firmness need actually be, or be likely to be, present at the scene.
5) Affray may be committed in private as well in public places.

77
Q

What are the four categories of INTENT, who considering Criminal Liability?

A
  • Actual or deliberate intent (Subjective)
  • Reckless intent (Subjective)
  • Knowledge / awareness (Subjective)
  • Negligence (Objective)
78
Q

Some intent categories are assessed subjectively by the jury, some are assessed objectively by the jury. Explain SUBJECTIVE and OBJECTIVE?

A
  • SUBJECTIVE: Requires the jury to look at what was acting on the mind of the accused at the time when assessing whether they intended or not to commit an offence.
  • OBJECTIVE: Requires the jury to look at what they would have done in the circumstances of the accused - they are NOT concerned with what the accused was thinking.
79
Q

Explain the term, ‘Temporal Coincidence’?

A
  • At law both mens rea and the actus reus must occur together.
  • If on is absent from the other then there can be no offence at law.
  • Some criminal defences seek to disrupt or displace or eliminate either the mens rea or the actus reus resulting in the acquittal of the accused.
80
Q

What are the three categories of offences you will encounter in NSW?

A
  • Mens rea offences (intent based offences)
  • Absolute liability offences (not mens rea required - minor offences)
  • Strict liability offences (specific to an act offences)
81
Q

How do you establish a ‘geographical nexus (link)’?

A

A geographical nexus will exist if;

1) At least ONE OF THE PHYSICAL ELEMENTS of the offence occurred in NSW,

OR

2) All of the physical elements of the offence occurred outside NSW but the offence has an effect in NSW.

82
Q

What are the 4 main proofs of Larceny?

A

1) Wrongfully took and carried away,
2) The personal goods of another,
3) With the intent of permanently depriving the owner of such property,
4) Without his or her consent.

83
Q

What is the 3 criteria required for property that can be stolen at common law larceny?

A
  • Tangible
  • Personal
  • Some value, need not be a dollar value
84
Q

What is continuous possession?

A

There is a concept of continuing trespass where the taking, or original possession is obtained wrongfully, even though not feloniously, and the accused later misappropriates the goods. This CAN constitute larceny.
R v RILEY

85
Q

What is S95 of the Crimes Act and what are three circumstances of aggravation?

A

Robbery in circumstances of Aggravation;

Immediately before, during after the robbery or larceny:
A) Uses corporal violence OR
B) Intentionally or recklessly inflicts ABH OR
C) Deprives a person of their liberty - (even momentarily)

86
Q

What is the definition of robbery and where is it defined?

A

Common Law

“a felonious and violent taking of any money or goods from the person of another, putting him in fear”

87
Q

What is S97 of the Crimes Act?

A

Robbery being armed or in company.

88
Q

Define an ‘offensive weapon’ for the purpose of S97 of the Crimes Act, Robbery being armed or in company.

A

Offensive weapon or instrument that includes:

  • A dangerous weapon
  • Anything that is made or adapted for offensive purposes
  • Anything in the circumstances is indeed for use or is used offensively.
89
Q

Define ‘in company’ for the purpose of S97 of the Crimes Act, Robbery being armed or in company.

A

In company;

  • In company of another person or persons,
  • Acting in a Common purpose,
  • Physically present
  • Perspective of the victim is relevant
  • Still in company even if victim is unaware
90
Q

Section 4 of the Crimes Act 1900 defines Grievous Bodily Harm as what?

A

a) The destruction (other than in the course of a medical procedure) of the foetus of a pregnant woman, whether or not the woman suffers any other harm, and
b) Any permanent or serious disfiguring of the person, and
c) Any grievous bodily disease.

91
Q

What is a ‘dangerous weapon’ as defined is S4 of the Crimes Act?

A
  • A firearm
  • A prohibited weapon
  • A speargun
92
Q

What is the definition of a wound?

A

The whole skin must be broken - the dermis and epidermis.

