Quizlet Flash Cards

1
Q

What is a group?

A

An assemblage of persons (or objects) located or gathered together.

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2
Q

What is a team?

A

A group organized to work together.

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3
Q

How is team spirit indicated?

A
Increased productivity
High morale during high ops temp
Willingness to help fellow teammates
Strong identity/camaraderie
Little to no negative conflict
Differences resolved through compromise or collaboration
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4
Q

What are some indications (signs, symptoms, or behaviors) of an organization with a healthy team spirit?

A
  • Evident Esprit-de-Corps
  • Increased productivity
  • High morale during high ops tempo
  • Willingness to help fellow teammates
  • Strong identity/camaraderie
  • Little to no negative conflict
  • Differences resolved through compromise or collaboration
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5
Q

What is the DoD definition of mission?

A

a duty assigned to an individual or unit; a task.

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6
Q

What are the advantages of having a Flexer on your team?

A
  • focus on everything
  • adapt their styles to fit the needs of the team
  • view issues from multiple perspectives
  • monitor contributions of all team members and when necessary, step in to fill gaps in order to keep things moving in the right direction.
  • demonstrate equal preference for most or all of the roles
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7
Q

How would you summarize the P.E.P. cycle?

A

It begins with a call for ideas and when team members come up with an idea, they move from Panic to Elation, then without encouragement they slide back to Panic.

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8
Q

Why is it important to understand the P.E.P. cycle?

A
  • Knowing the cycle exists allows team leaders to monitor idea generation and then, at the peak of elation, hand ideas off to the Advancer. This gives Creators (and others) the confidence to put forth additional ideas.
  • Without continuous monitoring of the cycle, ideas die soon after creation because no one recognizes their importance or promotes them. In the meantime, the Refiner and Executor wait impatiently idle
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9
Q

how would you summarize the “Z” Process?

A

Ideas often “bounce” back and forth among the Creators, Advancers, and Refiners in what’s called the “Z” process. The Creator comes up with an idea and as the Advancer begins promoting it, the Refiner begins analyzing it. The idea might go back and forth several times before the Refiner (along with the Creator and Advancer) agree the idea is ready to pass off to the Executor who has been waiting for an idea to come to fruition (realization).

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10
Q

Why is it important to understand the “Z” Process?

A
  • Knowing the “Z” Process allows team leaders to monitor the team’s progress and manage
    conflict generated from passing ideas back and forth.
  • In the case of teams without a Creator (or Advancer or Refiner or Flexer) the team leader can step in and fill the gap to ensure the “Z” Process continues to work effectively.
  • The “Z” Process ensures ideas are well thought out before attempting implementation
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11
Q

How can you use this information on team roles, P.E.P. Cycle and the “Z” Process to help
your flight?

A
  • Increase team success by encouraging
    Creators to offer ideas by catching them at the peak of the P.E.P. Cycle
    Advancers to support and promote ideas
    Refiners to assess ideas
    Executers to move forward with the plan
  • Ensuring ideas moves to the next role at the right time
  • Whenever possible, select members for my team based on their preferred roles - Will help when coming up with a flight war cry
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12
Q

How will knowledge of team roles the P.E.P. Cycle, and the “Z” Process, help you in the future?

A
  • The P.E.P. Cycle helps to verify when to get involved with the team to pursue ideas
  • The “Z” Process helps to identify where the team is in the development of ideas and who
    to engage at the appropriate time
  • Assist in properly aligning the team member with the role that suits them
  • All concepts will enhance team leadership abilities to maximize team productivity and success
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13
Q

What are team dynamics?

A

an ongoing process involving interaction of individuals within a team to move toward or away from achieving the desired objective.

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14
Q

When does the forming stage of team building occur?

A

when the members within the team start to “jockey” for position and when control struggles take place.

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15
Q

When does the norming stage of team building occur?

A

when rules are finalized and accepted and when team rules start being adhered to.

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16
Q

When does the performing stage of team building occur?

A

when the team starts to produce through effective and efficient working practices.

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17
Q

When does the adjourning and transforming stage of team building occur?

A

when a team disbands or moves on to a new task.

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18
Q

What characteristic encourages the team concept by making sure everyone knows and understands the organization’s mission and purpose, which encourages a participative approach to meeting these objectives?

A

Community.

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19
Q

What characteristic ensures all members realize how important they are to the mission?

A

Coordination.

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20
Q

What characteristic creates a positive outlook for your personnel enabling your team to meet and even exceed their goals?

A

Coaching.

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21
Q

What characteristic makes sure every member of the team feels like an essential and important part of the team and the unit?

A

Community.

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22
Q

What characteristic explains member responsibilities in detail and how their actions affect the organization’s success?

A

Coordination.

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23
Q

What characteristic ensures everyone has an opportunity to speak, to ask questions, and raise concerns?

A

Cooperation

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24
Q

What characteristic develops a greater sense of involvement in the organization’s direction?

A

Cooperation

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25
Q

What characteristic defines training opportunities and advancement as two essential components that encourage and motivate members to grow and excel?

A

Coaching

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26
Q

What characteristic lets proper communication ensure everyone is on the same page and working toward the shared goal?

A

Communication

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27
Q

What dysfunction characteristic is defined as: Avoid conflict as its negative connotation threatens trust, communication, morale, welfare, and mission accomplishment?

A

Fear of Conflict.

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28
Q

What dysfunction characteristic is defined as: Doubt in others or mission will cause members to struggle to commit fully to ideas, decisions, or tasks made by other members of the organization?

A

Lack of Commitment.

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29
Q

What dysfunction characteristic is defined as: Holding others accountable usually leads to confrontation. Members are likely to avoid these situations?

A

Avoidance of Accountability.

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30
Q

What dysfunction characteristic is defined as: Unwillingness to confide in and share knowledge, feelings, and concerns with one another?

A

Absence of Trust.

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31
Q

What dysfunction characteristic is defined as: When members place their individual needs and goals ahead of the team and the organization?

A

Inattention to Results.

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32
Q

How might positive team dynamics affect a team’s effectiveness? Negative Team Dynamics?

A
  • Team members communicate well, respect each other, have equal amounts of commitment, are willing to recognize and work with each other’s strengths and weaknesses, and utilize preferred roles.
    Negative team dynamics result in low-performance and may even tear teams apart.
  • Team members do not communicate well, show no respect for each other, offer very little commitment, are refuse to recognize and work with each other’s strengths.
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33
Q

What Stages of Team Development characteristic is defined as: Accept roles and responsibilities?

A

Norming

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34
Q

What Stages of Team Development characteristic is defined as: Collaboration and camaraderie grow?

A

Norming

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35
Q

What Stages of Team Development characteristic is defined as: Creativity is high as members are willing to share ideas without fear of negative criticism and reprisal?

A

Performing

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36
Q

What Stages of Team Development characteristic is defined as: Eventually the team reaches their goal?

A

Performing

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37
Q

What Stages of Team Development characteristic is defined as: Heightened morale and loyalty to the team and its success?

A

Performing

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38
Q

What Stages of Team Development characteristic is defined as: Little or no conflict?

A

Forming

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39
Q

What Stages of Team Development characteristic is defined as: Productivity is high?

A

Norming

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40
Q

What Stages of Team Development characteristic is defined as: Minimum shared feelings and feedback?

A

Forming

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41
Q

What Stages of Team Development characteristic is defined as: Teams disassemble and members separate from the team?

A

adjourning/transforming

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42
Q

What Stages of Team Development characteristic is defined as: Disputes and arguments occur?

A

Storming

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43
Q

What Stages of Team Development characteristic is defined as: Members acknowledge the purpose and goal of the team?

A

Storming

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44
Q

What Stages of Team Development characteristic is defined as: Stress and anxiety increase?

A

Storming

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45
Q

What Stages of Team Development characteristic is defined as: Minimum shared feelings and feedback?

A

Forming

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46
Q

What Stages of Team Development characteristic is defined as: Members “Agree to Disagree”

A

Norming

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47
Q

What should you consider when assessing team success?

A

How efficiently & effectively the following were used to complete the mission: - Talents (skills and abilities)

  • Expertise (knowledge and experience)
  • Assessments (Customer surveys, inspections, performance evaluations)
  • Means: (Resources to include: equipment, facilities, financial, time, information)
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48
Q

TSgt Tuckman is tasked to lead a team in identifying efficient ways of doing engine swaps. Though most of the team members already know each other, he starts the first meeting by asking each member to introduce themselves. Then, Tuckman states the team’s objective and opens it up for discussion. During the discussion, several people have disagreements. One member says, “I think the real issue is with the location.” Another member responds, “That’s not the issue! There are too many layers of inspections.” Tuckman lets it go on for a little while and then refocuses the group on the objective. After several minutes of discussion, the team identifies the problem area and then develops a plan to swap engines more efficiently.
This scenario BEST illustrates TSgt Tuckman’s understanding of the ___________ impact on team success.
a. Five C’s of a team and their
b. stages of team development and their
c. P.E.P. Cycle and its

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b
RATIONALE
a. This answer is INCORRECT. According to Team Building chapter, the Five C’s of a team are the qualities of community, cooperation, communication, coaching, and coordination, needed in making of a strong team. Although there is slight indication of communication in the scenario, there is not enough information to determine TSgt Tuckman’s understanding of the Five Cs. See rationale for correct response for additional information.
b. This answer is CORRECT. According to the Team Building chapter, stages of team development are known as the Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning. It helps determine the progress of the team’s development by identifying typical events that occur during each stage and how to properly manage them. In the scenario, there are indications of the work group going through those stages (Forming: introductions and team objective; Storming: disagreements; Norming: when Tuckman refocuses the group; Performing: identifies the problem and develops a plan.) and Tuckman is helping the team move along in those stages to ensure team success.
c. This answer is INCORRECT. There is no indication in the scenario for P.E.P. Cycle which, according to the Team Building chapter, is a Panic-Elation-Panic cycle that an idea naturally goes through. There is no indication in the scenario of panic or elation. See rationale for correct response for additional information.

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49
Q

Since TSgt Bair is good at connecting and negotiating with all types of people, he was charged with improving the unit’s performance evaluation process. To help with the task, he selects unit members who are good at viewing problems from different perspectives and who are able to review solutions rationally. He also selects other members who are not inclined to let rules and boundaries discourage them.
TSgt Bair’s understanding of _______________________ will MOST LIKELY ____________ team success.
a. team dynamics; enhance
b. team dynamics; degrade
c. team roles; enhance
d. team roles; degrade

A

CORRECT ANSWER: c
RATIONALE
a. This answer is INCORRECT. According to the chapter, team dynamics is an, “Ongoing process involving interaction of individuals within a team to move toward or away from achieving the desired objective.” There is no evidence in the scenario illustrating team dynamics. TSgt Bair is using his understanding of team roles to select his team. See rationale for correct response for additional information.
b. This answer is INCORRECT. See rationale for ‘a’ and correct response for additional information.
c. This answer is CORRECT. According to the Team Building chapter, there are roles that people find most comfortable fulfilling based on their most natural thought processes and behavioral tendencies. TSgt Bair used his understanding of team roles to pick creators, refiners, and advancers to give his team the best chance for success. Because TSgt Bair used his understanding of team roles to build his team, this will most likely enhance team success.
d. This answer is INCORRECT. TSgt Bair’s understanding of team roles will enhance, not degrade, team success. See rationale for correct response for additional information.

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50
Q

What is followership?

A

one in the service of another; one that follows the opinions or teachings of another; one that imitates another.

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51
Q

Of the 5 qualities of effective followership, self management is refer to as what?

A

the ability to determine one’s own goals within a large context and to decide what role to take at any given time.

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52
Q

Of the 5 qualities of effective followership, committed is what?

A

Being committed to the organization and to a purpose beyond themselves, effective followers strive to excel at everything they do.

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53
Q

Of the 5 qualities of effective followership, competent is what?

A

Build their competence and focus their efforts for maximum impact. They strive to reach higher levels of performance and expand themselves.

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54
Q

Of the 5 qualities of effective followership, integrity is what?

A

One of the most important characteristics of an effective follower may be the willingness to tell the truth. It is imperative that followers provide truthful information to their leaders

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55
Q

Of the 5 qualities of effective followership, initiative is what?

A

motivation, determination, perseverance, and risk-taking. Being a good follower requires more than just meeting the standards.

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56
Q

What is feedback?

A

to offer or suggest information or ideas as a reaction from an inquiry.

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57
Q

How do you increase your success as a follower?

A

Control your emotions.
Offer solutions to problems.
Recognize the importance of timing.
Use the chain of command.

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58
Q

Name three sources for gathering feedback.

A

Mentors, Peers, Subordinates, Budgets, Training Plans, Metrics (MC rates), and External Sources/Agencies (family).

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59
Q

Give examples that demonstrate the difference between feedback and advice?

A

An example of feedback would be a follower giving a leader feedback on a decision he/she just made or made in the past. An example of advice would be a person giving advice on a decision that the leader is still contemplating or researching

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60
Q

What is meant by advocating for a leader’s point of view?

A

Advocating leadership’s decisions and points of view is not about being a “yes person”; it is about communicating your concerns in ways that leadership will listen. However, when you receive the final answer, salute sharply and go do with a forward-thinking, optimistic attitude, even when you disagree with decisions.

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61
Q

What should be your objective in committing to the action plan of the organization and mission?

A

Your objective is to embrace your role and commit physically, emotionally, and mentally to accomplishing the mission via the action plan.

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62
Q

What does capabilities of an Airman mean?

A

Skills, talents, experiences, personality, etc. that Airmen may possess or have the potential to possess.

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63
Q

How would you define deliberate development?

A

To carefully think about and discuss strengths, areas of improvement, current and future roles, and responsibilities with followers.

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64
Q

Name three capabilities mentioned in this chapter that may be included when diagnosing the capabilities of an Airman in your unit?

A

Skills, Talents, Experiences, Personality

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65
Q

Name three factors to consider when diagnosing the developmental needs of an Airman.

A

Aspirations, Personality, Self-Concept, Self-Efficacy and Locus of Control, Attitudes and Values

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66
Q

What needs to be created in order to address the personal and professional developmental needs of an Airman as it relates to fulfilling current or future job/role responsibilities?

A

A deliberate development plan

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67
Q

How does a leader set and monitor a deliberate development plan for their Airmen?

A

Setting and monitoring development plans

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68
Q

List three resources that a leader must know and have the ability to tap into in order to set up a plan and begin a development process for his or her Airmen.

A

(1) Other people who have skills and who are willing to mentor, (2) knowing about the organization’s budget, including the process for requesting funds and other types of support, (3) various outside agencies (Airmen and Family Readiness Center, Family Advocacy, AMS for special duty opportunities, etc.), (4) PME requirements, seat availability, and opportunities (e.g. instructor, adjunct instructor, etc.) (5) Eligibility (promotion, special duty assignments, deployments, TDYs, etc.) (6) Private Organizations (Top 3, AFSA, Toast Masters, 5/6, etc.)

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69
Q

What are some examples of future job/role responsibilities?

