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Flashcards in Resp HW 1b Deck (25)
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1

A patient with quiet tachypnea is MOST likely experiencing:
Choose one answer.
A. shock.
B. asthma.
C. alkalosis.
D. airway swelling.

A

2

A patient who is coughing up purulent sputum is MOST likely experiencing:
Choose one answer.
A. emphysema.
B. dehydration.
C. an infection.
D. pulmonary edema.

C

3

If a patient's hemoglobin level is only 10 g/dL, ___ % would have to be desaturated before he or she would appear cyanotic.
Choose one answer.
A. 10
B. 25
C. 30
D. 50

D

4

A patent airway:
Choose one answer.
A. is evidenced by visible chest rise.
B. should be prophylactically suctioned.
C. does not equate to adequate ventilation.
D. is characterized by adequate tidal volume.

C

5

Hepatomegaly and jugular venous distention are MOST suggestive of:
Choose one answer.
A. left heart failure.
B. right heart failure.
C. pulmonary edema.
D. severe pneumonia.

B

6

Apneustic breathing is characterized by:
Choose one answer.
A. a sustained pattern of tachypnea and increased tidal volume.
B. short, brisk inhalations with a long pause before exhalation.
C. regular respirations with a normal rate and adequate tidal volume.
D. a crescendo-decrescendo pattern of breathing with apneic periods.

B

7

Patients with pneumonia often experience a coughing fit when they roll from one side to the other because:
Choose one answer.
A. movement loosens pulmonary secretions and stimulates coughing.
B. most cases of pneumonia occur in conjunction with bronchospasm.
C. the secretions in their lungs suddenly disperse and impair breathing.
D. pneumonia often occurs in the lung bases, typically on only one side.

D

8

A patient with status asthmaticus commonly presents with:
Choose one answer.
A. compensatory respiratory alkalosis and stridor.
B. accessory muscle use and inspiratory wheezing.
C. audible expiratory wheezing and severe cyanosis.
D. physical exhaustion and inaudible breath sounds.

D

9

Frothy sputum that has a pink tinge to it is MOST suggestive of:
Choose one answer.
A. tuberculosis.
B. antihistamine use.
C. chronic bronchitis.
D. congestive heart failure.

D

10

Respiratory alkalosis is the result of:
Choose one answer.
A. carbon dioxide retention.
B. slow and shallow respirations.
C. increased hydrogen ion production.
D. excess carbon dioxide elimination.

D

11

Which of the following medications is a parasympathetic bronchodilator?
Choose one answer.
A. Alupent
B. Albuterol
C. Bronkosol
D. Ipratropium

D

12

Difficulty with exhalation is MOST characteristic of:
Choose one answer.
A. supraglottic swelling.
B. upper airway obstruction.
C. a mild asthma attack.
D. obstructive lung disease.

D

13

One of the hallmarks of a pulmonary embolism is:
Choose one answer.
A. the disappearance of radial pulses during inhalation.
B. pleuritic chest pain that occurs after a strong cough.
C. cyanosis that does not resolve with oxygen therapy.
D. jugular venous distention while in a supine position.

C

14

In contrast to decreased PO2 levels, increased PCO2 levels typically manifest as:
Choose one answer.
A. anxiety.
B. combativeness.
C. sedation or sleepiness.
D. restlessness or confusion.

C

15

You are dispatched to a residence for a 59-year-old man with difficulty breathing. The patient, who has a history of COPD, is conscious and alert. During your assessment, he tells you that he developed chills, fever, and a productive cough 2 days ago. Auscultation of his lungs reveals rhonchi to the left lower lobe. This patient is MOST likely experiencing:
Choose one answer.
A. bronchitis.
B. pneumonia.
C. end-stage COPD.
D. COPD exacerbation.

B

16

The classic presentation of chronic bronchitis is:
Choose one answer.
A. excessive mucus production and a chronic or recurrent productive cough.
B. a thin male with pursed-lip breathing and a history of heavy cigarette smoking.
C. a dry, hacking cough and a barrel chest due to chronic pulmonary air trapping.
D. expiratory wheezing and jugular venous distention due to pulmonary hypertension.

A

17

The diaphragm of the stethoscope is designed to auscultate:
Choose one answer.
A. heart tones.
B. low-pitched sounds.
C. bowel sounds.
D. high-pitched sounds.

D

18

Intubation of a patient with severe asthma:
Choose one answer.
A. is clearly indicated if the patient's condition does not resolve following field corticosteroid therapy.
B. is often a last resort because asthmatics are difficult to ventilate and are prone to pneumothoraces.
C. should only be performed after hyperventilating the patient with a bag-mask device for 2 to 3 minutes.
D. is generally contraindicated because weaning the patient off of a ventilator can take several days.

B

19

Hepatojugular reflux occurs when:
Choose one answer.
A. left-sided heart failure causes blood to accumulate in the patient's liver.
B. the jugular veins collapse in response to palpation of the right upper quadrant.
C. mild pressure placed on the patient's liver further engorges the jugular veins.
D. a patient's jugular veins are markedly engorged when lying in a supine position.

C

20

In contrast to negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation:
Choose one answer.
A. is the forcing of air into the lungs.
B. occurs when the diaphragm descends.
C. is provided with a nonrebreathing mask.
D. can only be provided to intubated patients.

A

21

Digital clubbing is MOST indicative of:
Choose one answer.
A. acute hypoxemia.
B. chronic hypoxia.
C. right heart failure.
D. peripheral vascular disease.

B

22

Common clinical findings in patients with obstructive lung disease include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. a decreased expiratory phase.
B. pursed-lip breathing.
C. abdominal muscle use.
D. chronic air trapping in the lungs.

A

23

Patients with decompensated asthma or COPD who require positive-pressure ventilation:
Choose one answer.
A. should be ventilated routinely at a rate that is slightly faster than the rate for a patient without an underlying pulmonary disease.
B. may develop a pneumothorax or experience a decrease in venous return to the heart if they are ventilated too rapidly.
C. should be intubated promptly and ventilated at a rate of 20 to 24 breaths/min to eliminate excess carbon dioxide.
D. should be given forceful positive-pressure breaths because their primary problem is difficulty with inhalation.

B

24

Retractions of the sternum or ribs during inhalation:
Choose one answer.
A. are common in patients with emphysema.
B. are signs of acute respiratory failure in adults.
C. occur when soft tissue is pulled in around the bones.
D. are especially common in infants and small children.

D

25

Hyperpnea and tachypnea:
Choose one answer.
A. cause an increase in minute ventilation.
B. are caused by decreased diaphragmatic function.
C. are characterized by shallow chest wall movement.
D. result from decreased negative-pressure ventilation.

A