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NUTR 441 > Renal > Flashcards

Renal Flashcards

1
Q

what is the major job of the kidney?

A

regulate comp of body fluids/remove metabolic waste to ensure homeostasis

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2
Q

what is the functional unit of kidney?

A

nephron

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3
Q

what is the glomerulus?

A

tuft of capillaries surrounded by special type of basement membrane

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4
Q

what happens in glomerulus?

A

filtration (water/small molecules <5000 daltons are filtered into Bowman’s capsule)

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5
Q

why is filtrate not = to urine?

A

cuz of reabsorption and secretion steps

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6
Q

some major kidney fxns?

A

fluid electrolyte balance, excretion of metabolic wastes, excretion of drugs/toxins, reg acid-base balance, role in reg BP, erythropoiesis, vit. D activation

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7
Q

Most Na filtered by kidney gets _____

A

reabsorbed

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8
Q

majority Na reabsorbed and not regulated called ____ and this happens in _____

A

basal; proximal tubule

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9
Q

portion of Na reabsorption that can be regulated happens in:

A

distal convoluted tubule (aldosterone regulated)

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10
Q

almost all K is reabsorbed in _____

A

proximal tubule

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11
Q

any K in urine is ____ in the distal tubules in exchange for Na

A

secreted

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12
Q

ex. of metabolic wastes?

A

urea, creatinine, uric acid

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13
Q

how can diet increase urea production? Where does urea come from?

A

amino acids (ammonia), high protein intake, stress state, low energy diet (first priority is protein/a.a. breakdown for gluconeogensis), protein of low biological value

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14
Q

Vitamin D activation -OH steps happen in:

A

kidney and liver

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15
Q

important screening/diagnostic tests

A

BP, urinalysis (random urine protein or albumin, urine osmolality), serum urea, serum electrolytes, radiological procedures, assessment of GFR

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16
Q

what is ACR?

A

urine albumin to creatinine ratio

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17
Q

what is PCR?

A

urine protein to creatinine ratio (^ when CKD)

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18
Q

what is GFR?

A

volume of fluid filtered from renal glomerular capillaries into Bowman’s space per unit time

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19
Q

assessment of GFR is currently done by: ____ + _____

A

serum creatinine + eGFR

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20
Q

what is creatinine?

A

breakdown product of phosphocreatine (high energy reserve) in muscle

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21
Q

what factors determine how much creatinine is in serum?

A

1) produced in amounts proportional to muscle mass (going into blood) 2) depends on GFR (going out of blood)

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22
Q

why not just use serum creatinine?

A

too many other factors like muscle mass, age, sex, ethnicity, etc.

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23
Q

2 examples of formulas for GFR?

A

cockroft Gault and MDRD

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24
Q

CKD is characterized by:

A

progressive decline in kidney fxn occuring over mths/years, irreversible but can slow progression, dialysis/transplants extend life in kidney failure

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25
Q

etiology of CKD

A

DM, uncontrolled hypertension (damaging blood vessels in kidney), glomerulonephritis (inflammation in glomeruli), vascular disease (atherosclerosis affecting arteries), polycystic disease (genetic), lupus erythematosus (arthritis)

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26
Q

pathophysiology of CKD:

A

gradual decrease in fxning nephrons, cause may initially adversely affect either glomeruli or tubules, fewer remainng functional nephrons try to compensate by ^ in size and fxn, eGFR gradually decreases

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27
Q

signs and symptoms of CKD?

A

early on may be polyuria or nocturia but becomes oliguria/anuria/dysuria, foamy urine that is tea coloured, fatigue, itching, anemia, swelling of hands and feet, shortness of breath, bad taste in mouth, cold intolerance, nausea/vomiting/anorexia due to uremia, CNS symptoms

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28
Q

what causes CNS symptoms?

A

untreated uremia (buildup of urea/other byproducts of protein metabolism)

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29
Q

as GFR decreases, serum Phosphate ____, serum Ca ____, secretion of PTH ____

A

increases; decreases; increases

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30
Q

secondary decrease in Ca absorption?