A

Team Leader, Ceremony MC, Scout Leader, Honor guard, Youth League Coach, Church Volunteer, First Sergeant, Recruiter, Defense Attaché, PME instructor, Superintendent, NCOIC, Flight Chief, Additional duties (e.g. safety, RA, shirt)

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70
Q

What is position power?

A

provides you with the authority to make decisions and requests based on your position within the organization.

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71
Q

What is personal power?

A

the extent to which followers respect, feel good about, are committed to their leader; and see their own goals being satisfied by the goals of their leader.

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72
Q

As a leader, how have you exercised position power?

A

Coercive, Connection, Reward and Legitimate

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73
Q

As a leader, how have you exercised personal power?

A

Referent Power, Informational Power, Expert Power

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74
Q

What motivational theory focused on the belief that an individual’s most basic needs must be filled before that individual could move on to higher needs or ambitions?

A

Abraham Maslow

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75
Q

List three examples of a System Level Reward.

A

System level rewards are things the organization provides such as pay, training, annual leave, medical and dental benefits, etc.

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76
Q

What is a leader’s responsibility as it relates to system level rewards?

A

Supervisors must ensure their subordinates meet all standards, and ensure that they receive their system level rewards.

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77
Q

TSgt Johnson, section NCOIC, noticed A1C Carney seems irritable and to himself. Concerned, she brought him into the office and said, “A1C Carney, you are usually enthusiastic, but lately you look like you don’t want to be here. What’s wrong?” Because of the respect he has for her, so he decides to open up and says, “My son has rashes all over his body and has been seen several times at the base clinic, but he is not getting any better.” Johnson said, “I can understand how that could be frustrating. If you’re not getting adequate care, there is an agency at the clinic that can help you. As matter of fact, I know someone in the patient advocacy office. Let me give him a call and see what he could do for you.” Few days later, Carney’s son had an appointment with a specialist and the problem was resolved.
This scenario BEST illustrates use of ________________________ and its impact on NCO effectiveness.
a. connection power
b. referent power
c. information power

A

CORRECT ANSWER: a
RATIONALE:
a. This answer is CORRECT. According to the Leader Influence chapter, connection power is the perception of the leader’s association with people of influence inside or outside of the organization. This was achieved by Johnson using her connection with the individual at the patient advocacy office to help Carney. This scenario best illustrates Johnson using her connection power and its impact on the NCO effectiveness.
b. This answer is INCORRECT. This scenario does not illustrate use of the referent power which, according to the Leader Influence chapter, is based largely on a leader’s personal traits. This scenario best illustrates Johnson using her connection power to provide proper medical treatment for her Airman’s son. This action shows positive impact on the NCO effectiveness.
c. This answer is INCORRECT. This scenario does not illustrate use of the information power which, according to the Leader Influence chapter, is based on a leader’s access to data and information that is important to others. This scenario best illustrates Johnson using her connection power to provide proper medical treatment for her Airman’s son. This action shows positive impact on the NCO effectiveness.

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78
Q

TSgt Bell completed the NCOA about a year ago and constantly applies the lesson principles he learned. He ensures the Airmen are trained and understand their responsibility as a technician. With a clear understanding of their job, they have been excelling in their work. At the last roll call, Bell presented one of the Airmen with an award for excellence. However, some of the Airmen were little disappointed that they didn’t win.
TSgt Bell’s __________________________ will MOST LIKELY _________ subordinate effectiveness.
a. use of system and personal rewards; increase
b. use of system and supervisory rewards; increase
c. lack of supervisory and personal rewards; decrease
d. lack of supervisory and system rewards; decrease

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b
RATIONALE:
a. This answer is INCORRECT. There is an indication of a system rewards in the way of training; however, there is no indication in the scenario of personal rewards which, according to the Leader Influence chapter, are reward that come from within us. The scenario shows Bell providing system and supervisory rewards which will most likely increase subordinate effectiveness.
b. This answer is CORRECT. According to the Leader Influence chapter, system level rewards are things the organization provides for being a member such as training which is identified in the scenario. Additionally, supervisory rewards are given to those who go beyond the standard such as Bell presenting an Airman with an award for excellence. The efforts of Bell will most likely increase subordinate effectiveness.
c. This answer is INCORRECT. There is an indication of a supervisory reward in the way of an Airman receiving the award of excellence; however, there is no indication in the scenario of personal rewards which, according to the Leader Influence chapter, are reward that come from within us. The scenario shows Bell providing system and supervisory rewards which will most likely increase subordinate effectiveness.
d. This answer is INCORRECT. There is an indication in the scenario of a supervisory and systems reward in the way of an Airman receiving the award of excellence and training given to the technicians. With these rewards, according to the Leader Influence chapter, will most likely increase subordinate effectiveness.

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79
Q

Define negotiation.

A

Negotiation is the dialogue intended to resolve disputes, produce a shared or mutually desired result, to bargain for an individual or collective advantage or benefit, or to craft outcomes to satisfy various interests.

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80
Q

List three examples of negotiation at work, home, and in other places.

A

Work: Project deadlines, peaceful military operations, salary, benefits
Home: Bedtimes, sharing, food choices
Other: Loan rates, buying a new car, buying a new home

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81
Q

What is destructive conflict?

A

creates barriers to cooperation and communication and impacts morale, diverting efforts from important tasks and issues.

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82
Q

What is constructive conflict?

A

leads to solutions, resolutions, and higher levels of understanding and communication between individuals or groups.

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83
Q

What are some high context traits?

A

Less verbally explicit communications, less written
More internalized understandings of what is communicated
Long-term relationships
Strong boundaries, who is considered an “outsider”
Knowledge is situational, relational
Decisions and activities focus around personal face-to-face relationships
Difficult to enter for an outsider

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84
Q

What are some low context traits?

A

Rule oriented, people play by external rules
More knowledge is codified, public, external, and accessible
Sequencing, separation - of time, of space, of activities, of relationships
More interpersonal connections of shorter duration
Knowledge is more transferable
Task-centered, decisions and activities focus around what needs to be done, division of responsibilities
Preventing conflict from escalating

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85
Q

What are the 5 conflict management styles?

A
Competing (or forcing)
Collaborating
Compromising
Avoiding
Accommodating
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86
Q

Define conflict management.

A

Managing conflict (destructive or constructive) in a way that benefits the organization in terms of reduced chaos and stimulated work performance.

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87
Q

Explain the difference between distributive and integrative negotiations?

A

The difference between the two negotiation styles is integrative builds relationships and distributive creates adversaries. The task of distributive negotiating is to divide up a fixed set of resources while integrative negotiating does not see resources as necessarily fixed. During integrative negotiating, parties see each other as partners rather than competitors (which is how they see each other in distributive negotiating). In distributive negotiating, conflict is seen as inevitable, but in integrative it is not.

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88
Q

Define Active Listening and give three examples.

A

Active listening is when you make a conscious effort to hear not only the words that another person is saying but, more importantly, to try and understand the total message being sent.

  • Minimal Encouragements - Paraphrasing
  • Emotion Labeling
  • Mirroring (or Reflecting) - Open-Ended Questions
  • “I” Messages
  • Effective Pauses
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89
Q

List the meaning of each letter in BATNA.

A
Best
Alternative 
To a
Negotiated
Agreement
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90
Q

____________ ____________ _____________ focuses on the problem while keeping the relationship and interests of all parties in mind. List and explain the four key principles suggested to effectively achieve the concepts of this negotiation strategy.

A

Cooperative Negotiation Strategy

a. Focus on the problem, but continuously manage the relationship.
b. Acknowledge that there are positions, but focus on interests. Find common ground between the negotiating parties by understanding both sides’ underlying interests.
c. Mutually propose solutions through use of divergent thinking. Develop options that satisfy interests without passing judgment on any individual proposal developed.
d. Agree to converge on a solution that best satisfies each party’s top priorities and meets a legitimate standard.

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91
Q

Compare the similarities and differences of Readiness (pertaining to negotiation) and Ripeness (pertaining to negotiation).

A

Similarities:
- Are the issues negotiable?
- Are all the parties interested in negotiating? If not, why is one or more of the parties reluctant?
Differences between Readiness and Ripeness Readiness:
- Do I want to resolve these issues equitably?
- Am I willing to make compromises and give some things up?
- Am I willing to work to keep the channels of communication open?
- Can I accept that there will be differences of perception and in what I think is fair? - Do I feel that the other party is basically fair minded?
- Am I ready to listen actively?
- Am I prepared to manage conflict appropriately if it occurs?
Ripeness:
- Can anything be done to make negotiation more attractive to them?
- Do all parties know their alternatives to a negotiated settlement?

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92
Q

MSgt Smith leads a unit whose ability to gather intelligence and conduct its mission was being hampered by resistance from the local villagers. Smith met with the village leaders to explain his concern. One of the elders said, “The villagers are poor and in need of food and medicine, and your patrols disrupt their ability to work.” Smith responded, “I can help with food and medical care. However, the patrols must continue.” The elder replied, “It may help to reduce the disruption to work if we knew your patrol times.” Smith replied, “Due to security reasons, I cannot give you that information.” The elder said, “The villagers can help gather intelligence and share their knowledge of the terrain.” Smith agreed, “That information could help us minimize disruptions to the villager’s daily routine.” After a couple of weeks, Smith noticed that resistance from the villagers had faded and his unit was able to conduct its mission more efficiently.
This scenario BEST illustrates understanding of the __________________ style of conflict management and the impact on mission effectiveness.
a. Collaborating
b. Competing
c. Compromising

A

CORRECT ANSWER: a
RATIONALE:
a. This answer is CORRECT. According to the Negotiation chapter, cooperating is a negotiation style that involves an attempt to satisfy the concerns of all sides through honest discussion. In the scenario, cooperation took place because both parties won (e.g. Smith was able to gather intelligence and conduct his patrols and the villagers received food and medical care with less interruption to their daily routine).
b. This answer is INCORRECT. There is no indication that Insist style was used which, according to the Negotiations chapter, is a negotiations style that attempts to overwhelm an opponent with formal authority, threats, or the use of power. There is no evidence of this in the scenario. See rationale for correct response for additional information.
c. This answer is INCORRECT. The Settle style was not used which, according to the Negotiations chapter, is a negotiations style that strives for partial satisfaction of both parties’ desire by seeking a middle ground. To succeed at settling, both parties must be willing to give up something. There is nothing in the scenario showing that either party gave something up. MSgt Smith sat down with the village leaders and negotiated using collaboration. See rationale for correct response for additional information.

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93
Q

The Munitions Operation Flight Chief called a meeting with the section chiefs to discuss a manning swap to cross utilize members of the flight and to increase their breadth of experience in their career field. MSgt Thomas, section chief of Maintenance, is concerned because he had just finished training his Airmen and does not want to lose them. On the other hand, MSgt Lewis, section chief of Support, was glad because he wants to get rid of some slackers and acquire better workers. During the meeting, the Flight Chief was surprised by the section chiefs’ responses and how they held firm on their positions. The heated discussions quickly became unproductive.
Chapter Three: Negotiation 167
The Flight Chief’s____________will MOST LIKELY have a ____________ impact on NCO effectiveness.
a. use of conflict management; positive
b. failure to use conflict management; negative
c. failure to understand readiness and ripeness; negative
d. understanding of readiness and ripeness; positive

A

CORRECT ANSWER: c
RATIONALE:
a. This answer is INCORRECT. There is no indication that the Flight Chief used the negotiation styles. According to the Negotiation chapter, the negotiation styles involves the use of one or more of the preferred styles of negotiations (Insist, cooperate, settle, evade, and comply). See rationale for correct response for additional information.
b. This answer is INCORRECT. There is no indication that the Flight Chief used the negotiations styles. According to the Negotiation chapter, the negotiation styles involves the use of one or more of the preferred styles of negotiations (Insist, cooperate, settle, evade, and comply). See rationale for correct response for additional information.
c. This answer is CORRECT. According to the Negotiations chapter, Negotiation readiness is defined as the capacity of parties to decide it is in their best interest to negotiate an agreement rather than to continue to dispute. Negotiation Ripeness refers to the timing of negotiations. Timing is critical to successful negotiations. The flight chief failed to understand ripeness and readiness as evidenced by his surprise at the section chiefs’ responses and how they held firm on their positions which further indicates the situation was neither ready nor ripe for negotiations. Overall, the Flight Chiefs’ actions will have a negative impact on his effectiveness.
d. This answer is INCORRECT. There is no indication that the Flight Chief used or understands negotiation readiness or ripeness. See rationale for correct response for additional information.

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94
Q

Why is it necessary for you to be able to acquire resources such as supplies, people, facilities, and equipment?

A

Why is it necessary for you to be able to acquire resources such as supplies, people, facilities, and equipment? These are resources necessary for accomplishing the mission.

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95
Q

Why do NCOs need to know how to manage resources?

A

According to AFI 36-2618, Enlisted Force Structure, the primary focus of the NCO tier is mission accomplishment. To accomplish the mission, NCOs need to be able to use assigned personnel, material, financial, information and technology, energy, and warfare resources efficiently and effectively.

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96
Q

What is resource stewardship?

A

the careful and responsible management of resources under one’s control.

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97
Q

What is appropriation?

A

term that means setting aside money for a specific purpose.

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98
Q

What is Budget Execution Review (BER)?

A

a two- part process that occurs twice within each budget cycle to identify and redistribute funds to meet unfunded requirements such as unforeseen or initially unanticipated mission- related expenses.

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99
Q

What is financial execution plan (FEP)?

A

a product formally called the Financial Plan or Fin Plan. The FEP ensures an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget (PB) for the next fiscal year (budget year) consistent with accomplishing Air Force program objectives and is the main vehicle for distributing anticipated funding (direct & reimbursable) in an equitable manner.

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100
Q

What is anti deficiency act?

A

law that prohibits agencies from involving the government in a contract or obligation for the payment of money before an appropriation is made unless authorized by law. The act prohibits against over obligating or overspending an appropriation.

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101
Q

Why is it important to know about budget timelines and milestones?

A

NCOs can monitor and align mission requirements with the budget cycle to ensure funding is continuously available. Also to anticipate and prepare for shortfalls by requesting additional funding early to minimize impact on the mission.

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102
Q

Briefly summarize the two parts of the Budget Execution Review (BER) process?

A

The first part requires every level of command to identify, validate, and prioritize its unfunded requirements and then submit them to higher headquarters for funding consideration. The second part requires each level of command to review and prioritize (rack and stack) all subordinate command unfunded requirements.

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103
Q

What is the purpose of the Budget Execution Review (BER), and why is it important?

A

To redistribute funds to meet unfunded requirements based on priority. Identifies unforeseen or initially unanticipated mission-related expenses. To reallocate funds to support other mission requirements in other locations throughout the wing. Ensures prudent use of limited funds.

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104
Q

How would you describe the purpose and benefits of Financial Execution Plans (FEPs)?

A

Used to balance available funding. Associated with O&M funds. Used by all levels of the organization. Ensures funds provided by Presidential Budget are distributed in a manner that supports Air Force objectives. Identifies and prioritizes current and next FY key requirements.

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105
Q

As an NCO, what is your role in the budget process?

