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NAVLE study Questions > Random > Flashcards

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1
Q

Name the 4 stages involved in the healing process of a skin graft

A

1) adherence-starts within the first 8 hours post-op
2) plasmatic imbibition-maximum about 48-72 hours after grafting
3) inosculation
4) penetration and ingrowth of new blood vessels

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2
Q

Which specific blood vessels is the most common type of congenital portosystemic shunt in the dog? And in the cat?

A

Dog: persistent ductus venosus
Cat: left gastric vein

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3
Q

Butorphanol administered to horses, loperamide administered to cats and acepromazine administered to dogs, all may cause which type of adverse effect?

A

Profound excitement/CNS stimulation

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4
Q

Name 3 types of transfusion reactions

A

1) anaphylactic
2) acute hemolytic-pre-existing anti-erythrocyte abs in recipient
3) delayed hemolytic-development of anti-erythrocyte abs over time
4) febrile/bacterial contaminant
5) volume overload
6) citrate toxicosis
7) in vitro hemolytic
8) infectious disease from donor

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5
Q

Name 4 conditions that predispose a small animal patient to pulmonary thromboembolism

A 
Angiostrongyliasis
Corticosteroids-exogenous or endogenous
Dirofilarsis
DIC
Heart disease-right atrial enlargement, endocarditis
IMHA
indwelling central venous catheter
Pancreatitis
PLE
renal disease-amyloidosis, glomerulonephritis
Septicemia
Trauma
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6
Q

Pharmacologic agents used for delaying parturition are called:

A

Tocolytics

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7
Q

What is the preferred method for preventing leishmaniasis?

A

Avoidance of exposure to the vector, the sand fly

No vaccine available

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8
Q

With respect to hair rubbing against the surface of the cornea: what is the difference between ectopic cilia, distichiasis and trichiasis?

A

Ectopic cilia: aberrant individual eyelashes arising from meibomian glands and growing through the conjunctiva towards the globe
Distichiasis: presence of an additional row of eyelashes on the eyelid margin, in addition to the normal lashes
Triachiasis: normal facial hair that rubs on the conjunctival or cornea

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9
Q

What is a leiomyosarcoma? What is its best recognized paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

A malignant tumor of the smooth muscle origin

Hypoglycemia

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10
Q

What is the meaning of myelophthisic disease?

A

Disease characteried by bone marrow obliteration/replacement with nonmarrow tissue

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11
Q

Which renal syndrome causes renal tubular acidosis, primary urinary loss of glucose, amino acids and phosphate?

A

Fanconi syndrome

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12
Q

How does the toxin of Clostridium tetani cause disinhibition of the extensor motor neurons?

A

It inteferes with interneuronal release of inhibitor NTs glycine (SC) and GABA (brainstem)

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13
Q

what would you give as an antidote to a patient with carbamate intoxication?

A

Atropine

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14
Q

the trapezius muscle is innervated by which nerve?

A

Accessory nerve (Cranial nerve XI)-dorsal branch

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15
Q

What is a tension pneumothorax?

A

Air in the pleural space, where air continues to enter the pleural space but cannot exit
“one-way valve” effect of lesion causing pneumothorax

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16
Q

What is the ECG characteristic that defines first-degree AV block?

A

prolonged PR interval

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17
Q

Streptococci are divided into 3 types based on hemolysis patterns when grown on blood agar plates (alpha-, beta-, and gamma- hemolytic). In which of these 3 categories are most of the pathogenic streptococci?

A

beta-hemolytic

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18
Q

The total lung capacity consists of?

A

inspiratory reserve volume
expiratory reserve volume
residual volume
tidal volume

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19
Q

Two of these gastric acid-reducing drugs also have GI promotility effects. Which ones? Cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, nizatidine

A

ranitidine

nizatidine

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20
Q

the blood supply to the cow’s udder comes primarily from which artery?

A

external pudendal artery

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21
Q

Which synthetic absorbable suture material retains tensile strength for the longest period of time?
Polydioxanone (PDS)
Polyglycolic acid
Silk

A

polydioxanone (PDS)

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22
Q

Tissue transplanted from one site to another in the same patient is called an______?

A

autograft

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23
Q

A patient has a HCT of 78%. Which one is correct?
A) the risk of TE is decreased
B) Heart murmur is likely due to hypervicosity
C) renal neoplasm is an important DDx
d) Epo is the best treatment

A

C) renal neoplasm is an important DDx

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24
Q

Suture material with which characteristics should be used in infected wounds?