93
Q

In a scenario involving the BLOGGS family robbers; Joe B, Mary B, Steven B and Adam B, they all agree and undertake a joint criminal enterprise to rob the Betoota Bank. Mary plans the robbery, Joe enters the Betoota bank with a gun and demands cash, Steven B parks a block away and keeps lookout, after Joe robs the bank he flees on foot to about 1km away where Adam B picks Joe up in his Mitsubishi Pajero and helps conceal the proceeds.

In this scenario what complicity is each person? And under what section of the Crimes Act does that complicity relate.

A

Mary B - Is a Accessory BEFORE the fact. (The mastermind) - Section 346 of the Crimes Act.

Joe B - Is a Principal in the FIRST degree - He is charged with the relevant offence. S97 Crimes Act - Robbery armed with a dangerous weapon.

Steven B - Is a Principal in the SECOND degree - Section 345 of the Crimes Act.

Adam B - Is a Accessory AFTER the fact - Section 347 of the Crimes Act.

94
Q

What are the correct sections in the Crimes Act, for the following offences;

  • Common assault
  • Assault police
  • Assault occasioning abh
  • Reckless wounding/GBH
  • Wounding or GBH with intent
A
S61 - Common assault
S60A - Assault police
S59 - Assault occasioning abh
S35 - Reckless wounding/GBH
S33 - Wounding or GBH with intent
95
Q

What is actual bodily harm?

A
  • Any hurt or injury calculated to interfere with the health or comfort of another.
  • It need not be permanent or amount to GBH
  • Psychiatric injury amounts to abh (Chan Gook)
96
Q

What is Grievous bodily harm?

A

GBH an act causing serious and permanent or serious disfigurement of a person.

97
Q

What are the elements of discharge firearm with intent - in accordance with section 33A of the Crimes Act?

A
  • Discharge any firearm or loaded arms
  • Attempts to discharge any firearm or other loaded arms.
  • With intent to cause gbh
    OR
  • With intent to resist or prevent his or her lawful arrest or detention.
98
Q

What are the 7 lawful excuses to assault?

A
  • Lawful chastisement
  • Self defence
  • Lawful arrest
  • Medical examination
  • Accidental physical force
  • Body decoration
  • Sport and other physical contests
99
Q

When considering a reckless charge in accordance with section 35 of the Crimes Act for GBH or wounding; what must we establish the accused had in their mind at the time of their actions?

A
  • A foresight of POSSIBLE injury.

The onus is lower than for murder or manslaughter, which stipulates a foresight of PROBABLE death or GBH.

100
Q

What are the proofs of kidnapping in accordance with Section 86 of the Crimes Act?

A

Section 86 Crimes Act - Kidnapping

1) A person who takes or detains a person without the person’s consent;

a) With the intention to hold her or him to RANSOM; or
b) With the intention committing a SERIOUS INDICTABLE OFFENCE; or
c) With the intention of obtaining any other ADVANTAGE

101
Q

What are the special aggravating factors of kidnapping? 86(3) Crimes Act 1900

A

a) IN COMPANY of another person or persons, AND
b) At the time of, or immediately before or after the commission of the offence, ACTUAL BODILY HARM is occasioned to the victim.

102
Q

What is the section and proofs of Break, Enter and Commit Serious Indictable Offence?

A
S112 Crimes Act
A) The accused
-Break
-Enters
-Dwelling House or other building
-Commits serious indictable offence therein.

B) The accused

  • Being in dwelling or other building
  • Commits serious indictable offence therein,
  • And breaks out
103
Q

What are the circumstances of Special Aggravation for a break and enter as defined in section 105A of the Crimes Act?

A
  • Intentionally wounds or inflicts GBH on any person.
  • Inflicts GBH and is reckless to inflicting ABH.
  • Armed with a dangerous weapon.
104
Q

What are the circumstances of Aggravation for a Break and Enter as defined in section 105A of the Crimes Act?