A

NCOs are most concerned with the Budget Execution Review (BER) process, financial execution plans, and hitting budget spending targets.

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106
Q

What is the difference between a funded and unfunded position requirement?

A

Both are authorized positions. Those that are funded will have actual people assigned and
working in the position. Those that are unfunded remain authorized but go unfilled.

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107
Q

Your organization just experienced a recent change to your mission that requires you to change the skill level requirement of an authorized position. What would you need to do to request this change? Be sure to specifically mention any documents or products involved.

A

The Unit Manpower Document would need to be changed. This requires a formal Authorization Change Request (ACR), which must be signed by the appropriate commander.

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108
Q

Your organization just experienced a recent change to your mission that requires you to change the skill level requirement of an authorized position. What would you need to do to complete the process once the change has been approved? Be sure to specifically mention any documents or products involved.

A

Once the change has been approved, the Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) is then updated with the qualified person (the “face”) to match the attributes of the position.

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109
Q

Why is it so important for you, as an NCO, to know about the four competencies of manpower and some of the documents used to manage personnel?

A

NCOs can assist leadership in providing oversight in the management of available personnel to authorized positions and assist in gaining these resources to meet mission requirements. Useful as you prepare for SNCO responsibilities. These responsibilities may be delegated to your level as you face reduced manning authorizations. Develops your skills as a resource manager and steward. It is your responsibility to ensure mission success. Having the manpower to complete your objectives is key to accomplishing this.

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110
Q

Why is it important to conserve resources?

A

If necessary resources are misused and/or depleted, it may impact your organizational goals and mission accomplishment in the present and possibly in the future.

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111
Q

What does it mean to use resources as directed?

A

Using resources “as directed” refers to the use of resources under your control as instructed by existing rules and regulations, in accordance with laws and policies, and as specified in orders issued by leadership as long as these orders are ethical and in the best interests of the Air Force.

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112
Q

What does it mean to use resources as available?

A

Using resources “as available” refers to the use of resources that are in-place and accessible without violating law or regulation.

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113
Q

How can you support the development of others as future resource stewards?

A

NCOs can promote an organizational culture that promotes a resource-conscious attitude. NCOs can be role models who demonstrate the right attitude and behaviors that promote resource stewardship.

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114
Q

TSgt Caskey is the Cost Center Manager for an organization. She is very knowledgeable about finance and ensures the organization has the funding required for operation. However, she has an assignment and is training her replacement TSgt Griggs. At a training session, Caskey said, “Sergeant Griggs, it’s that time of the year when we have to submit a document of how we are going to spend the upcoming fiscal year funding. To do that, we have to list and justify all needed items and services, and the cost. Additionally, we have to identify and justify items or services that can’t be funded with the current budget.” Because of her extensive knowledge and preparation, the organization was able to execute a strong budget and have the unfunded request on the top priority of the wing.
This Scenario BEST illustrates how a well-developed ________________ can impact mission success.
a. Financial Execution Plan
b. Budget Execution Review
c. Budget Process

A

CORRECT ANSWER: a
RATIONALE:
a. This answer is CORRECT. According to the Resource Stewardship chapter, a Financial Execution Plan is an Air Force product used to balance available funding while delivering goods and services to customers. A well-developed plan includes a prioritized list of known unfunded requirements with justification for each unfunded requirement and a spend plan that projects when and how funds will be spent throughout the fiscal year. The scenario depicts Caskey’s understanding of importance of how a well-developed Financial Execution Plan can impact mission success. By training Griggs and developing a solid plan, the organization was prepared to execute the budget and postured for the unfunded request.
b. This answer is INCORRECT. There is no evidence in the scenario of Budget Execution Review which, according to the Resource Stewardship chapter, is a two-part process that occurs twice within each budget cycle. The first part requires every level of command to identify, validate, and prioritize its unfunded requirements, and then submit them to higher headquarters for funding consideration. The second part requires each level of command to review and prioritize (rack and stack) all subordinate command unfunded requirements. The scenario best illustrates Caskey’s understanding of importance of how a well-developed Financial Execution Plan can impact mission success. By training Griggs and developing a solid plan, the organization was prepared to execute the budget and postured for the unfunded request.
c. This answer is INCORRECT. The scenario does not depict a development of Budget Process which, according to the Resource Stewardship chapter, is a perpetual cycle of planning, programming, revising, adjusting, and spending. Each cycle lasts one fiscal year (FY) which begins on 1 October and ends on 30 September of the following year. The scenario best illustrates Caskey’s understanding of importance of how a well-developed Financial Execution Plan can impact mission success. By training Griggs and developing a solid plan, the organization was prepared to execute the budget and postured for the unfunded request.

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115
Q

TSgt Brady is a team chief of an engine shop. He was just notified by his shop chief, MSgt Thomas that they are projected to receive six more aircraft within a year. Brady states, “Sergeant Thomas, I can’t see how we’re going to support six more aircraft. We already have to work additional hours to support the aircraft we have now.” Thomas replied, “I share your concern and voiced my opinion with the squadron superintendent, but he replied he has confidence that we can work it out.”
The mission of this squadron will MOST LIKELY:
a. succeed due to refocusing of Performance Management
b. fail due to lack of Requirement Determination
c. sustain due to Program Allocation and Control

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b
RATIONALE:
a. This answer is INCORRECT: There is no indication that Performance Management will help in the scenario which, according to the Resource Stewardship chapter, is a manpower competency that concentrates on programs such as Productivity Enhancement Capital Investment, Fast Payback Capital Investment, Productivity Investment Fund, and Air Force Innovative Development through Employee Awareness that increase workforce efficiency and organization cost effectiveness. In the scenario, Requirement Determination is needed to request ACR in order to increase manpower, but there is no evidence of that by the squadron superintendent. Without the ACR request, the mission of the squadron will suffer.
b. This answer is CORRECT: According to the Resource Stewardship chapter, Requirement Determination is a competency that centers on the Authorization Change Request (ACR) which is a multi-purpose instrument used to propose adjustments to a Unit Manpower Document. ACRs are commonly used to request increases, decreases, or realignments of manpower requirements and/or to change attributes on the UMD. There is no evidence in the scenario that the squadron superintendent is requesting a manpower increase to support the additional aircraft. Without this request, the mission of the squadron will suffer.
c. This answer is INCORRECT: There is no indication that Program Allocation and Control will help sustainment of the unit’s mission effectiveness. According to the Resource Stewardship chapter, it is a competency that centers on the Unit Manpower Document and funded and unfunded position requirements. It has nothing to do with requesting a manpower increase, but provides data needed to make decisions on manning. In the scenario, Requirement Determination is needed to request manpower increase, but there is no evidence of that by the squadron superintendent. Without the ACR request, the mission of the squadron will suffer.

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116
Q

What are standards?

A

morals, ethics, or habits established by an authority, custom, or an individual as acceptable behavior

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117
Q

What is meant by discipline?

A

Discipline is training expected to produce a specific character or pattern of behavior, especially training that produces moral or mental improvement.

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118
Q

Explain at least four ways effective discipline positively impacts mission accomplishment in the Air Force.

A
  • Increases personnel readiness
  • Builds professional skills of personnel
  • Strengthens personal discipline
  • Promotes camaraderie, esprit de corps, and morale
  • Enhances national security and the nation’s confidence in the Air Force
  • Helps to maintain air and space superiority
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119
Q

In the Prevention Arena what are the 3 key actions that must take place? Who must take those actions?

A

Set standards, establish rapport, and create a climate of accountability. The NCO/supervisor.

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120
Q

When operating in the Correction Arena, NCOs must use the __________ Process.

A

Progressive Discipline Process

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121
Q

When subordinates violate the rules, fall below standards, or commit infractions, list at least two corrective actions NCOs can use to rehabilitate subordinates.

A
  • Verbal counseling, admonishment and reprimand
  • Letters of counseling, admonishment and reprimand
  • Recommend establishment of a UIF
  • Recommend placement on control roster
  • Recommend administrative demotions
  • Recommend denial of reenlistment
  • Recommend nonjudicial punishment action
  • Awareness training (as a deterrent)
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122
Q

Why is it important to correct substandard behavior?

A

Correcting substandard behavior not only maintains good order and discipline, it motivates Airmen to accomplish the mission in the most effective and efficient manner possible.

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123
Q

What is primary purpose of the Correction Arena?

A

The primary purpose of the Correction Arena is to get subordinates’ behavior back to the standard using the least amount of force necessary.

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124
Q

What is the difference between Corrective and Punitive actions?

A

Corrective actions are administrative in nature, punitive actions are legal sanctions designed to take something away from the member.

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125
Q

What is the NCO’s primary role when operating in the Punishment Arena?

A

The NCO’s primary role is to provide the commander with facts concerning the member (e.g. duty performance, previous violations, family/financial situation and so forth), and, if asked, recommend actions that would be most effective in rehabilitating the member.

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126
Q

What is an unfavorable information file?

A

provides commanders with an official repository of substantiated derogatory data concerning an Air Force member’s personal conduct and duty performance.

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127
Q

What is a control roster?

A

tool used by commanders to set up a six month observation period for individuals whose duty performance is substandard or who fail to meet or maintain Air Force standards of conduct, bearing, and integrity, on or off duty. Commanders are required to inform the members that if their performance and behavior do not improve, they will face more severe administrative action or punishment.

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128
Q

What should NCOs do before applying the PDP and when applying it?

A

A NCO should establish standards to clearly explain to the subordinates each standard and Line of Acceptability, and monitor subordinate behavior to ensure compliance and reinforce as needed.

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129
Q

State the 3 steps of the Progressive Discipline Process.

A

Establish Standards, Monitor, Apply the PDP

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130
Q

Establish Standards, Monitor, Apply the PDP

A

Prevention, Correction, and Punishment.

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131
Q

What are the 3 key actions that occur during the Prevention Arena in the DM and who bears the responsibility for preventing disciplinary problems?

A

Set standards, establish rapport, and create a climate of accountability. Supervisors, First sergeants, and commanders are responsible for preventing disciplinary problems from occurring.

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132
Q

Describe what is meant by the Progressive part of the Progressive Discipline Process Model.

A

The Progressive part of the PDP Model means using the least force necessary to modify a behavior that is progressing in severity by imposing an infraction that also increases or progresses in severity, i.e. verbal counseling to LOC.

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133
Q

Why are adverse administrative and punitive actions issued when an individual commits an infraction or their behavior falls below the Line of Acceptability?

A

Adverse administrative and punitive actions help to maintain good order and discipline. MFRs, LOCs, LOAs, and LORs serve as written documentation of actions taken to correct behavior when more severe actions such as an Article 15, Court-Martial, or Discharge.

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134
Q

When applying the PDP, what factors are used to determine appropriate corrective actions?

A

Severity of the infraction and judgment of the supervisor.

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135
Q

Explain what is meant by the phrase, “Prudence first, Justice second.”

A

means it is always prudent to consider the facts and extenuating circumstances surrounding a situation. This will ensure people are treated in a fair and equitable manner while still ensuring the correction/punishment fits the crime. Although one can legally, “throw the book at someone” that is almost never the prudent thing to do.

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136
Q

What is the first basic right?

A

presumption of innocence

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137
Q

What is the second basic right?

A

protection from compulsory self-incrimination

138
Q

What is the third basic right?

A

pretrial investigation

139
Q

What is the forth basic right?

A

representation by counsel

140
Q

What is the fifth basic right?

A

fair and impartial trial

141
Q

What is the sixth basic right?

A

right of appeal

142
Q

What is the seventh basic right?

A

protection from double (former) jeopardy

143
Q

List three things a NCO must ensure while engaged in a disciplinary action involving a subordinate.

A
  • use the Discipline Model and PDP effectively.
  • protected the rights of the accused.
  • know their limits.
  • ensure accused are treated with respect.
144
Q

Explain the NCO’s role when a subordinate, who has been accused of a crime, returns to the unit pending his/her trial?

A

NCOs must ensure other members of the unit DO NOT treat members awaiting trial unprofessionally. This is an important part of maintaining good order and discipline. As an NCO, it is your responsibility to squelch rumors, to keep others from discussing the issue, and to keep people from treating the accused badly. Always remember, “Innocent Until Proven Guilty”

145
Q

NCOs should advise someone of his/her rights when they:

a. suspect someone of committing a crime.
b. overhear that someone has committed a crime.
c. suspect someone of committing a crime, and they intend to question him/her.

A

suspect someone of committing a crime, and they intend to question him/her.

146
Q

TSgt Smith is preparing to conduct a performance counseling session with A1C Green for being late to roll call. Smith had verbally counseled him twice before for the similar behavior. When Green arrived, he sat him down and told him how valuable he was to the squadron and appreciated his work. However, he told him that being late to roll call is unacceptable and gave him a stern warning and dismissed him. A week later, Green arrived late for roll call again and missed the mission briefing.
Smith’s actions concerning A1C Green BEST illustrate ineffective use of ________________ and its negative impact on his effectiveness.
a. punishment
b. imposed discipline
c. progressive discipline

A

CORRECT ANSWER: c
RATIONALE:
a. This answer is INCORRECT. The scenario does not best illustrate punishment which, according to the Discipline chapter, can only be administered by officers on G-series orders to the enlisted members. The scenario depicts ineffective use of the Progressive Discipline Process which, if followed, Smith should have given Green some sort of documentation for his substandard behavior.
b. This answer is INCORRECT. The scenario does not best illustrate imposed discipline, which, according to the Discipline chapter, is enforced obedience to the legal orders and the regulation. Imposed Discipline is evident in that Green must be at roll call, but the real issue is Smith failing to use the Progressive Discipline Process to correct the substandard behavior.
c. This answer is CORRECT. According to the Discipline chapter, supervisors should take the least amount of action necessary to correct behavior and then progress up from there. Smith is not using the Progressive Discipline Process effectively; rather than use progressive discipline (i.e. LOC then LOA then LOR), he continues with verbal counseling for the same infraction which has not been effective.

147
Q

TSgt Marble, the base dining facility NCOIC, believes that the dining facility personnel are here to support and provide a good quality of life for Airmen. She expects the dining facility to operate in flexible, efficient, and customer oriented way. TSgt Marble met with her dining facility Airmen and like a good supervisor, established rapport with them. She did not discuss much of her expectations because she thought doing the right thing and maintaining standards are common knowledge in the Air Force. They are drilled into Airmen Basic Military Training and Technical school.
TSgt Marble’s use of _______________ will MOST LIKELY result in _______________.
a. task discipline; substandard performance by her Airmen
b. task discipline; stellar performance by her Airmen
c. prevention; substandard performance by her Airmen
d. prevention; stellar performance by her Airmen

A

CORRECT ANSWER: c
RATIONALE:
a. This answer is INCORRECT. There is nothing in the scenario to indicate there is an issue with task discipline, which, according to the Discipline chapter, is how well we meet the challenges of our job and having a strong sense of the responsibility in performing our jobs to the best of our abilities. Even though the Airmen had training in complying with the standards, the supervisor has to reinforce that clearly through regular feedback. Marble assumes the Airmen understands and does not comply with the prevention concept.
b. This answer is INCORRECT. There is nothing in the scenario to indicate there is an issue with task discipline, which, according to the Discipline chapter, is how well we meet the challenges of our job and having a strong sense of the responsibility in performing our jobs to the best of our abilities. Even though the Airmen had training in complying with the standards, the supervisor has to reinforce that clearly through regular feedback. Marble assumes the Airmen understands and does not comply with the prevention concept.
c. This answer is CORRECT. According to the Discipline chapter, prevention is the first and most important step to prevent behaviors that are detrimental to personnel or productivity of a work center. Additionally, the supervisor must communicate standards and expectation clearly. Marble assumes the Airmen understand and does not communicate it to them, which will more than likely result in substandard performance.
d. This answer is INCORRECT. Marble is using prevention but using it ineffectively which will likely not result in stellar performance from her Airmen. According to the lesson, the supervisor must communicate standards and expectation clearly. Personnel are less likely to … perform in a substandard manner if they have a clear understanding of where their supervisor stands on standards, desired performance, and supervisor expectations.