A

impaired renal hydroxylation of 25-OH cholecalciferol

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31
Q

contributors to renal osteodystrophy (bone pain and fractures) are:

A

acidosis, excess PTH, altered vit D metabolism

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32
Q

treatment for CKD:

A

control BP, detect microalbuminuria and treat with drug therapy, control HbA1c, cease smoking, reduce dyslipidemia, nutr care, dialysis, renal transplants

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33
Q

2 types of dialysis:

A

hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis

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34
Q

this dialysis involves an artificial kidney machine or dialyzer to remove unwanted substances from blood stream (permanent access to bloodstream), there are diff forms of vascular access

A

hemodialysis

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35
Q

rates and amounts of fluid/waste products removed can be varied by using diff:

A

membranes, blood flow rates, dialysate concentration

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36
Q

v total blood volume causes:

A

hypothalamus stimlate release of antidiuretic hormone from posterior pit gland –> ^ water reabsorption

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37
Q

regulation of BP is through ____ system

A

renin-angiotensin

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38
Q

what is urine osmolality?

A

ability of kidney to concentrate or dilute urine

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39
Q

ideal nuclear medicine method marker?

A

endogenous, freely filtered, not secreted/reabsorbed, inexpensive to measure

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40
Q

approx eGFR for young adults is:

A

120-130 mL/min/1.73m^2

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41
Q

malnutrition potential begins at stage ___ of CKD

A

3

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42
Q

why add glucose in dialysate?

A

prevent hypoglycemia

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43
Q

excess fluid is removed in hemodialysis by ___

A

ultrafiltration

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44
Q

what is the peritoneum?

A

membrane that lines ab cavity and surrounds ab organs, forming sac

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45
Q

how does peritoneal dialysis work?

A

dialysate enters peritoneal space thru catheter penetrating ab wall –>clamped so fluid remains in peritoneum, drain after given amount of time

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46
Q

peritoneal dialysis relies on exchange with _____ in the ____

A

circulating plasma ; capillaries

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47
Q

peritoneal similar to hemodialysis principles except:

A

dialysate contains enough glucose to make it hypertonic relative to plasma, causing fluid to flow into peritoneal cavity

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48
Q

efficiency of peritoneal dialysis determine by:

A

concentrations in dialysate, dwell time (amt of time dialysate in the peritoneal cavity)

49
Q

2 major types of peritoneal dialysis :

A

continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD), continuous cycling peritoneal dialysis (CCPD)

50
Q

what is CAPD?

A

repeated infusions of dialysate into peritoneal space–> dialysate stays in peritoneal space for 4-6 hours, drained by gravity–>repeat (long dwell time overnight) –>note that kids would get this

51
Q

what is CCPD?

A

machine does repeated timed cycle of infusion, dwell, and drain at night automatically, dialysate left in peritoneal cavity during day, then drained by gravity and repeated

52
Q

normal/goal values for Na:

A

135-146 mmol/L

53
Q

normal/goal values for K:

A

3.5-5.1 mmol/L

54
Q

normal/goal values for P:

A

0.70-1.53 (<1.78)mmol/L

55
Q

normal/goal values for Ca:

A

2.10-2.55 mmol/L

56
Q

normal urea values :

A

3.7-7 mmol/L

57
Q

normal creatinine values:

A

45-125 (m) and 45-110 (f) mmol/L

58
Q

normal albumin values:

A

35-52 g/L

59
Q

normal HCO3 values:

A

22-31 mmol/L

60
Q

normal PTH values?

A

1.3-7.6 (16-50) pmol/L

61
Q

what is a fistula?

A

anastomosis of artery and vein shunting arterial blood into vein

62
Q

medications commonly used in Renal disease

A

antihypertensives, diuretics, lipid lowering agents, phosphorus binders, vit D analogues (later stages), sodium polystyrene sultanate, human recombinant erythropoietin, nutrition support for ^ erythrocyte production (iron, B12, folate)

63
Q

why take P binders with meal?