A

Sterile mono-filament absorbable (PDS or Maxon) to reduce risk of persistant infection

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25
Q

How is a comminuted fracture defined?

A

it has 2 or more fracture lines

can range from three-piece fx to highly comminuted fx with 5 or more pieces

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26
Q

Which product accumulates in stored blood that makes the blood unsuitable for use in patients with hepatic encephalopathy?

A

ammonium

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27
Q

What is glargine?

A

a long-acting insulin analog and an excellent choice for treating diabetic cats

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28
Q

The coagulation factors are numbered from I to XIII. However, there are only 12. Which factor does not exist?

A

Factor VI (6)

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29
Q

The “round ligament of the liver” is a remnant of which fetal structure?

A

umbilical vein

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30
Q

Which protozoal parasite commonly harbored by cats can be linked to infection in the California sea otter?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

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31
Q

What is the toxin that causes tick paralysis?

A

Salivary neurotoxin

produced by the gravid females of certain tick species

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32
Q

What is the common name for mandibular osteomyelitis of llamas caused by Actinomyces?

A

Lumpy jaw

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33
Q

“Collie nose” is a common name for which dermatologic condition?

A

Discoid lupus erythematous

34
Q

In the bovine, the “pin bone” refers to which anatomic structure?

A

Ischiatic tuberosity

35
Q

The optimal therapeutic regimen for rhodococcal pneumnonia in foals consists of treatment with which antimicrobials?

A

macrolide (azithromycin, erythromycin, clarithromycin) and Rifampin

36
Q

in neurology, what is meant by the term “root signature”?

A

lameness and pain resulting from reduced sensation in a nerve root or sensory nerve of the cervical or lumbosacral intumescence.
usually is a result of nerve compression

37
Q

Which fetal disorder may result from in utero infectiosn with feline panleukopenia virus in cats or BVDV in cattle?

A

cerebellar dysfunction/hypoplasia

38
Q

Does an animal with paresis, hyperreflexia and disuse atrophy that is mild and slow to develop have upper or lower motor neuron disease of the affected area?

A

upper motor neuron disease

39
Q

When administering IV fluid that contain supplemental KCl, the rate of K infusion should not exceed:

A

0.5 mEq/kg/hr

40
Q

What are the major hemostatis alterations seen in advanced cases of DIC?

A

Thrombocytopenia (TCP)
prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
increased fibrinogen degradation products (FDPs)
decreased fibrinogen and antithrombin III

41
Q

The menace test assess which cranial nerves?

A

CN II-optic

CN VII-facial

42
Q

Closure of which 2 structures is responsible for the second heart sound?

A

The 2 semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonic)

43
Q

What is the vector for WNV?

A

the mosquito (Culex spp)

44
Q

The term “trigone” refers to an anatomic region of which organ?

A

urinary bladder

45
Q

this disease causes flaccid paralysis and results from a toxin blocking the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.

A

botulism

46
Q

This zoonotic, Gram-positive rod can cause cutaneous lesions and fatal systemic illness, and necropsy of affected animals is discouraged to avoid release of infective spores.

A

Bacillus anthracis (anthrax)

47
Q

This drug can be given by SQ injection to a female 5 minutes before neonates are allowed to suckle to encourage milk letdown following caesarean section

A

oxytocin

48
Q 
Which one of following cyanotic disorders should not respond to oxygen supplementation?
Pneumonia
Pulmomary edema
right-to-left cardiac shunt
pulmonary contusion
pulmonary hemorrhage
A

right-to-left cardiac shunt

bypasses lungs

49
Q

Is a peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernia (PPDH) more likely to be congenital or acquired?

A

congenital always

developmental failure of separation of pericardial and peritoneal cavities

50
Q

Which are the vitamin K dependent clotting factors?

A

Factors II, VII, IX, X (2, 7, 9, 10)

2 for 10.97

51
Q

Which paired vessel can safely be ligated bilaterally to stop bleeding in patients with intractable epistaxis?

A

common carotid arteries

vertebral arteries provide collateral supply to the head

52
Q

the cubital lymph node is normally palpable in which species of domestic animal?

A

horse

53
Q

What is flail chest?

A

A segment of the chest wall created by >2 fx of >2 adjacent ribs.
The segment paradoxically moves into the chest during inspiration and outward during expiration

54
Q

What is the timing of the murmur caused by aortic valve insufficiency?

A

diastolic

55
Q

With respect to respiratory sounds, what is the difference between stertor and stridor?