148
Q

Define adverse administrative actions.

A

quality force management tools used to improve, correct, and instruct those who depart from standards of performance, conduct, bearing, and integrity.

149
Q

How would you summarize the wingman concept/philosophy?

A
  • Airmen taking responsibility for each other by being alert to others in distress and intervening when they need help
  • Airmen seeking help from their Wingman when needed
  • Have the confidence and willingness to approach others who appear to need help
  • Staying with them through a crisis until you can ensure a safe hand-off to a supervisor or other competent individual.
150
Q

What is the emotional dimension of wellness described as?

A

Relationship and financial problems, family crisis, grief and loss, experiencing failure, illness or injury, difficulty adjusting to a new life changes, Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), career problems, and low self-esteem.

151
Q

What is the physical dimension of wellness described as?

A

This dimension of wellness determines one’s ability to find comfort, meaning, and hope when faced with these difficult and often tragic circumstances allowing them to return to a state of psychological well-being.

152
Q

What is the social dimension of wellness described as?

A

This type of wellness requires a support network consisting of family, friends, and coworkers offers tremendous benefits for your health and wellness especially when dealing with difficult situations.

153
Q

What is the spiritual dimension of wellness described as?

A

This type of wellness requires one to focus on five specific components: Cardio respiratory Endurance, Muscular endurance, Muscular strength, Body composition, and Flexibility.

154
Q

Why do people commit suicide?

A

they believe they:

  • Are a burden to others
  • Do not contribute to the group
  • Are a liability to the group’s well-being or safety
  • Have no sense of belonging or connection to others or to the unit
  • Have lost a meaningful relationship
155
Q

List some advanced warning signs of suicide.

A
  • Expresses an intention of harming self or others
  • Behaves in a manner which would lead you to conclude that there was imminent risk of this harm
  • Decreased or impaired emotional status
  • Thoughts of suicide
  • A suicide plan
  • Access to the method of suicide described
  • Stating they intend to complete the plan
156
Q

According to trend data, what are the most prevalent problems associated with suicide?

A
  • Relationship problems (70%)
  • Legal problems (44%)
  • Financial problems (29%)
  • Deployed in previous year (21%)
  • Receiving psychological services (25%)
157
Q

What are common barriers to seeking out help by at-risk personnel?

A
  • Denying the problem exists
  • Avoiding the problem altogether
  • Fear that accessing help will result in a negative career impact
  • Fear that the chain of command will be contacted (i.e., breach of privacy and confidentiality)
158
Q

How can NCOs/leaders/supervisors help themselves and others seek help to prevent suicide?

A
  • Know that open communication, support systems, and easy access to referral agencies may help the person see another option
  • Know and promote protective factors, recognize warning signs of suicide and be willing to take appropriate action to be good a Wingman
  • Must instill and support a culture that believes asking for help is a strength NOT a weakness, and you must expose and eliminate the myths surrounding the implications of seeing mental health providers
  • Ensure Airmen understand: (1) that seeking help is encouraged and not a statement that they are somehow incompetent; and (2) that negative career impact for seeking counseling is unlikely when Airmen seek help on their own and when it occurs before any misconduct
159
Q

What would be common reactions to actual or potential suicide situations?

A
Fear
- Helplessness: "I can't do anything to help"
- Hopelessness: "Nothing I do matters" 
Anxiety
- Over-protectiveness: Reduce autonomy
- Under-protectiveness: Casual avoidance 
Anger
- Lack of compassion: Inability to care
-Criticism: Blaming
160
Q

How would you explain the confidentiality and privacy rules as it relates to suicide?

A
  • Confidential communication is defined as communication not intended to be disclosed to third persons other than those to whom disclosure is in furtherance of the rendition of professional services to the patient or those reasonably necessary for such transmission of the communication.
  • Communications between a patient and a psychotherapist or an assistant to a psychotherapist made for the purpose of facilitating diagnosis or treatment of the patient’s mental or emotional condition are confidential communications and shall be protected from unauthorized disclosure. However, confidential communications will be disclosed to persons or agencies with a proper and legitimate need for the information and who are authorized by law or regulation to receive it, unless the evidentiary privilege applies.
    
161
Q

What are some responsibilities of leaders in the aftermath of a critical incident such as suicide?

A
  • Providing support and preventing further harm
  • Collaborate with the Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM) team and base helping agencies to address the needs of survivors
  • Demonstrate concern for unit members’ well-being
  • Ensure that the basic needs of survivors are met (i.e., shelter, food, safety, and security)
  • Let people talk about their experience (“emotional first aid”)
  • Minimize exposure to environmental stressors (e.g., heat, cold, noise, disturbing visual scenes)
  • Be attentive to the needs of family members
  • Provide factual information; prevent the spread of rumors
  • Continuously evaluate the environment for additional threats; ensure that needs are continued to be me
  • Foster unit cohesion
  • Foster resilience and recovery through social support mechanisms (e.g., friends, family, and religious organizations)
    
162
Q

What are the general goals for post-suicide intervention?

A
  • help friends and colleagues understand and begin the grieving process
  • to help maintain mission readiness, full functioning and morale
  • identify/refer individuals who are at increased risk for distress
163
Q

How does the Air Force define substance abuse?

A
  • The use of any illicit drug, the misuse of any prescribed medication, or the abuse of alcohol
  • Any substandard behavior or performance in which the consumption of alcohol is a primary contributing factor
  • Any pattern of unconventional misuse of any substance for nonmedical purposes that produces a known health risk or constitutes a danger to self or others
164
Q

Why is it important for Air Force members to know how the Air Force defines substance abuse?

A
  • So they can keep their behaviors within standards
  • To be aware of substandard behavior in others
  • So they can enforce the standards in their duty sections or squadrons
165
Q

Why do you think the Air Force makes this distinction between those that exhibit substandard behavior that occurs while drinking is labeled alcohol abuse, when many people would just consider that acting drunk or making fools of themselves?

A
  • To increase awareness of how a member’s drinking habits are viewed
  • Make members aware of the impact of their behaviors
  • To ensure members know that inappropriate behavior isn’t excused because they were drunk
  • To encompass a broader range of offenses to ensure intervention occurs before alcohol use get worse
166
Q

What are your responsibilities in the intervention process as it relates to substance abuse?

A
  • Observe and listen to subordinates’ problems and assist with appropriate referrals
  • Document all incidents of deteriorating work performance, unexcused absences, or tardiness, unacceptable conduct, and any steps already taken to help members resolve these problems.
  • Report all substance abuse or suspected substance abuse incidents
  • Provide pertinent information to the ADAPT office on patient’s duty performance, on and off duty behavior, drinking patterns or other incidents
  • Report all slips and relapses so the treatment team can assist the member to get back on track before an incident occurs
167
Q

What do the numbers in the 0-0-1-3 formula represent?

A
0 = Number of underage individuals drinking alcohol
0 = Number of individuals driving under the influence (DUI) of alcohol 
1 = Maximum number of alcoholic drinks per hour
3 = Maximum number of alcoholic drinks per night
168
Q

How can this guideline, 0-0-1-3, help you prevent possible alcohol problems in your work center?

A
  • Provides a simple, concrete example of responsible behavior to explain to subordinates
  • Gives a standard that is easy to follow
  • Gives supervisors a standard to measure alcohol-related behavior against
  • Promotes thought instead of mindless drinking
169
Q

How would you describe the Air Force’s approach to preventing substance abuse?

A

Substance abuse prevention is a collaborative effort shared among various agencies to include the mental health (ADAPT), drug demand reduction, and health promotions and includes:

  • Education
  • Counseling
  • Referral, and
  • Follow-up
170
Q

How can leaders effectively educate subordinates about substance abuse issues?

A
  • Incorporate personal, or at least relevant, examples of substance abuse incidents into safety briefings
  • Describe and detail expenses incurred from a substance abuse incident
  • Ensure new personnel receive thorough briefings upon arrival to the unit
  • Post visual aids in the work center explaining Air Force policy on substance abuse
  • Conduct periodic discussions on harmful effects of substance abuse impacting the work center environment.
171
Q

What are some examples of how enlisted leaders can practice and advocate the de- glamorization of substance abuse?

A
  • Responsible drinking at social outings
  • When sponsoring a social event, ensure nonalcoholic drinks are also available
  • Share consequences of risky behavior
  • Be responsible for your guests by not serving intoxicating drinks after a specific time
  • Don’t promote alcohol-drinking contests
  • Don’t promote drinking at all
172
Q

What might be some far-reaching effects of substance abuse prevention?

A
  • Promotes responsible behavioral patterns
  • Environment of open communication
  • Less time spent on administrative actions
  • Less physical and mental health-related expenses
  • Less lost duty time
173
Q

What are the five methods used by the Air Force to identify substance abuse?

A
  • Self-identification
  • Commander referrals
  • Medical identification
  • Substance-related incidents
  • Drug testing
174
Q

What are some observable behaviors that may help to identify substance abuse issues affecting your subordinates?

A
  • Frequently deals with financial shortages
  • Avoids friends and colleagues
  • Blames others for his or her own problems and shortcomings
  • Has complaints leveled concerning domestic disturbances or problems at home
  • Demonstrates a decline in personal appearance
  • Complains of vague illnesses
175
Q

What signs of substance abuse have you heard about or observed in your work center?

A
  • Absenteeism
  • Temporary departures from the job
  • Mood changes
  • Red or bleary eyes
  • Paranoia
  • Tremors
  • Denial
  • Smell of alcohol
176
Q

Why is documentation so important for leaders, especially in this arena?

A
  • Provides necessary information to justify getting medical or other support your subordinate may need
  • Helps make counseling sessions constructive and productive
  • Used for administrative and punitive proceedings
177
Q

Why should you document behavior associated with substance abuse after the first incident?

A
  • Prevents further occurrences
  • Allows for early intervention
  • Demonstrates enforcement of standards
  • Better to document early and not need it than to wait and wish you had
  • It’s hard to finally document a first incident when subsequent incidents have occurred (backdating, pencil-whipping)
178
Q

How might delaying, or failing to document behavior associated with substance abuse affect the work center?

A
  • Deterioration of behavior continues
  • Increased risk for more severe behavior
  • Demoralization of other Airmen who are aware of the behavior
  • Undermines good order and discipline
  • Negative behaviors may be imitated by peers
179
Q

How might identifying substance abuse affect work center performance?

A
  • Brings issues out into the open
  • Ensures everyone knows that supervisors are serious about the issues
  • Increases awareness in the duty section
  • Makes substance abuse symptoms more widely known
  • Establishes firm standards of behavior
  • Encourages people to seek help if they need it
  • Ensures mission is not impeded
180
Q

How would define intervention as it relates to substance abuse?

A

The process of helping the member recognize at the earliest possible moment that he or she needs treatment for self-destructive drinking or drug abuse. This professionally structured event includes significant others in the member’s life.

181
Q

Why is an NCO/leader’s communication necessary during intervention for suspected substance abuse?

A
  • Ensures subordinate knows what behaviors have been observed
  • Allows no room for confusion or deception
  • Opens path to clearly discuss issues that may be contributing to questionable behaviors
  • To effectively find the root source of substandard performance
  • Conveys to subordinates that the supervisor is really attempting to assist with beating the substance abuse
182
Q

As an NCO/leader, what are effective methods to communicate your observations concerning
substance abuse issues with a suspected abuser?

A
  • Private counseling or feedback session
  • Firm questions, yet sensitive to subordinate’s situation and needs
  • Inquiring with a nonjudgmental, open-minded attitude
  • Sincerity and genuine concern in actions
  • Using observed behaviors and other facts as the basis for discussion
183
Q

What are the primary objectives of the Air Force ADAPT Program?

A
  • Promote readiness and health and wellness through the prevention and treatment of substance abuse
  • Minimize the negative consequences of substance abuse to the individual, family, and organization
  • Provide comprehensive education and treatment to individuals who experience problems attributed to substance abuse
  • Return identified substance abusers to unrestricted duty status or to assist them in their TRANSITION to civilian life, as appropriate
184
Q

When should a supervisor refer a subordinate to ADAPT?

A
  • After an alcohol-related incident
  • Whenever substance abuse is suspected
  • When alcohol abuse is witnessed
185
Q

What factors might a commander consider when deciding whether to let someone continue service?

A
  • Successful completion of ADAPT
  • Severity of impact from behaviors
  • Member’s acceptance of responsibility and need for change
  • Duty performance, recent and historical
  • Self-identification versus caught through random testing
  • Repetition of behaviors or incidents
186
Q

What is the positive impact of substance abuse intervention on work center effectiveness?

A
  • Improved morale
  • Dependable workers
  • Better communication
  • Decreased mission interruptions
  • Healthy subordinates
187
Q

What are some possible negative impacts of substance abuse intervention on work center
effectiveness?

A
  • Absences for subordinate and supervisor for issue-related appointments
  • Increased duty pressures on coworkers
  • Feelings of “being watched” by coworkers may increase stress or tension
  • Lack of understanding from other subordinates
188
Q

How would you summarize the impact of substance abuse on:
Mission and Readiness
Morale
Health and Wellness

A

Mission and Readiness
- Adversely affects or impairs mood, coordination, judgment, safety, and it increases impulsive behavior
- Members under the influence do not perform effectively in leadership roles, areas of substantial responsibility, and technical knowledge
- Members are in a higher risk of Drunk Driving (a leading cause of death among 18-24 year olds - DUI is a serious breach of discipline)
- Members are in a higher risk of suicide (1/3 of all suicides involve alcohol use)
- Increased risk of accidents, falls, burns and drowning
Morale
- Members are in a higher risk of relationship problems - personal and professional
Health and Wellness
- Increased risk of high blood pressure, stroke, heart disease, birth defects, addiction, gastritis (ulcers), diseases of the liver (fatty liver, hepatitis, and cirrhosis), pancreatitis, malnutrition, and overall high mortality etc.
- Risky sexual behavior- increased risk of contracting a variety of sexually transmitted diseases

189
Q

define stress.

A
  • The body’s reaction to an external demand (stressor)
  • The physical, mental, and emotional response to a situation
  • An individual’s response to a perceived stressor
  • Eustress is positive stress
  • Distress is negative stress
190
Q

summarize the following factors.