A

bind phosphate and prevent absorption from GIT (Al or Ca based usually)

64
Q

what is sodium polystyrene sulfonate?

A

cation-exchange resin to bind K if serum K is high

65
Q

major cause of anemia in CKD?

A

v erythropoietin production = v erythrocyte production = anemia (also can be blood losses associated with testing and dialysis, diet factors)

66
Q

objectives of nutrition care?

A

1) maintain optimal nutrition status 2) minimize metabolic disorders and related symptoms (reduce intake of substances can’t excrete well, provide replacements for compounds lost in ^ quantities) 3) slow progression of disease

67
Q

causes of protein-energy malnutrition in advanced CKD/dialysis?

A

poor food intake (anorexia by uraemia, altered taste, unpalatable prescribed diets), catabolic response to illness/inflammation, loss of nutrients and promotion of protein catabolism through dialysis, endocrine disorders of uraemia (insulin resistance), accumulation of uremic toxins

68
Q

factors that ^ muscle catabolism and ^ uraemia?

A

inadequate energy intake, inadequate protein intake, unbalanced protein

69
Q

what happens as protein metabolism changes?

A

protein byproducts ^–>anorexia/nausea –> v intake –> ^ muscle protein catabolism –> ^ uremia and tendency toward - nitro balance and muscle wasting (stimulated by metabolic acidosis)

70
Q

how to deal with metabolic alterations of protein from nutrition point of view?

A

not provide excess to prevent accumulation of end products–>match diet protein with v workload capability of kidneys (but note small increase in protein requirement in earlier stages p.t. protein-energy malnutrition)

71
Q

why difference in energy requirements based on age?

A

body comp changes–>v muscle mass (which is biggest impact in RMR), v activity

72
Q

protein recommendations assume:

A

energy needs being met by nonprotein sources

73
Q

why is serum urea nonspecific?

A

affected by v Renal function, ^ protein intake, inadequate energy intake

74
Q

anthropometric assessment for protein-energy status:

A

wt corrected for height, BMI, mid arm circumference

75
Q

biochem assessment for protein - energy status:

A

serum albumin

76
Q

why serum albumin not super accurate measure protein status?

A

cuz chronic inflammation affects this value more than protein status (masking effect)

77
Q

monitoring tools for na and water retention

A

edema, serum Na, urine volume, BP , body weight

78
Q

fluid recommendations stage 3 and 4:

A

restrict prn

79
Q

if diet Na v, thirst often ___

A

decreases

80
Q

K recommendations in 1 and 2:

A

unrestricted but note DN interactions with ACE 1 and ARB, diuretics

81
Q

K recommendations stage 3+4

A

restrict 50-80mmol (2-3g)

82
Q

why hyperkalemia usually not occur til later stage?

A

cuz distal tubules have excess capacity to excrete it

83
Q

adverse effects associated with severe hypokalemia/hyperkalemia?

A

cardiac arrhythmias

84
Q

stage 1 and 2 recommendations for Ca:

A

aim for DRI, unrestricted (but discuss added P)

85
Q

stage 3+4 recommendations for Ca:

A

Ca avoid/treat symptomatic hypocalcemia <2000mg–>prevent bone loss

86
Q

patients at risk of deficiencies cuz:

A

poor intake, diet restriction, losses in dialysate

87
Q

at stage 4 recommend this:

A

a multivitamin supplement for water soluble vitamins

88
Q

why avoid supplemental vitamins A and C?

A

prevent toxicity–>transport protein probs so vit A accumulates; vit C increases oxalate formation (Ca-oxalate kidney stones)

89
Q

why ^ protein intake in end stage on dialysis?

