Review questions Chapter 4 Flashcards Preview

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1
Q

Injurious immune reactions are grouped under hypersensitivity reaction, and involve inappropriately
targeted or inadequately controlled immune responses?

A

True

2
Q

Approximately ______ of the population is allergic to common environmental antigens (e.g. pollen,
animal dander, or dust mites)?

A

20%

3
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved with anaphylactic shock?

A

Type 1

4
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved with autoimmune hemolytic anemia or Goodpasture syndrome?

A

Type 2

5
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved with systemic Lupus, glomulonephritis,, and or Arthus reactions?

A

Type 3

6
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved with Dermatitis, MS, and/or tuberculosis?

A

Type 4

7
Q

An immediate hypersensitivity reaction that involves damage to the host’s tissue following exposure to a
harmless environmental antigen is categorized as a ___________ hypersensitivity reaction.

A

Type 1

8
Q

_______ hypersensitivity disorders are caused by antibodies directed against target antigens on the surface of cells or other tissue components.

A

Type 2

9
Q

The late-phase reaction associated with a Type I hypersensitivity reaction most commonly develops
__________ after the initial exposure

A

6 hours

10
Q

Type I hypersensitivity reactions manifest with local and systemic reactions and have a strong familial
predisposition to development.

A

True

11
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction involves antibody-mediated opsonization of red blood cells during ABO
incompatibility? (

A

Type 2

12
Q

Antigen-antibody (immune) complexes are associated with _____________________.

A

Type 3

13
Q

Small amounts of immune complex formation commonly cause Type III hypersensitivity reactions.

A

False

14
Q

Large amounts of immune complex formation commonly cause Type 3 Hypersensitivity reactions

A

true

15
Q

Type III hypersensitivity reactions most commonly involve which 3 of the following tissues?

A

Blood vessels, kidneys, and joints

16
Q

Type 2 reactions most commonly involve which 4 of the following tissues?

A

Heart, Thyroid, blood vessels and lungs

17
Q

Contact dermatitis is an example of a ______________ that involves sensitization of TH1 CD4+ cells
within the dermal tissues.

A

Type 4

18
Q

Which of the following is commonly referred to as “delayed-type” hypersensitivity because the reaction
develops in response to an antigen approximately 12-48 hours following exposure? (

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

19
Q

Autoimmune diseases affect ________ of the all individuals within developed countries.

A

3% (in practice test) 2-5% in book

20
Q

Most individuals are tolerant to their own antigens and develop autoimmunity.

A

False

21
Q

Most individuals are tolerant to their own antigens, failure of self tolerance develops autoimmunity.

A

true

22
Q

Central tolerance involves apoptosis of T cells and B cells within the thymus and bone marrow,
respectively.

A

True

23
Q

The pathoetiology of most autoimmune diseases is well-understood.

A

False , as the underlying causes of most human auto- immune diseases remain to be determined.

24
Q

Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) alleles are associated with the ___________ association of
autoimmune conditions.

A

Genetic

25
Q

Autoimmune diseases have a tendency to run in fami- lies, and there is a greater incidence of the same disease in ______ than in ______

A

monozygotic; dizygotic

26
Q

Ultraviolet (UV) radiation exacerbates the cutaneous lesions associated with SLE, which is commonly
termed ________________.

A

Photosensitivity

27
Q

Fixed erythema over malar eminences are often associated with SLE and are termed as _______

A

Malar Rash

28
Q

95% of patients with SLE will test positive for these

A

ANAs (anti nuclear antibodies)

29
Q

Antinuclear antibodies are _________________ for the presence of systemic lupus erythematosus
(SLE)?

A

Highly sensitive

30
Q

The most common cause of death among individuals with systemic lupus erythematosus is
_______________.

A

Kidney failure

31
Q

Libman-Sacks endocarditis is associated with ____________________. (

A

SLE

32
Q

With SLE, the ______ may be moderately enlarged. Capsular fibrous thickening is common, as is follicular hyper- plasia with numerous plasma cells in the red pulp

A

spleen

33
Q

with SLE, the ____ may reveal interstitial fibrosis, along with pleural inflammation; the ______ shows nonspecific inflammation of the portal tracts.