  • task demands
  • role demands
  • interpersonal demands
  • organizational structure
  • organizational leadership
A

Task demands
- Factors related to one’s job such as:
- Job Design (autonomy, task variety, degree of automation)
- Working conditions (physical layout, temperature, noise, safety conditions, overcrowded rooms, location with frequent interruptions)
Role demands
- Pressures placed on people as a function of their particular role in the organization and includes:
- Role conflict: Inability to reconcile or satisfy two conflicting expectations
- Role overload: not enough time to complete all assigned tasks
- Role ambiguity: Unsure of role and/or expectations
Interpersonal demands
- Pressures created by other individuals such as: - Lack of social support from coworkers
- Poor interpersonal relationships
Organizational structure
- Includes:
o Organization with many levels of supervision and control
o Number and type of rules and regulations - Level where decisions are made
Organizational leadership
- Leaders who create a culture that is characterized by o tension, fear, and anxiety
o unrealistic pressures to perform
o excessively tight controls (micro-management)
- Routine firing of individuals who “don’t measure up”

191
Q

why do people react differently to various stressors?

A
  • People perceive things as more or less stressful based on personal experience, values, temperaments, etc.
  • Some people believe they can control a situation, where others feel the outcome is out of their control
192
Q

what are some ways the air force practices lawful discrimination?

A
  • Male and female bathrooms
  • Different types of uniforms
  • Different dress and appearance standards
  • Different Rank
  • Enlistment requirements (height, weight, ASVAB scores, credit score, financial history, etc.)
  • Job qualification standards
  • Handicapped parking spaces, doors, and bathrooms
193
Q

what makes certain types of discrimination lawful?

A

Certain types of discrimination are lawful when they:

  • do not deny people a right
  • merely recognize differences among people
  • help compensate for physical/mental limitations
  • Are needed for good order and discipline
  • Differentiate job applicants based on knowledge, skill or ability (rather than race, color, creed, etc.)
194
Q

how would you define unlawful personal discrimination?

A

Action(s) taken by an individual to deprive a person or group of a right because of color, national origin, race, religion, or sex. Such discrimination can occur overtly, covertly, intentionally or unintentionally.


195
Q

what are some examples of unlawful discrimination?

A
  • Treating members of one particular religious group better or worse than members of a different religious group
  • Providing less support (e.g. on-the-job-training) to individuals of a particular group, and thus “setting them up for failure” by limiting their ability to progress in training
  • Placing targeted group members in jobs that do not provide progression, recognition, or increased levels of responsibility.
  • Purposely withholding critical information from a targeted individual, resulting in the individual looking bad in the eyes of others, especially superiors
196
Q

how would you define unlawful systemic discrimination?

A

Actions by an institution (or system) that through its policies or procedures, deprive a person or group of a right because of (that person’s or group’s) color, national origin, race, religion, or sex. Such Discrimination can occur overtly, intentionally, or unintentionally.

197
Q

what are some examples of unlawful discrimination?

A
  • Treating members of one particular religious group better or worse than members of a different religious group
  • Providing less support (e.g. on-the-job-training) to individuals of a particular group, and thus “setting them up for failure” by limiting their ability to progress in training
  • Placing targeted group members in jobs that do not provide progression, recognition, or increased levels of responsibility.
  • Purposely withholding critical information from a targeted individual, resulting in the individual looking bad in the eyes of others, especially superiors
198
Q

how might NCOs become guilty of unlawful systemic discrimination?

A

Actions by an institution (or system) that through its policies or procedures, deprive a person or group of a right because of (that person’s or group’s) color, national origin, race, religion, or sex. Such Discrimination can occur overtly, intentionally, or unintentionally.

199
Q

why should NCOs scrutinize policies and procedures before implementing and /or enforcing them?

A

By helping to establish, implement, and enforce policies, procedures, rules, and laws that unlawfully discriminate

200
Q

list three things that occur in sexual harassment.

A
  • Submission to such conduct is made, either explicitly or implicitly, a term or condition of a person’s job, pay, or career (quid pro quo harassment);
  • Submission to or rejection of such conduct by a person is used as basis for career or employment decisions affecting that person (quid pro quo harassment);
  • Such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual’s performance, or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment.
201
Q

what are some verbal, non verbal, and physical behaviors associated with sexual harassment?

A

Verbal
- Sexual compliments, pressure for dates, ridicule with harsh sexual message, etc.
Nonverbal
- Leering, ogling, or sexually suggestive cartoons, notes, drawings, pictures, calendars, etc.
Physical
- Touches and brushes, hugging, patting, “footsies,” etc.

202
Q

why must you be concerned with sexual harassment in your organization?

A

Sexual harassment is a high concern to the Air Force because it creates environments that:

  • Are intimidating, offensive, and hostile
  • Affects the well-being and personal security of Air Force people - Negatively impacts the mission
203
Q

how have you seen human relations incidents impact work centers throughout your career?

A
  • Communication suffers
  • Workers can’t concentrate on their jobs
  • Tasks fail to be accomplished
  • Time usually spent completing tasks is now spent dealing with these issues
  • Interpersonal relations are strained
  • Quality of life suffers
  • Morale suffers
204
Q

concerning human relations issues, what must be your primary focus as a supervisor and leader?

A
  • Detecting adverse morale trends and devoting total effort to resolving the causes of a problem before it becomes a major issue
  • Providing feedback to commanders, immediate supervisors, officers, and staff concerning trends or problem areas
  • Establishing and maintaining rapport and communication with subordinates to remain attuned to their needs
  • Developing your individual subordinates into a cohesive team
  • Ensuring enlisted members are treated fairly by all agencies and activities, both on and off base
  • AFI 36-2618, para 4.1.2.3.2, tells NCOs to help subordinates resolve problems and see referral agencies when necessary
  • DO NOT IGNORE the situation
  • Investigate the circumstances
  • Devote total effort to resolving the problem
  • Appropriately address the issue with work center personnel to dispel rumors and maintain mission focus
  • Refer to MEO if necessary
205
Q

how would you explain the complaint process when dealing with unlawful discrimination and/or harassment?

A

Complaint
- An allegation of unlawful discrimination based on race, color, national origin, religion, or sex.
Formal Complaint
- Allegation of unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment that is submitted in writing on AF Form 1587-1 to the authority designated for receipt of such complaints.
Informal Complaint
- Allegation of unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment, made either orally or in writing on an AF Form 1587-1, that is not submitted as a formal complaint.

206
Q

what are your responsibilities as a supervisor/leader as it relates to equal opportunity and treatment?

A
  • Are able to present complaints in an atmosphere not conducive to retaliation.
  • Are encouraged to discuss problems and complaints.
  • Know the various channels and procedures for filing complaints or otherwise seeking outside assistance.
  • Know that unlawful discrimination is illegal and will not be tolerated.
  • Implement preventive measures to promote EOT in the work center
  • Take action to address allegations of discrimination
207
Q

how does sexual, suggestive, or demeaning language and behaviors influence the climate of a work center or unit?

A
  • This kind of behavior is demeaning to all Airmen.
  • It encourages more of the same kind of behavior
  • Left unchecked, it could escalate along the continuum of harm.
208
Q

how might trust and unit cohesion break down while a sexual assault is being investigated? who would be affected? why?

A
  • Ignore it. I don’t consider this inappropriate behavior.
  • Take people aside and ask them to be more respectful.
  • Make it clear, but in a joking way, that the behavior is inappropriate.
209
Q

what skills and knowledge do subordinate supervisors need to help prevent sexual assault? respond to sexual assault?

A
  • Ignore it (this is passive bystanding).
  • Laugh and participate (this is facilitating).
  • Stop the inappropriate behavior (this is being a leader).
  • Report the inappropriate behavior.
210
Q

as a leader, how can you support a climate that helps prevent sexual assault?

A
  • model appropriate behavior myself- will not make sexist or derogatory jokes or comments.
  • let my subordinate supervisors know that I do not tolerate sexist or otherwise harmful language or behavior, and I expect them to uphold this expectation as well.
  • commend people when they take action to uphold this climate.
  • When I see or hear inappropriate behavior intervene as it is happening.
  • remove the offending person from the situation.
  • take those who behave inappropriately aside afterward and talk about it.
  • encourage bystanders to act.
  • focus on facilitators as well as potential perpetrators.
211
Q

what are your guidelines for immediate response?

A
  • Keep in mind that first response has great impact on the victim’s ability to move forward and through the trauma. Negative responses can be devastating to victims and result in further psychological harm.
  • Attend to the victim’s immediate needs. If the victim comes to you right after an assault, for example, she or he may need medical assistance.
  • Contact the SARC. Get professional help immediately.
  • Listen with sensitivity and support the victim. Sometimes she or he just needs to talk. Do not judge.
212
Q

when do you report to your commander?

A

If an individual comes to you to report a sexual assault and you are in that person’s chain of command, you are a mandatory reporter and the victim will lose the ability to make a restricted report.
Unrestricted Reporting: An official investigation is conducted. This is initiated by reporting a sexual assault to chain of command, law enforcement, or the SARC.
Restricted Reporting: A sexual assault victim can confidentially disclose the details of her or his assault to specified individuals without triggering the official investigative process. Victims who want to do this may only report the assault to the SARC, Victim Advocate, or a Health Care Provider.

213
Q

what are the differences between unrestricted and restricted reporting?

A
  • There is no official investigation under restricted reporting.
  • Restricted reporting is confidential, unless there is an imminent threat to the victim or another person.
  • Only active duty military personnel are eligible for restricted reporting.
  • Some victims want to pursue unrestricted reporting immediately so that the crime is investigated and the perpetrator held accountable. Others, though, do not.
214
Q

why do so few victims report?

A
  • They are embarrassed.
  • They are afraid that people will talk about them.
  • They are worried about their careers.
  • They are worried about their reputations.
  • They are afraid people will not believe them.
  • They think it is better for their unit if they do not report.
215
Q

how do you restore trust and unit cohesion?

A
  • Be alert to the harmful effects that sexual assault can have on individuals and on your unit, and act accordingly
  • Communicate with your unit to stop rumors, blaming, and taking sides
  • Take care of victims and get them the help they need
  • Think ahead, anticipate problems, and provide solutions
  • Support your subordinate supervisors
  • Make sure the alleged perpetrators are treated fairly as well
216
Q

Although she has been extremely irritable as of late, most people enjoy being around SSgt Hightower because of her outgoing personality. Normally a very successful AF recruiter, Hightower missed her quota last month and now it looks like she will miss it again this month. At a flight meeting, her flight chief MSgt Taylor, says, “I am not happy with our production!” Taylor then points at Hightower and says, “You have the worst record of all…not only will you miss your quota again, you’ve lost two from the Delayed Enlistment Program and are in danger of losing one more.” Jumping to her feet, Hightower yells, “I don’t appreciate you calling me out in front of others…I don’t need this…I quit!”
The scenario BEST illustrates ________ and their impact on NCO effectiveness.
a. organizational factors of stress
b. some of the warning signs of stress
c. individual factors of stress

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b RATIONALE:

a. This answer is INCORRECT. There is no indication of organizational factors of stress, which according to the Emergent Leadership chapter are associated with task, role, and interpersonal demands; organizational structure; organizational leadership; and the organization’s life stage. They can include pressure to avoid errors or complete tasks within time limits, work overload, a demanding and insensitive boss, and unpleasant coworkers. See rationale for correct answer for additional information.
b. This answer is CORRECT. The scenario best illustrates the warning signs of stress, which according to the Emergent Leadership chapter, include irritability, emotional outburst, and significant mood changes. SSgt Hightower is showing some of these warning signs (emotional outburst and substandard job performance).
c. This answer is INCORRECT. There is no indication of individual factors of stress which, according to the Emergent Leadership chapter is comprised of an individual’s personal life, and primarily focuses on family and personal economic problems. See rationale for correct answer for additional information.

217
Q

TSgt Wyatt is NCOIC of the Structural Repair training section. On Wednesday morning, he smells alcohol on SrA Thornton’s breath. Wyatt knows Thornton drinks but until now, he has never seen him come to work smelling of alcohol. Wyatt calls Thornton into his office and asks, “Thornton, have you been drinking this morning?” Thornton responds, “No sir, I went out drinking last night, but I only had a few.” Wyatt says, “You smell like you had more than a few.” Thornton replies, “It’s OK sir, I’ve got it under control.” Wyatt then says “Just be careful, and try not to make a habit of it” The following morning Thornton comes to work, once again, smelling of alcohol. He goes to Wyatt’s office, hangs his head and says, “Sir, I went out drinking again last night. I don’t know how much I had to drink, and don’t remember driving home. It’s getting a little out of control, but I don’t know what to do. Can you help me?”
Due to ___________, the MOST LIKELY outcome of this scenario is ______________.
a. a self-identification; the prevention of a alcohol related incident
b. a failure to self-identify; an alcohol related incident
c. an intervention; the prevention of a alcohol related incident
d. a failure to intervene; an alcohol related incident

A

CORRECT ANSWER: a RATIONALE:

a. This answer is CORRECT. The scenario best indicates the act of self-identification which, according to Emergent Leadership chapter, is when an individual that is not currently under investigation or pending action because of an alcohol-related incident willingly discloses they have a substance abuse problem with the intent of entering treatment. Once assessed, the ADAPT program manager along with the treatment team will determine an appropriate clinical course of action, most likely preventing an alcohol related incident.
b. This answer is INCORRECT. See alternative a.
c. This answer is INCORRECT. There is no indication in the scenario of an intervention, which according to the Emergent Leadership chapter, is a professionally structured event that includes the member’s significant others. Intervention is the processes of helping the member recognize, at the earliest possible moment, that he or she needs treatment for self-destructive drinking or drug abuse, and includes effective communication, referral, and treatment.
d. This answer is INCORRECT. There is no indication in the scenario of the need for an intervention, which according to the Emergent Leadership chapter, is a professionally structured event that includes the member’s significant others and is the processes of helping the member recognize, at the earliest possible moment, that he or she needs treatment for self-destructive drinking or drug abuse. Intervention is not necessary in this scenario, since Thornton has self-identified to Wyatt that he has a substance abuse problem and needs help.