A
  • Armed with offensive weapon
  • In company
  • Use corporal violence
  • Intentionally or recklessly inflicts ABH
  • Deprives a person of their liberty
  • Knows persons present at the time
105
Q

What are the two types of breaks with regards to a break and enter offence?

A
  • ACTUAL

- CONSTRUCTIVE

106
Q

What are the three types of a CONSTRUCTIVE break with regards to a break and enter offence?

A
  • Threat
  • Fraud
  • Conspiracy
107
Q

In accordance with Section 61H of the Crimes Act what is the definition of Sexual Intercourse?

A

Section 61H of the Crimes Act;
Sexual Intercourse means;

SEXUAL CONNECTION occasioned by penetration to any of the;

a) Genitalia (including surgically constructed vagina) of a female,
OR
- The anus of any person,

+

i) By any part of the body of another person,
OR
ii) Any object manipulated by another person,
- Except where carried out for proper medical purposes,

OR

b) Sexual connection occasioned by introduction of penis to mouth of another person
c) Cunnilingus, or
d) The continuation of sexual intercourse

108
Q

What are the elements for aggravated sexual assault in company S61JA of the crimes act?

A

1) had sexual intercourse with the complainant;
2) without the consent of the complainant;
3) knowing that the complainant did not consent; and
4) who was in the company of another or others; and
who either:
o Intentionally or recklessly inflicts ABH or
o Threatens to inflict ABH by offensive weapon or instrument
o Deprives the alleged victim of their liberty

109
Q

What are the three proofs of sexual intercourse without consent in accordance with 61I of the Crimes Act?

A

1) Had sexual intercourse with the complainant;
2) Without the consent of the complainant;
3) Knowing that the complainant did not consent.

110
Q

Describe the case law result regarding R v HE KAW TAY.

A

Case law; which states the accused MUST KNOW THE EXISTENCE or THE LIKELY EXISTENCE and nature of the narcotic goods.

Onus is on the prosecution to prove the accused had this at the time of having physical control.

111
Q

Describe the case law result regarding R v FILIPETTI?

A

Case law; which indicates the accused required exclusive physical control to be convicted of a prohibited drug.

112
Q

In accordance with section 25 of Drugs Misuse and Trafficking act; what are the proofs of SUPPLY PROHIBITED DRUG?

A

Supply prohibited drug

  • The accused
  • Did supply
  • A prohibited drug.
113
Q

Describe the case law result regarding R v HAMZY?

A

Case law; which indicates where a number of acts are involved, the series of incidents of at the same nature can be accumulated into one indictment.

In this case regarding drug supply; the quantities for each act of supply were accumulated from individual amount to establish a commercial qauntity.

114
Q

In accordance with section 25A of the Drugs Misuse and Trafficking act; what are the proofs of ON-GOING SUPPLY?

A
On going supply. 
- The supply of a prohibited drug 3 or more times,
 - Within a consecutive 30 days,
-  For financial or material reward. 
(Can't be cannabis)
115
Q

In accordance with Section 23 (1) of the Drugs Misuse and Trafficking act; what are the proofs of CULTIVATE PROHIBITED PLANT

A

Cultivate prohibited plant;

A person who;

a) Cultivates, or knowingly takes part in the cultivation of, a prohibited plant,
b) Supplies or knowingly takes part in the supply of prohibited plant,
c) Has a prohibited plant in his possession, is guilty of an offence.

116
Q

To satisfy ‘Cultivation’ with regards to a prohibited plant; what types of cultivation evidence do we need?

A
  • Involves the sowing of seeds
  • Planting, growing, tending to, nurture, watering
  • Harvesting of prohibited plant.
117
Q

What is the Definition and Extended Definition of Supply prohibited drug?

A

Supply;
DEFINITION
-Includes sell and distribute, agree to supply, offer to supply, keeping or having in possession to supply, delivering or receiving for supply, or authorising, directing, causing suffering, permitting or attempting any of those acts or things.