A

dialysis assists getting rid of metabolic end products, plus some extra protein losses (loss in the dialysate, accelerated protein catabolism due to dialysis)

90
Q

fluid recommendation for stage 5

A

1-1.5 L

91
Q

____ body weight is most useful for assessing nutrition status

A

post dialysis

92
Q

energy needs with peritoneal change cuz:

A

significant absorption of glucose from dialysate as source of energy (subtract energy obtained from glucose in equations for estimate energy needs)

93
Q

Phosphorus recommendation at stage 3:

A

800-1000 mg ideal, up to 1200mg P, think of malnutrition (protein, meat)

94
Q

control of water excretion is regulated by:

A

vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone)

95
Q

normal waste products?

A

urea, uric acid, creatinine, ammonia

96
Q

if normal waste products are not eliminated properly they collect in abnormal quantities in blood, known as:

A

azotemia

97
Q

what is the renin-angiotensin mechanism?

A

reg blood pressure: decreased blood volume causes cells of the glomerulus to react by secreting renin (proteolytic enzyme)–>acts on angiotensinogen in plasma to form angiotensin 1–>angiotensin 2–>vasoconstrictor and potent stimulus of aldosterone secretion by the adrenal gland–>sodium and fluid reabsorbed, BP returned normal

98
Q

role of kidney on bone?

A

produces active vitamin D, eliminates Ca and P

99
Q

single most important risk factor for all types of kidney stones (nephrolithiasis)?

A

low urine volume

100
Q

leading cause of CKD?

A

diabetes (followed by hypertension and glomerulonephritis)

101
Q

markers of stage 1 and 2?

A

proteinuria, hematuria, anatomic issues

102
Q

primary goals of nutrition therapy in CKD?

A

manage symptoms, decrease risk of renal failure, decrease inflammation, maintain nutrition stores

103
Q

clinical syndrome of malaise, weakness, nausea, vomiting, muscle cramps, itching, metallic taste, near impairment cuz of unacceptable lvl of nitro wastes in body

A

uremia

104
Q

waste products and electrolytes move by _________ from the blood into dialysate and are removed

A

diffusion, ultrafiltration, osmosis

105
Q

method for evaluating efficacy of dialysis, measuring removal of urea from pt blood over given period

A

kinetic modeling

106
Q

method to determine effectiveness dialysis tratment that looks at the reduction in urea before and after dialysis

A

urea reduction ratio

107
Q

6 goals of nutrition therapy in management of end stage renal disease:

A

prevent deficiency and maintain good nutrition status, control edema and electrolyte imbalance, prevent development of renal osteodystrophy, enable palatable and attractive diet, coordinate patient care, provide education counselling and monitoring

108
Q

pt should not take oral iron at the same time as:

A

phosphate binders

109
Q

limit fruits/veg and juices to ___ servings/day, limit dairy products to ____ serving/day

A

6;1

110
Q

strategies to deal with thirst without drinking:

A

sucking on ice chips, cold sliced fruit, sour candies, artificial saliva

111
Q

why over secretion of PTH?

A

cuz lack of active vit D means poor GI absorption of Ca, plus Ca needs ^ cuz serum P ^–>hypertrophy of parathyroid gland

112
Q

this occurs when calcium phosphate removed from bones is deposited in non bone cells, when serum Ca and serum P multiplied together = > 70

A

metastatic calcification

113
Q

this occurs when calcium phosphate is deposited in wound tissues with resultant vascular calcification, thrombosis, non healing wounds, gangrene

A

calciphylaxis

114
Q

all people taking EPO need:

A

periodic IV or intramuscular iron

115
Q

why niacin helpful lowering phosphate lvls in ESRD?

A

interferes with Na-PO4 pump in GI lumen, cause decreased transport of phosphate

116
Q

why high serum glucose cause hyperkalemia?

A

water and potassium pulled out of cells

117
Q

why transplant recipients have elevated serum TG or Cholesterol?

A

tissue wt gain and resultant obesity, med side effects, lack of physical exercise

118
Q

most common stage of CKD

A

stage 3

119
Q

what causes metabolic acidosis?

A

primarily from protein (amino acid), low bicarbonate

NUTR 441 (14 decks)

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