218
Q

On the way to her office, MSgt Brock hears sobbing coming from the women’s restroom. She enters to find SSgt Noble. “What’s wrong? I’ve never seen you behave like this before,” Brock asks. Noble responds, “Nothing I do is ever enough. The more I try, the worse things get. I can’t seem to make ends meet since my husband left me.” Shaking uncontrollably, Noble removes a prescription bottle from her pocket and swallows a couple of pills. “I want to just go to sleep and never wake up,” she says. “I understand why you’d feel that way,” Brock says. “I’m concerned about you. Are you thinking about hurting yourself? Let’s go to my office and talk. There are lots of support programs and services that can help us work this out.”
This scenario BEST illustrates ______________________and its impact on NCO effectiveness.
a. warning signs of suicide
b. improper or illegal use of drugs
c. behavioral symptoms of stress

A

CORRECT ANSWER: a

RATIONALE:

a. This answer is CORRECT. This scenario best illustrates the warning signs of suicide, which according to the Emergent Leadership chapter, include thoughts of suicide, a suicide plan, and access to the method of suicide described. Brock recognizes these warning signs and offers to help Noble, as every good Wingman should.
b. This answer is INCORRECT. There is no indication of substance abuse, which according to the Emergent Leadership chapter, refers to any pattern of unconventional misuse of any substance for nonmedical purposes that produces a known health risk or constitutes a danger to self or others. Noble has prescription medication and has shown no signs of abuse as yet. See rationale for correct answer for additional information.
c. This answer is INCORRECT. Although Brock mentions Nobles behavior has changed, nothing in the scenario indicates behavioral symptoms , which according to the Emergent Leadership chapter, include changes in productivity, absence, and turnover, as well as changes in eating habits, increased smoking or consumption of alcohol, rapid speech, fidgeting, and sleep disorders. See rationale for correct answer for additional information.

219
Q

At this week’s Roll Call Chief Jordan briefs that there has been a recent incident of harassment in the workplace. The Chief emphasizes that all Airmen should be treated the same irrespective of their color, national origin, race, religion, or sex. Additionally, he states that no members should be excluded from events and activities, and that all work center members should come forward with complaints without fear of retaliation. The Chief closes by stressing that the way team members relate to one another can make or break a unit.
The Chief’s briefing BEST explains __________________ and its impact on unit effectiveness.
a. workplace bullying
b. unlawful discrimination
c. sexual harassment

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b RATIONALE:

a. This answer is INCORRECT. According to the Emergent Leadership chapter, workplace bullying includes actions, decisions, and behaviors such as unwarranted or invalid criticism or blame without factual justification; treating some members differently than others, and excluding certain members from events to isolate them socially. It also includes physical intimidation (proximal), shouting, swearing and taking actions that embarrass or humiliate the target. Workplace bullying, in general, is not illegal.
b. This answer is CORRECT. The briefing BEST explains unlawful discrimination, which according to the Emergent Leadership chapter, includes discrimination based on color, national origin, race, religion, or sex.
c. This answer is INCORRECT. According to the Emergent Leadership chapter, sexual harassment is a form of sex discrimination that involves unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature in certain circumstances (listed in the chapter). The harasser may be a man or a woman, and the victim does not have to be of the opposite sex.

220
Q

define adaptability.

A

Adaptability is the ability to adjust self to changed, unexpected or ambiguous situations by actively seeking information and by demonstrating openness and support of different and innovative change ideas.

221
Q

name the three elements of adaptability.

A
  1. Cognitive Flexibility: The ability to use different thinking strategies and mental frameworks.
  2. Emotional Flexibility: The ability to vary your approach to dealing with your own emotions and those of others.
  3. Dispositional Flexibility: The ability to remain optimistic and at the same time realistic.
222
Q

list three adaptability skills you can improve to develop flexibility.

A

Cognitive Development, Emotional Development, Dispositional Development

223
Q

Explain cognitive development.

A

Cognitive Development
The following steps are methods you can employ to develop your cognitive flexibility.
Be curious: Curiosity killed the cat, but it kept the organization alive!
Accept the difference: Face it, things are different, it does not mean it is “right” or “wrong”, it just means it is different. Too many times you become comfortable with things that always stay the same. That isn’t adaptability, it’s just the opposite!
Observe: Get out and see for yourself what is going on. During difficult, changing times, subordinates need to see leadership “leading” from the front.
Have a plan: Know ahead of time your approach and procedures for dealing with resistant employees, managing a crisis, or making a quick decision in the face of uncertainty. But don’t get too attached to a single plan or strategy. Always have a plan B and C.
Be resilient: Resiliency is the ability to adapt or recover from difficult conditions. The best way to adapt and recover is to understand and identify underlying concerns and issues that may account for people’s resistance during change.
Keep learning: As with anything regarding personal development, continuous education is the key to many successful endeavors. Developing your cognitive abilities is no different. The ability to critically think is an essential trait in effective leaders.

224
Q

Explain emotional development.

A

NCOs with emotional flexibility have the ability to change their approach to dealing with their own and others’ emotions. An emotionally flexible leader is comfortable with the process of transition, including the grieving, complaining, and resistance. The following methods help develop and improve emotional flexibility.
Support systems: Look to mentors, friends, supervisors or trusted peers, family members, and others to serve as your support system in times of change. Encourage subordinates to do the same.
Feedback: Provide prompt feedback, both positive and negative, to employees. This gives you practice in dealing with the emotional reactions of others while facing your own emotions, or resistance, or both. Remember to always be specific and avoid using vague responses, not giving an answer or feedback in many cases IS STILL FEEDBACK!
Decisiveness: When faced with a tough decision such as implementing an unpopular decision (change), be clear, make decisions, and act decisively. Doing it may be difficult, but doing otherwise harms the organization and avoids reality.
Avoid bulldozing change: Effectively manage others’ resistance to change by explaining, answering questions, and patiently listening to concerns.
Motivation: Find ways to motivate. Consistently interact with staff in a way that is motivating and encouraging.
Triage: Confront problem employees. Move quickly to address them. Otherwise, you hurt morale, foster resentment, and stifle change.
Listen: Learn to use effective listening skills to gain clarification from others. This helps identify resistance and concerns while modeling preferred behavior.
Collaborate: Involve others in the beginning stages of an initiative. This way you are more likely to take into account other people’s concerns, as well as their ideas. It also helps gain their commitment.
Change your approach: Get comfortable using a broad range of methods and techniques so that you can adjust your style to changing situations.
Face reality: Adapt to changing situations with realism, openness, and optimism.

225
Q

Explain dispositional development.

A

The following methods are ways you can develop or improve dispositional flexibility:
Be genuine: Leading change by example requires honesty and authenticity. Understand your own reaction to change so that you can be straightforward with others.
Accept change as positive: Find ways to see the benefits of change, not just for the organization, but also for yourself, your coworkers, and subordinates.
Adapt your plans: Accept that you cannot know or control everything. Be prepared to shift according to changing external pressures or internal dynamics.
Cast a wide net: Involve key people in the design and implementation of change. This requires building good networks and relationships as a matter of course.
Rehearse: Give yourself a chance to practice new skills and new behaviors, or to learn about a new situation. Rehearsing can quickly make the unfamiliar familiar.
Immerse yourself in the new environment: Jump right in and meet the people and learn the ropes in a new situation. Join activities, take a tour, and invite people for lunch or coffee.
Be a mentor or coach: Make it a practice to mentor and teach employees. This allows you to set clear expectations and guide employees in how to meet those expectations. It also provides a venue in which to deal effectively with resistant employees.
Pay attention to life beyond work: Shifting between work, family, and other interests and obligations is a form of adaptability. Attend to life and work issues, and use the interaction as opportunities to practice flexibility.
Seek feedback: Keep a clear perspective on what you are doing. Find ways to receive feedback (both positive and negative) from a variety of sources.

226
Q

An example of _______________________ ________________________ is having a working Plan A; while having a Plan B, C, and D or in other words, having the ability to have multiple scenarios in mind so that changes can be made due to changed, unexpected, or unclear situations.

A

Cognitive Flexibility

227
Q

NCOs with _______________________ ________________________have the ability to change their approach to dealing with their own and others’ emotions.

A

Emotional Flexibility

228
Q

A leader who displays _______________________ _________________________ operates from a place of optimism grounded in realism and openness. They acknowledge bad situations while imaging a better future, at the same time.

A

Dispositional Flexibility

229
Q

What is the purpose of a change sponsor?

A

Initiate change because they have the power to determine why, when, and how changes occur.

230
Q

What is the purpose of a change agent?

A

Are responsible for implementing change initiated by the change sponsor.

231
Q

What is the purpose of a change target?

A

Are those key players and stakeholders who actually undergo the change, the ones most affected by the new policies, procedures, etc.

232
Q

_______________________ _____________________is a proactively coordinated and structured period of transition from situation A to situation B using a systematic approach that addresses planning for the change, implementing, monitoring, and controlling the change effort, and effecting the change by minimizing resistance through the involvement of key players and stakeholders…resulting in lasting change within an organization.

A

Change Management

233
Q

name the two change cycles.

A

Directive Change Cycle and the Participative Change Cycle

234
Q

name the phases of organizational change.

A

Unfreezing, Changing, Refreezing

235
Q

Changes in this are more difficult to make because this level is characterized by strong positive or negative emotions, is what characteristic of mayo’s four levels of change?

A

Attitude

236
Q

Changing this is more challenging than change at the previous levels because people don’t like to change the way they do things, is what characteristic of mayo’s four levels of change?

A

Individual Behavior

237
Q

This change is generally the easiest change to bring about. Change at this level occurs after acquiring new information, is what characteristic of mayo’s four levels of change?

A

Knowledge

238
Q

This change is the hardest level of change especially if you have to change customs and traditions that have been around for many years, is what characteristic of mayo’s four levels of change?

A

Group Behavior

239
Q

name the five individual reactions to change.

A

Innovators, Early Adapters, Early Majority, Late Majority, Laggards

240
Q
Effective NCOs respond by identifying new trends and opportunities, so they are never caught off guard and can make sense out of a situation in order to turn obstacles into opportunities and ideas into innovative practices. In addition, effective NCOs develop plan A and plans B and C just in case.
This paragraph BEST explains:
a. Cognitive Flexibility
b. Dispositional Flexibility
c. Emotional Flexibility
A

CORRECT ANSWER: a RATIONALE:
a. This answer is CORRECT. The paragraph best explains the concept of Cognitive Flexibility which, according to the Change Management lesson, Cognitive Flexibility is the concept of scanning the environment to identify changes as they occur or to see the changes coming and making sense out of a situation. Additionally, it involves developing several possible plans for responding to change.

b. This answer is INCORRECT. There is nothing in the scenario indicating Dispositional Flexibility which, according to Change Management chapter, is about operating from a place of optimism grounded in realism and openness. It acknowledges a bad situation while simultaneously visualizing a better future. Instead, the paragraph explains the concept of Cognitive Flexibility where the focus is expecting the changes, developing an understanding, and creating strategies.
c. This answer is INCORRECT. There is nothing in the scenario indicating Emotional Flexibility which, according to Change Management chapter, is about having the ability to change our approach to dealing with our own and others’ emotions. Instead, the paragraph explains the concept of Cognitive Flexibility where the focus is expecting the changes, developing an understanding, and creating strategies.

241
Q

TSgt Perez, a senior analyst for an intelligence Squadron was recently informed that his team will deploy as convoy operators. Upon receiving the news, TSgt Perez first planned how to tell his team and then after gathering everyone for the announcement and implementation, he said, “We have been tasked to deploy as convoy operators. Although this is not in our job description, it is a critical need that must be filled to support the war effort. We will receive all required training to be successful. I will not allow this tasking to affect our current duties.” After answering several questions, Perez encouraged his team members to see him if they had any additional concerns.
TSgt Perez’s ___________________ will MOST LIKELY result in ____________ to mission effectiveness.
a. Ineffective use of the Directive Change Cycle; a decrease
b. Effective use of the Participative Change Cycle; an increase
c. Ineffective use of the Changing Phase; a decrease
d. Effective use of the Unfreezing Phase; an increase

A

CORRECT ANSWER: d
a. This answer is INCORRECT. Perez is effectively using the steps of directive change in this scenario. According to Change Management lesson, Directive Change Cycle is a change imposed upon the group or organization. As the group is forced to comply, individual behavior is affected through compliance within the group. The application of Perez’s position power is being used to change group behavior, then individual behavior, which causes an increase in knowledge, and ultimately a change in attitude. See the rationale for the correct answer for additional guidance.
b. This answer is INCORRECT. The change was directed from a higher authority, thus TSgt Perez is simply attempting to implement the change rather than ask for team members’ input and participation, which is part of the Participative Change Cycle according to Change Management lesson. See the rationale for the correct answer for additional guidance.
c. This answer is INCORRECT. Nothing in the scenario indicates the Changing Phase which, according to Change Management lesson, involves the actual modification of technology, tasks, structure, or people.
This is the movement from the old state, or previous norms, to a new state. Therefore, there is not enough information to determine effective or ineffective use of the Changing Phase. See the rationale for the correct answer for additional guidance.
d. This answer is CORRECT. TSgt Perez used the Unfreezing Phase of Change Management, which according to that lesson there are three phases of change: unfreezing, changing, and refreezing. During the Unfreezing (phase 1) the first step is to recognize the need for change (was recently informed), next create a felt need for the change, that is sell the importance of the change (planned how to tell his team), then deal with resistance to change by developing a plan to calm fears, to put them at ease by informing them how their new responsibilities can positively influence change (After answering several questions), and talk with personnel directly affected by the changes (gathering everyone for the announcement and implementation). All of this will increase the likelihood of a successful change.

242
Q

The basic communication process includes the following four elements:

a. Sender, message, receiver, and feedback
b. Sender, message, retriever, and comments
c. Sender, receiver, feedback, and comments
d. None of the above

A

Sender, message, receiver, and feedback

243
Q

What are the three ways communication flows?

A

Upward Communication
Downward Communication
Lateral Communication

244
Q

List the four General Purposes of AF communication and give an example of each one.

A

Direct
Inform
Persuade
Inspire

245
Q

List each phase of effective communication process.

A

Diagnose communication needs
Prepare the communication
deliver the message

246
Q

Which one of the following is NOT an example of a general purpose?

a. Inspire
b. Inform
c. Convince
d. Direct

A

Convince

247
Q

The best way to narrow the topic is to:

A

List all of the major aspects of the broad area.
Include all significant and insignificant details.
Ask the audience to prioritize the subtopics for you

248
Q

Why is the specific objective so important to effective communication?

A

Bottom line of communication

249
Q

Analyzing your audience step includes analyzing the sending, receiving, and external audiences.

a. True
b. False

A

False

250
Q

Define quantity as it relates to supervisory communication.

A

Amount of product to complete

251
Q

Define timeliness as it relates to supervisory communication.

A

Amount of time to prepare

252
Q

Define type as it relates to supervisory communication.

A

Amount of product to complete

253
Q

In the space provided, write the letter of the sentence that best expresses the main idea (topic sentence) of this paragraph.
(a) Is the training provided for these air traffic controllers adequate? (b) Are there sufficient regulations on private aircraft to reduce the possibility of their flying in airspace used by commercial airlines? (c) Questions abound about the safety of air travel in today’s crowded skies. (d) Finally, are the current regulations covering the aging equipment of commercial airlines sufficient to ensure the safest possible air travel? (e) Are there enough air traffic controllers to regulate the current flow of air traffic?
Topic sentence is _____

A

Topic sentence is c .

254
Q

In the space provided, write the letter of the sentence that does not belong in the following paragraph.
(a) The practice of veterinary medicine today is becoming increasingly more specialized. (b) Thus, it is not uncommon, even in midsize cities, to find veterinarians certified as specialists in dentistry, cardiology, and surgery. (c) Many veterinarians have not read James Herriot’s books on the practice of unspecialized veterinary medicine in England in the 1920s. (d) These specialists must take additional course work after they have completed their D.V.M., must pass rigorous exams in their chosen area, and must practice veterinary medicine for a minimum of 2 years. (e) Both the number of specialties and the number of doctors electing to become certified in specialties are increasing, promising to change the nature of veterinary medicine in the near future.
Sentence ______ does not belong.