A

Lungs; liver

34
Q

Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with destruction of the lacrimal and
salivary glands ?

A

Sjögren syndrome

35
Q

Antinuclear antibodies and dermoepidermal IgG antibodies are associated with ______________.

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

36
Q

Which of the following individuals is most likely to develop Sjögren syndrome?

A

A 40-year-old female

37
Q

Women between ages of 50-60 years old are most likely to develop __________

A

Systemic sclerosis

38
Q

Women between ages of 35-45 years old are most likely to develop __________

A

Sjögren syndrome

39
Q

Young women are most likely to develop __________

A

SLE

40
Q

Systemic sclerosis is most likely to involve _______________.

A

Cutaneous tissue

41
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of secondary immune deficiency?

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency

42
Q

Individuals with defects in phagocytic cells typically suffer from recurrent pyogenic bacterial infections,
while those with defects in cell-mediated immunity are prone to viral and fungal infections

A

true

43
Q

Most primary (congenital) immune deficiencies become clinically evident by the age of __________.

A

1 year

44
Q

X-linked agammaglobulinemia is most likely to affect _____________.

A

Boys

45
Q

Which of the following forms of primary immune deficiency results in a lack of ability to produce IgG,
IgA, and IgE isotypes?

A

Hyper-IgM syndrome

46
Q

Which of the following is most common among Native Americans and disrupts both humoral and cellmediated
immunity?

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency

47
Q

Which of the following is the most common? AIDS or Therapy induced immune suppression

A

Therapy-induced immunosuppression

48
Q

What is an X-linked recessive disease
characterized by thrombocytopenia, eczema, and a marked vul- nerability to recurrent infection, ending in early death; the only treatment is bone marrow transplantation. ?

A

Wiskott Aldrich syndrome

49
Q

The most common of all the primary immune deficiency diseases and mostly affects caucasians

A

Isolated IgA deficiency

50
Q

The largest group of individuals infected by AIDS in Africa are ____________________

A

Women infected by male sexual

partners

51
Q

The largest group of individuals infected by AIDS in USA are _______

A

Male to male infection

52
Q

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be transmitted via breast milk and semen.

A

True

53
Q

Which 2 of the following are the major targets of HIV?

A

Immune system, CNS, Lungs

54
Q

Viruses characteristically migrate to the ____________ during the transition into the chronic (latent)
phase of an HIV infection ?

A

Spleen

55
Q

Viruses characteristically are found in the ____________ during the acute
phase of an HIV infection ?

A

lymph nodes

56
Q

Which of the following is the hallmark sign of AIDS?

A

Marked reduction of CD4+ T cells

57
Q

HIV is most likely to be transmitted to the CNS via infected ___________.

A

Monocytes

58
Q
Virtually all (> 95%) of all patients infected with HIV will develop a sore throat, myalgia, fever, and a rash
within 3 to 6 weeks after the initial infection.
A

False

59
Q

Which of the following is a common fungal infection of the lungs among individuals in the crisis phase of
AIDS?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

60
Q

Which of the following is a common bacterial infection of the lungs among individuals in the crisis phase of
AIDS?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

61
Q

The brain is the most common extranodal site of B cell lymphoma development among individuals with
late-stage HIV infection, and nearly 100% of such neoplasms are associated with

A

Epstein–Barr virus (EBV)

62
Q

Which condition is associated with extracellular deposits of fibrillar proteins?

A

Amyloidosis

63
Q

β-Amyloid plaques are strongly associated with __________.

A

Alzheimers

64
Q

Which type of amyloid protein is most likely to be associated with long-standing inflammation?

A

Amyloid-associated (AA)

65
Q

Which type of amyloid protein is type is associated with some form of monoclonal B cell proliferation?

A

AL (light chain amyloid)

66
Q

The presence of an M protein spike and Bence-Jones proteins (a type of AL proteins) in the urine are
features of which condition?

A

Multiple myeloma

67
Q

Restrictive cardiomyopathy is commonly associated with which condition?

A

Amyloidosis

68
Q

Macroglossia, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly are most likely to be associated with
_________________.

A

Amyloidosis