A

Stertor-deep guttural sound caused by vibration of the pharnyx (ie snoring) such as occurs in horses with dorsal displacement of the soft palate. URT
stridor-inspiratory stenotic whistle-like sound, such as occurs with decreased larygneal diameter from edema or mass LRT

56
Q

Which 2 zones of the adrenal cortex are prefentially destroyed by mitotane (o,p’DDD)?

A

zona fasciculata and zona reticularis

57
Q

Guttural pouch infection may result in severe hemorrhage due to damage of which artery?

A

internal carotid

58
Q

Which hormone does a corpus luteum produce?

A

progesterone

59
Q

Pericardial effusion can cause an ECG pattern where every other QRS complex is shorter. What is the name of this finding?

A

electrical alternans

60
Q

Which components of the eye make up the uvea?

A

choroid
ciliary body
iris

61
Q

What are the 2 components of the intervertebral disk?

A

nucleus pulposus

annulus fibrosus

62
Q

Where in the body is the greater trochanter found?

A

on the proximal femur, lateral to the femoral head

63
Q

When observing for symmetry of facial expression in the dog, you are mainly assessing the status of which cranial nerve?

A

facial nerve CN VII (7)

64
Q

intussusceptum, intussuscipiens: which is on the inside and which is on the outside?

A

intussusceptum is surrounded by the intussuscipiens

65
Q

Which nerve and associated spinal cord segments does the patellar reflex test?

A

Femoral nerve

spinal segments L4-L6

66
Q

What is contained within the cytoplasmic granules of mast cell tumors that increase the likelihood of bleeding?

A

heparin

67
Q

What are the 4 components of the tetralogy of Fallot?

A

ventricular septal defect
dextroaorta
pulmonic stenosis
right ventricular concentric hypertrophy

68
Q

Which effect is excessive estrogen classically described as having on the bone marrow

A

pancytopenia

aplastic anemia

69
Q

Which parasite of white-tailed deer causes neurologic deficits as a result of larval migration in camelids as aberrant hosts?

A

Parelaphostrongylus tenuis

70
Q

in rabies, what is the incubation period, and once clinical signs are apparent, what is the patient’s expected survival time?

A

Incubation: up to 6 months

maximal survival after onset of signs: 10 days

71
Q

Which medication increases detrusor muscle contractility? what is its main CI?

A

Bethanechol

CI: urethral obstruction

72
Q

Do large breed dogs tend to have larger litter sizes, smaller litter sizes, or roughly the same litter size as small breed dogs?

A

larger
small breeds typically have 1-4 pups/litter
large breeds typically have 8-12 pups/litter

73
Q

Typhilitis is inflammation of which organ?

A

the cecum

74
Q

What are the major inhibitors of parathyroid hormone (PTH) synthesis and secretion?

A

increased calcium

increased vitamin D3

75
Q

After leaving the heart, the aorta and pulmonary trunk are connected by which distinct structure in a normal adult?

A

ligamentum arteriosus

the embryonic remnant of the ductus arteriosus

76
Q

A patient showing high-pitched inspiratory stridor and inspiratory dyspnea. Is this more likely due to an obstruction of the glottis or pulmonary parenchymal disease?

A

obstruction of the glottis (or any upper airway obstruction)

pulmonary parenchymal disease rarely if ever produces abnormal noise and dyspnea that are only inspiratory

77
Q

What is the significance of pitting edema (as opposed to nonpitting)?

A

intercellular fluid excess

nonpitting occurs with intracellular fluid excess (eg wheal)

78
Q

In dermatology, what is the difference between a papule and macule?

A

a papule is a small, solid elevation of the skin up to 1 cm in diameter
macule is a circumscribed, nonpalpable spot of skin pigmentation up to 1 cm in diameter (freckle)

79
Q

Name 2 causative agents of systemic fungal diseases most commonly seen in the Missouri, Mississippi and Ohio River valleys

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

Blastomyces dermatitidis

80
Q

What is the name of the congenital sternal malformation where the caudal sternum has a dorsal deviation into the thoracic cavity?

A

pectus excavatum

the opposite, where the sternum projects ventrally (outward) is pectus carinatum

81
Q

What is the most likely origin of bacterial contaminants in surgical wounds?

a) endogenous flora
b) air
c) surgical team

A

a) endogenous flora

82
Q

When performing definitive closure of wounds, waiting until the appearance of healthy granulation tissue before closing the wound is known as:

A

secondary closure

or closure by second intention

NAVLE study Questions (7 decks)

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