A

Sentence c does not belong.



255
Q

The following paragraph contains ideas or details that do not support the central idea. Circle the number next to the sentence that best expresses the main idea (topic sentence) of the paragraph and draw lines through any unrelated content in the paragraph.
(1) Next to most homes, there is a garden where fresh vegetables are gathered for canning. (2) They use coal or wood burning stoves for heating and cooking. (3) Their homes do not have electricity or indoor bathrooms or running water. (4) The towns can’t afford to put in sewer or power lines because they don’t receive adequate funding from the state and federal governments. (5) In the southern part of the state, some people still live much as they did a century ago. (6) Small, nearby pastures support livestock, including cattle, pigs, horses, and chickens. (7) Most of the people have cars or trucks, but the vehicles are old and junky from traveling on unpaved roads.
Topic Sentence is ______ Unrelated content in sentences _____________

A

Topic Sentence is 5. Unrelated content in sentences 4 and 7.

256
Q

When arranged correctly, the following sentences form one coherent paragraph. Write the correct order in the spaces provided.
(1) Halfway down the hill, they came to a screeching halt when they saw a large elephant standing in the middle of the road. (2) The elephant started running at an alarming rate of speed up the hill toward a fountain on the front yard of a large estate. (3) One late spring morning, Jane and Jill decided to drive to their favorite park in the Berkshire Hills, to have a picnic. (4) When the elephant reached the yard, it began to spray the water from the fountain with its trunk; obviously, the playful elephant presented no danger, so they drove on. (5) It was a scenic route through a broad river valley, up and down a winding road, which surrounded the valley.
The correct order is: ___, ___, ___, ___, ___

A

the correct order is 3, 5, 1, 2, 4.

257
Q

When arranged correctly, the following sentences form one coherent paragraph. Write the correct order in the spaces provided.
(1) Then Maggie throws her head back and slaps her thigh. 2) When something strikes her as funny, she first lets out a shriek of surprise. 3) The most amazing thing about Maggie is her laughter. 4) After that, she breaks into loud hoots. 5) When the laughter stops, she shakes her head from side to side and says, “Lord have mercy.”
The correct order is: ___, ___, ___, ___, ___

A

the correct order is 3, 2, 1, 4, 5.

258
Q

___________________ ____________________ help you create a fairly accurate “blueprint” of all your thoughts and with patterns of organization.

A

Mind maps

259
Q

The Free Writing Rules are:

A

Type/write whatever comes to mind and don’t worry about its relationship to the topic - suspend all judgment.
Do not look back at what you wrote, but keep typing or writing.
Do not worry about spelling, grammar, complete sentences and thoughts, paragraphs, transitions, etc.
After exhausting your thoughts, walk away without looking over your work while you take a cooling-off period.

260
Q

Describe the order of the sources for your research plan according to your reading.

a. Others, yourself, reference sources
b. Yourself, others, references sources
c. Reference sources, others, yourself
d. None of the above

A

Yourself, others, references sources

261
Q

It is not necessary to support your communication with sources or references.

a. True
b. False

A

False

262
Q

Proof support includes:

A

Definition
Statistics
Example

263
Q

One of the most important steps toward effectively reaching your specific objective is _______________________ communication to follow a logical sequence.

A

Organizing

264
Q

A typical conclusion has three components: attention, purpose, and overview.

a. True
b. False

A

False

265
Q

By using an outline, you can concentrate on one point at a time to ensure ideas are fully developed.

a. True
b. False

A

True

266
Q

A way to show connections between ideas is to use ______________________.

A

Transitions

267
Q

Choose the correct answer that completes the sentence below.
An effective paragraph contains a _________________________________________.
a. topic sentence and two supporting sentences
b. maximum of five sentences
c. minimum of four sentences

A

a. topic sentence and two supporting sentences

268
Q

Paragraph unity means.

A

Having a single idea, leading the reader from sentence to sentence, and using transitional words.

269
Q

A topic sentence describes and clarifies the other sentences.

a. True
b. False

A

False

270
Q

Identify each part of speech by placing the following letter/letters above the word corresponding with the correct part of speech:
N=Noun P=Pronoun V=Verb ADJ=Adjective ADV=Adverb
a. The surgeon bought a beautiful, new house.
b. Sam and I wore our suits.
c. John is swimming very well.

A
N V Adj Adj N
The surgeon bought a beautiful, new house.
N P V P N
Sam and I wore our suits.
N V V Adv Adv
John is swimming very well.
271
Q

Identifying the subject and predicate.
Draw a line between the subject and predicate.
a. A sporty, blue car stopped in front of our house.
b. We pitched and hit the ball back and forth.
c. My only key to the house fell through a crack in the steps.

A

A sporty, blue car / stopped in front of our house.
We / pitched and hit the ball back and forth.
My only key to the house / fell through a crack in the steps.

272
Q

Correcting subject-verb agreement.
For items, a-d, select the correct verb; and for items e and f, fix the subject-verb agreement.
a. TSgt Smith and SSgt Jones of the wing safety office (is / are) giving the briefing.
b. The instructions in the regulation (confuse / confuses) everyone.
c. One of the members of each group (was / were) identified as the senior person.
d. Positive attitudes from everyone (is / are) necessary for the morale of any organization.
e. The gas station is open on Saturday and (stay / stays) closed Sunday.
f. The firefighters (has / have) reacted very fast to every emergency.

A

TSgt Smith and SSgt Jones of the wing safety office (are) giving the briefing.
The instructions in the regulation (confuse) everyone.
One of the members of each group (was) identified as the senior person.
Positive attitudes from everyone (are) necessary for the morale of any organization.
The gas station is open on Saturday and (stays) closed Sunday.
The firefighters (have) reacted very fast to every emergency.

273
Q

Identifying independent and dependent clauses.
Draw a line between the independent and dependent clauses.
a. When the whistle blew, I stopped the car.
b. Our sales increased when we lowered our prices.
c. The manager was very happy with the outcome.

A

When the whistle blew, / I stopped the car.
Our sales increased / when we lowered our prices.
The manager was very happy / with the outcome.

274
Q

Identifying passive versus active voice.
Indicate whether a sentence is passive or active voice by writing “A” for active voice or “P” for passive voice beside each sentence.
a. The tornado warning at Scott AFB scared me. ____
b. We will be lectured by General Black. ____
c. The announcement about the change caused quite a stir. ____
d. A letter of recommendation must be forwarded to the commander by his supervisor. ____
e. His harrowing experiences in the Air Force were related by Chief Jones. ____
f. Airman Flynn, from the MPF, won the Airman of the Month Award. ____

A

(A) The tornado warning at Scott AFB scared me.
(P) We will be lectured by General Black.
(A) The announcement about the change caused quite a stir.
(P) A letter of recommendation must be forwarded to the commander by his supervisor.
(P) His harrowing experiences in the Air Force were related by Chief Jones.
(A) Airman Flynn, from the MPF, won the Airman of the Month Award.

275
Q

Misplaced Modifiers
Rewrite the following sentences to correct problems with misplaced modifiers.
a. The face of the man looking through the window which was cruel and sardonic startled Tim.
b. Mary said during the meeting Joe acted like a fool.

A

The cruel and sardonic face of the man looking through the window startled Tim.
Mary said that Joe acted like a fool during the meeting.

276
Q

Dangling Modifiers
Rewrite the following sentences to correct problems with dangling modifiers (Note: add or delete words/text as needed)
a. Running down the street, the package was dropped at the corner.
b. While shaving, his lip started to bleed.
c. Peering over the cliffs, the canyon seemed gigantic.

A

While the mail carrier was running down the street, he dropped the package at the corner.
While my teenage son was shaving for the first time, his lip started to bleed.
While we were peering over the cliffs in Arizona, the canyon seemed gigantic.

277
Q

_____________________ focuses on generating efficiencies and improving combat capabilities across the Air Force and applies to all processes associated with the Air Force mission.

A

AFSO 21

278
Q

_____________________ _____________________ is the strategic, never-ending, incremental refinement of the way you perform tasks.

A

Continuous Improvement

279
Q

usually last a week and apply a series of problem solving steps to determine root causes of problems, eliminate waste, set improvement targets, and establish clear performance measures to reach desired effects, describes what characteristic of the three levels of priorities?

A

Rapid Improvement Events (RIE)

280
Q

are more complex and involve a cross functional team to ensure that identified improvements are incorporated into the day-to-day operations of an organization, describes what characteristic of the three levels of priorities?

A

High Value Initiative (HVI)

281
Q

is a quick fix to a process irritant; a simple answer to an obstacle in an individual process, describes what characteristic of the three levels of priorities?

A

Just Do It

282
Q

Quicker response time to the Warfighter, describes what characteristic of AFS0 21’s fiver desired effects?

A

Improve response time and agility

283
Q

Doing more of the right things with the availability rates same or less effort, describes what characteristic of AFS0 21’s fiver desired effects?

A

Increase productivity of our people

284
Q

All assets available at a greater rate from aircraft, to information technology, to range, space, etc., describes what characteristic of AFS0 21’s fiver desired effects?

A

Increase critical equipment availability rates

285
Q

Make energy conservation a consideration in everything you do, describes what characteristic of AFS0 21’s fiver desired effects?

A

Improve energy efficiency

286
Q

Reduce injury rates, increase people safety, and safe use of materiel assets, describes what characteristic of AFS0 21’s fiver desired effects?

A

Sustain safe and reliable operations

287
Q

Define decision making.

A

Decision-making is the mental (cognitive) process that results in the selection of a course of action from among several alternative scenarios.

288
Q

How would you summarize System 1 Reactive Thinking?

A

System 1 Reactive Thinking is thinking that relies heavily on situational cues, prominent memories, trial and error, and heuristic thinking (discovering solutions for self) to arrive quickly and confidently at judgments, particularly when situations are familiar and immediate action is required.

289
Q

How would you summarize System 2 Reflective Thinking?

A

System 2 Reflective Thinking is broad and informed problem-solving and deliberate decision making. It is useful for judgments in unfamiliar situations, for processing abstract concepts, and for deliberating when there is time for planning and more comprehensive consideration.

290
Q

Systematic decision analysis forces you to stand back from the situation and evaluate what four components?

A

Decision Statement, Determine Objectives, Locate Alternatives, Risk Analysis

291
Q

What purpose does the Decision Statement accomplish in the decision making process?

A

Determines your objectives and provides a specific level of success or resolution

292
Q

Name the four distinct processes within the Kepner-Tregoe Problem Solving and Decision Making process.

A

Situation Appraisal, Problem Analysis, Decision Analysis, Potential Problem Analysis

293
Q

What is the relationship between OODA Loop and the Eight-Step Problem Solving Process?

A

You can never accomplish S-1 thinking and S-2 thinking independently. The two systems work together in a “push pull” fashion with S-2 being the initiator. When encountering a familiar situation, System 1 Thinking is used to quickly run through all four steps of the OODA Loop. When you encounter an unfamiliar situation, System 2 Thinking comes into play, which requires a systematic and deliberate process for solving problems such as the Eight-Step Problem Solving Process.

294
Q

What is the relationship between AFSO 21 and the Eight-Step Problem Solving Process?

A

AFSO 21 is about constantly finding efficiencies to channel saved monies toward improving combat capabilities across the Air Force, and the Eight-Step Problem Solving Process is a team-centered, systematic, common-sense problem solving approach aimed at increasing combat capability, making Air Force units more effective and efficient, and enhancing and enabling the Warfighter

295
Q

What is the importance of distinguishing causes from symptoms and identifying primary causes?

A

The better you understand the problem, the better the solution. Only by thoroughly evaluating a problem are you able to judge the impact of selected and alternative solutions.

296
Q
Tired of hearing about all the problems with the K-9 mobility crates, TSgt Johnson asks his Superintendant for advice on how to fix the problem and hears, "Don't invest in new crates based on feelings and complaints. Instead, take your time and use a process that will help you analyze, develop, and select the best crates for the mission. Using such a process will not only help you gain confidence in your course of action, it makes it easier to justify your choice to leadership." Johnson smiles and says, "Your right, I really need to stand back and look at the whole picture instead of getting caught up in everyone's complaints. By doing that I'll know we'll get the best return on our investment."
The narrative BEST explains:
a. Problem Solving
b. Decision Analysis
c. Resource Stewardship
A

CORRECT ANSWER: b
RATIONALE:
a. INCORRECT: Although the narrative hints at Problem Solving, it does not BEST explain the Eight-Step Problem Solving Process, which according to the Continuous Improvement chapter, “Is a team-centered, systematic, common-sense problem solving approach aimed at increasing combat capability, making Air Force units more effective and efficient, and enhancing and enabling the Warfighter”
b. CORRECT: The narrative BEST explains Decision Analysis, which according to the Continuous Improvement chapter, “Decision Analysis is a systematic process based on the thinking pattern that you use when making choices.” As NCOs, when you have to make critical decisions and solve complex problems, you should use a “systematic” process to make good, confident, reliable, and justifiable decisions.
…a process that allows you to stand back and look at “the whole picture” of the situation, in order to make the wisest and safest choice—through careful consideration of ALL the factors.
c. INCORRECT: Nothing in the narrative explains Resource Stewardship, which according to that chapter, “Resource Stewardship is the careful and responsible management of resources under one’s control.” For the NCO, this requires the efficient and effective use of assigned personnel, material, financial, information and technology, energy, and warfare resources to ensure mission success.

297
Q

After listening to her subordinates complain about a current workplace procedure, TSgt Gerry personally observes the process to gather first-hand data. Then, she and her subordinates review some key process indicators, conduct a performance gap analysis, and set some challenging but achievable targets. After they analyze the primary causes of all the complaints, they come up with some countermeasures and determine their workability before implementing them.
TSgt Gerry and her subordinates’ use of ____________ will MOST LIKELY____________ mission effectiveness.
a. Decision Analysis; increase
b. Decision Analysis; decrease
c. Eight-Step Problem Solving; increase
d. Eight-Step Problem Solving; decrease

A

CORRECT ANSWER: c RATIONALE:

a. INCORRECT: TSgt Gerry and her subordinates did not use Decision Analysis, which according to the Continuous Improvement chapter includes four steps: 1) decision statement, 2) objectives [musts and wants], 3) gathering alternatives, and 4) risk analysis. See rationale for the correct response for additional information.
b. INCORRECT: TSgt Gerry and her subordinates did not use Decision Analysis, which according to the Continuous Improvement chapter, includes four steps: 1) decision statement, 2) objectives [musts and wants], 3) gathering alternatives, and 4) risk analysis. See rationale for the correct response for additional information.
c. CORRECT: Because the team used the first five steps of the Eight-Step Problem Solving Process, it is highly likely that they will continue through the rest of the steps to solve the work center problem, and solving the problem will most likely increase mission effectiveness. According to the Continuous Improvement chapter, problem solving is a team-centered systematic common-sense approach that involves an eight-step process designed to increase combat capability, make Air Force units more effective and efficient, and enhance and enable the war fighter. In the scenario, TSgt Gerry and her subordinates have used steps 1 through 5 of the eight steps: 1) Observe first-hand what is taking place, 2) Review key process indicators and conduct performance gap analysis, 3) Set challenging but achievable targets, 4) Determine root cause (analyze the primary causes of all the complaints), and 5) Develop countermeasures and determine their workability.
d. INCORRECT: The team’s use of the first five steps of the Eight-Step Problem Solving Process will more than likely increase, not decrease mission effectiveness. See rationale for the correct response for additional information.