EXTENDED DEFINTION
- Intention required; The suspects intention that the offer to be regarded as genuine by the person receiving the offer.

118
Q

What is Larceny as a clerk or servent?

A

Section 156 Crimes Act – Larceny as a clerk or servant (After the till)

  • Accused is a clerk or servant
  • Property was owned or in possession of master/employer
  • The accused stole the property from the master/employer
119
Q

What is Embezzlement?

A

S157 Crimes Act - Before the Till

  • Received the property
  • before coming into the possession of the master/employer
  • Stole the property
120
Q

What does indentification information mean in accordance with 192I

A
  • a name or address,
  • a date or place of birth, marital status,relative’s identity or similar information,
  • a driver licence or driver licence number,
  • a passport or passport number,
  • biometric data,
  • a voice print,
  • a credit or debit card, its number or data stored or encrypted on it,
  • a financial account number, user name or password,
  • a digital signature,
  • a series of numbers or letters (or both) intended for use as a means of personal identification,
  • an ABN.
121
Q

What are the elements of Possession of identification information in accordance with S192K of the Crimes Act?

A
  • A person who possesses identification information
  • With the INTENTION of committing or of facilitating
  • The commission of an indictable offence

Proved through admissions, dealing act – Need to prove the intent

122
Q

What are the proofs for S 253 Crimes Act, Forgery – making false document?

A

Making false document;

A person who MAKES a false document with the intention that the person or another will use it:

(a) to induce some person to accept it as genuine, and
(b) because of its being accepted as genuine:
(i) to obtain any property belonging to another, or
(ii) to obtain any financial advantage or cause any financial disadvantage, or
(iii) to influence the exercise of a public duty,

123
Q

What are the proofs for S 254 Crimes Act, Using false document or ?

A

Using false document;

A person who USES a false document, knowing that it is false, with the intention of:

(a) inducing some person to accept it as genuine, and
(b) because of its being accepted as genuine:
(i) obtaining any property belonging to another, or
(ii) obtaining any financial advantage or causing any financial disadvantage, or
(iii) influencing the exercise of a public duty,

124
Q

Explain the case R V RYAN?

A

R v RYAN relates to an armed robbery; during which RYAN loaded and armed himself with a firearm, then tied up a victim during the robbery. RYAN had the firearm aimed at the victim’s head. When the victim turned around, RYAN suddenly pulled the trigger.

RYAN argued it was an involuntary action to pull the trigger and attempted the AUTOMATISM defence. But based on the facts that the accused had prepared himself, the firearm and put himself in that situation it was held that the acts of RYAN caused the victim’s death and was convicted of murder.

125
Q

Explain the result of HALLET’s case?

A

HALLET assault the victim and left the victim unconscious on the beach. The tide rose and the victim was later found dead. The causation was found to be due to the acts of the accused.

Defence argued the tide rising was a ‘nous actus interveniens’ (NEW INTERVENING ACT) which supervened and took over of the leading cause of death. This was Rejected.

To break the causal chain defence must establish on the balance of probabilities that the novus actus interveniens (intervening Act) is SUBSTANTIAL so EXTRAORDINARY to happen to break the chain of causation (eg/an act of god)

126
Q

What are the proofs Hindering Investigation in accordance with section 315 of the Crimes Act?

A

(1) A person who does anything intending in any way to hinder:
(a) the investigation of a serious indictable offence committed by another person, or
(b) the discovery of evidence concerning a serious indictable offence committed by another person, or
(c) the apprehension of another person who has committed a serious indictable offence.

  • ONLY NEED PROVE THEY KNEW AN OFFENCE HAD BEEN COMMITTED.
  • THE HINDER MUST BE DELIBERATE.
127
Q

Who has the power to permit a charge of Perjury?

A

The Attorney General or director of the ODPP.