298
Q

Mechanics

c. Correct the mechanics problems in the sentences below.
a. on monday august 7 we left phoenix arizona and headed for el paso
b. tried to explain he was too angry to listen
c. when you hear all the facts you will change your mind
d. i told my supervisor that the following are my most time-consuming tasks systems inventory customer inquiries and records management.
e. The 13th Fighter Squadron commander said we will have a distinguished visitor in the area this afternoon
f. This award is your’s.
g. Its the most appropriate time to hold the operational Readiness inspection.
h. There was sand on the floor, in our beds, and in our food.

A

a. (O)n (M)onday(,) (A)ugust 7(,) we left (P)hoenix(,) (A)rizona and headed for (E)l (P)aso(.)
b. (I) tried to explain(;) he was too angry to listen(.)
c. (W)hen you hear all the facts(,) you will change your mind(.)
d. (I) told my supervisor that the following are my most time-consuming tasks(:) systems inventory(,) customer inquiries(,) and records management.
e. The 13th Fighter Squadron (C)ommander said(,) (“)(W)e will have a distinguished visitor in the area this afternoon(.)(“)
f. This award is your’s. (No apostrophe)
g. It(‘)s the most appropriate time to hold the (O)perational Readiness (I)nspection.
h. There was sand on the floor, in our beds, and in our food. (No problem)

299
Q

Faulty Parallelism
Rewrite the following sentences to correct problems with faulty parallelism. (Note: add or delete words/text as needed)
a. John paid little attention to what he ate or his clothes.
b. Writing is faster than to print.
c. One of the accident victims suffered a broken arm, several broken ribs, and one of his lungs was punctured.
d. The first sergeant had a harsh voice, a weather-beaten face, and was very stocky in build.

A

John paid little attention to what he ate or what he wore.
Writing is faster than printing.
One of the accident victims suffered a broken arm, several broken ribs, and a punctured lung.
The first sergeant had a harsh voice, a weather-beaten face, and a stocky build.

300
Q

_____________________ ______________________ is an effort on the part of the United States’ Government to understand and engage key audiences in order to create, strengthen, or preserve conditions favorable for the advancement of the United States Government interests, objectives, and policies.

A

Strategic Communication

301
Q

List four ways you can play a role in Strategic Communication?

A

Know the Air Force Message
Tell the Air Force Story
Tell what I do and how it supports my wing’s mission and policy Stay in my lane

302
Q

Explain SAPP.

A
Security = OPSEC
Accuracy = Telling the Story Correctly
Propriety = Politeness, Respect, Decency
Policy = Laws, DOS
303
Q

In your own words, define “Outside your Lane.”

A

means that it is outside of their responsibility. It’s meant to tell others to mind your own business.

304
Q

Give three examples of the impact of operating “Outside your Lane.”

A
  • Huge negative impact on your professional career, national security, the Air Force mission, and the public’s perception of the Air Force and the military.
  • Your personal life could be disrupted (career ending) and you could discredit yourself, the enlisted corps, your unit, the Air Force, and the country.
  • Impact your fellow Airmen in harm’s way.
  • Impact the public’s perception of the mission.
305
Q

Give two examples telling why is it important to tell the Air Force story?

A

be an ambassador for the Air Force.

- give the American public accurate and relevant information.

306
Q

Give three examples of proper media engagement.

A
  • Never divulge classified information.
  • Stay in your lane on your subject area.
  • Don’t lie. Stay factual.
  • Give your opinion but ensure people know it is yours.
307
Q

In general, the Armed Forces view personal Web sites and blogs positively, and it respects the rights of its members to use them as a medium of self-expression. However, you must abide by certain restrictions to ensure good order and discipline. As a military member, you’re on duty 24-hours a day, 365-days a year, and your actions are subject to the ____________________.

A

UCMJ

308
Q

List four of the Air Force’s tips for using new media.

A
  • Identify yourself (but not risking safety).
  • Put safety first —no death - defying stunts!
  • Be aware of the image you present.
  • Use common sense —don’t say things you would not say in front of your mother.
  • Take calculated risks.
  • Engage! Remember, the enemy is engaging back!
309
Q

Give three examples explaining the strategic impact of modern communication.

A
  • Negative impact on the Air Force or the nation.
  • Negative impact on public perception.
  • National Security
  • Negatively impact missions
310
Q

Even if you are not representing the Air Force, why is it important that you maintain a positive image?

A

Every Airman is an ambassador for the service. Even if you are not representing the Air Force, the audience may not interpret the information that way.

311
Q

______________ is NOT an example of an emerging channel of modern communication.

a. blog
b. podcast
c. cable television
d. Twitter

A

cable television

312
Q

“Staying in your lane” means

a. not sharing any Air Force information with strangers, unless approved by your commander.
b. discussing your area of expertise, but NOT discussing a friend’s area of expertise.
c. NEVER discussing your own or your friend’s area of expertise.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

A

discussing your area of expertise, but NOT discussing a friend’s area of expertise.

313
Q

Appropriate use of social media would be:

a. Uploading a video to Facebook that you made of your Afghan base to share your experience with family and friends.
b. Telling about an enemy engagement that just happened on your blog, and then uploading pictures to Blue Tube.
c. Both a and b.
d. None of the above.

A

None of the above

314
Q

What are considerations, benefits, and limitations of communicating Air Force or DOD- related information via personal social media websites?

A
  • OPSEC
  • Stay In Your Lane and don’t discuss issues that are not related to your AFSC.
  • Replace error with fact, not argument.
  • Identify to readers that the views you express are yours alone and not of the Air Force.
  • Be the first to respond to your own mistakes.
  • Be careful what you write and upload.
  • Be aware of the image you present.
  • Avoid being offensive.
  • Make sure you don’t infringe on trademarks.
  • The Air Force cautions you to avoid endorsements.
  • NEVER use the Air Force name to endorse or promote products, opinions, or causes.
315
Q

You cannot release ______________________ ______________________ (information that is not available to the public and would not be released under the Freedom of Information Act) except to authorized individuals with the proper security clearance and a need to know.

A

Classified Information

316
Q

In your own words, how does OPSEC play a vital role in protecting the nation?

A

Because there are many countries and organizations in the world that would like to harm the United States and destroy its influence as a world leader.

317
Q

MSgt Sands is the supervisor of a team that took part in a humanitarian expeditionary operation. The Protocol office scheduled Sands and his team to do an interview with the local media. During the interview, the reporter interjected a question that was not expected. She asked, “Why did the U.S. enter the Pakistan border without their government’s approval?” Sands was little thrown off by the question, but regain his composure and said, “I don’t have any information about that, but I can tell you that our humanitarian operation was a success and the people received very needed care from the U.S.” The base commander was very impressed with the report that was published.
This scenario BEST illustrates Sands’ _________________ technique and ______________impact on NCO effectiveness.
a. ineffective use of flagging; negative
b. effective use of bridging; positive
c. effective use of hooking; positive

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b

a. This answer is INCORRECT. According to the Culture of Engagement chapter, flagging is a technique used to emphasize your message. You can use verbal clues such as the tone of voice and nonverbally with hand gestures or facial expressions to emphasize a point. However, there is no evidence that Sands is applying this technique. It does illustrate him using the bridging technique by moving away from the question on Pakistan and into the positive message of the humanitarian mission. This has demonstrated a positive impact on NCO effectiveness.
b. This answer is CORRECT. According to the Culture of Engagement chapter, bridging is a technique used to move from the reporter’s agenda to your message. Also, bridging is a way to smoothly transition from the question asked to your message. In the scenario, Sands has used this technique to move away from the question on Pakistan and into the positive message of the humanitarian expeditionary operation. This has demonstrated a positive impact on NCO effectiveness.
c. This answer is INCORRECT. According to the Culture of Engagement chapter, hooking is a technique used to take advantage of opportunities before the interview to get the reporter interested in what you want to talk about. The idea is to entice the interviewer into your agenda. However, there is no evidence that Sands is applying this technique. It does illustrate him using the bridging technique by moving away from the question on Pakistan and into the positive message of the humanitarian mission. This has demonstrated a positive impact on NCO effectiveness.

318
Q

A1C Tims has a Facebook account and has recently accepted his coworker, Amn Newby, as a friend. Newby is a new user and very excited about using the Facebook. He is very proud to be in the Air Force, so he has posted regular updates about his journey in the Air Force. Over time, Tims notices Newby posting inappropriate pictures and comments on his page about his time in Iraq and dislike of Muslims.
This scenario will MOST LIKELY _____________________ and will _______________________.
a. create a problem because there was no disclaimer posted; reduce unit effectiveness
b. result in release of classified information in his regular posts; reduce mission effectiveness
c. develop a negative view of the Air Force because of the offensive posts; reduce mission effectiveness

A

CORRECT ANSWER: c

a. This answer is INCORRECT. According to Culture of Engagement chapter, one of the guidelines of using a social media is ensuring to use disclaimers to identify that it is your opinion and not that of the organization. It needs to identify to readers that the view you express are yours alone and that they do not necessarily reflect the view of the Air Force. In the scenario, posting of the disclaimer might have been appropriate but it will still create a negative view of the Air Force because of the offensive posting about Muslims.
b. This answer is INCORRECT. According to Culture of Engagement chapter, one of the guidelines of using a social media is not divulging classified, FOUO or sensitive materials, photos, or video. There is a chance that the classified information may be accidently released by Newby, but the scenario has more evidence of Newby behaving in an offensive manner and causing negative view of the Air Force and reducing mission effectiveness.
c. CORRECT. According to Culture of Engagement chapter, one of the guidelines of using social media is avoiding the offensive. It tells us not to post any defamatory, libelous, vulgar, obscene, abusive, profane, threatening, racially and ethnically hateful, or otherwise offensive or illegal information or material. Since Newby is recognized as an Air Force member, he is portraying a negative view of the Air Force by posting offensive pictures and comments and will reduce mission effectiveness.

319
Q

In your own words define interpersonal communication.

A

Interpersonal communication is a face-to-face, multidirectional exchange of verbal messages and nonverbal signals between two or more people for the purpose of gaining a shared meaning.

320
Q

List the three components of interpersonal communication.

A

Depth, scope, and suitability

321
Q

The three factors influencing interpersonal communication are:

A
  • Knowing Yourself
  • Knowing Others
  • The Message
322
Q

List an example of each paralanguage characteristic under the correct heading.
Rate

Diction

Tone

Rhythm

Fluency

Volume

Quality

A
Rate = Number of words spoken
Diction = Articulation Pronunciation
Tone = Manner of expression, Relative pitch
Rhythm = Recurring patterns of variation/ rises in speech volume, pitch and sound
Fluency = Pauses
Volume = Volume
Quality = Fidelity of timbre of sound
323
Q

List the two barriers to interaction.

A

Competitive interrupting and Overusing the content=only response

324
Q

Explain the differences between translate and interpret.

A
translate = To turn into one's own or another language, often in written format.
interpret = To explain or tell the meaning of; present in understandable terms
325
Q

List five examples of non-verbal behavior.

A
  • Gestures
  • Facial expressions
  • Eye contact
  • Body language
  • Positioning
326
Q

Why is the setting important in interpersonal communication? List three examples.

A
  • Location
  • Intimate space
  • Social and consultative spaces
  • Public space
  • Time
327
Q

Identify the two types of feedback.

A
  • Rehabilitative

- Preventive

328
Q

Explain when you should provide negative feedback?

A

Whenever subordinate performance changes and/or falls below standards and expectations

329
Q

Explain when you should provide positive feedback?

A

Whenever behavior improves organizational effectiveness, (high quality/quantity of work, ethical, promotes teamwork and harmony, etc.)

330
Q

Compare/Define the difference of each:

Feedback

versus

Counseling

A

Feedback is the active communication process where you evaluate or judge subordinate performance and respond by either promoting a change in behavior or by reinforcing present performance.
The feedback process controls effectiveness through evaluations and judgments, whereas counseling works to maintain or improve effectiveness through guidance.
Feedback provides meaningful feedback to individuals on expectations and advice on how well they are meeting those expectations, and advice on how to better meet those expectations. The second purpose is to provide a reliable, long-term, cumulative record of performance and potential based on that performance. The third purpose is to provide…senior NCO evaluation boards, the Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).
Counseling is a type of communication used to empower subordinates to achieve goals. It is more than simply telling subordinates how they are doing, that is feedback. Good counseling focuses on developing subordinates’ abilities to achieve individual and unit goals and when performed correctly, it guides subordinates toward appropriate changes in behavior.
There are times when a leader is required to counsel, but effective unit managers realize there are also times when they must choose to counsel.

331
Q

List five Guidelines for a more productive counseling session.

A
Outline 
Environment 
Length of Sessions 
Inform Counselees
Plan of Action
332
Q

What are the three approaches to counseling?

A

Supervisor-Centered
Nondirective or Subordinate-Centered
Combined

333
Q

__________________ - __________________ ______________________ is simply a style of communicating where the subordinate is not a passive listener, but a vital contributor in the communication process.

A

Subordinate - Centered Communication

334
Q

An important aspect of managerial roles in interpersonal communication is ________________________________.

A

assertiveness

335
Q

List the five concerns that impact your conversations.

A

Concern for clarity
Concern for not hurting the other’s feelings
Concern for nonimposition
Concern for avoiding negative evaluation by the hearer
Concern for effectiveness

336
Q

List three things that impact the work center climate.

A

Dehumanized climate
Overhumanized Climate
Situational Climate

337
Q

Explain the basic assumptions of a Dehumanized and Overhumanized climate.

A

Dehumanized-The basic assumptions of the dehumanized climate are that subordinates are lazy, will not take responsibility, lack desire to achieve significant results, demonstrate inability to direct their own behavior, show indifference to organizational needs, prefer to be led by others, and avoid making decisions whenever possible.
Overhumanized- The basic assumptions of the over humanized approach are that human relations are more important than organizational objectives, conflicts and tensions should be reduced at all costs, motivation of subordinates should be almost totally intrinsic and self- directed, and participative decision making is always superior to decisions made by one or a few.

338
Q

What are the three assumptions basic to establishing a situational climate?

A

A flexible climate that can adapt to the complex and changing nature of individual and organizational needs is superior to a fixed climate.
Individuals are not naturally passive, resistant to organizational needs, or reluctant to assume responsibility.
Since individuals are not lazy, you can structure work to bring individual and organizational goals in line with one another.

339
Q

List at least three ways the use of good interpersonal skills affect the climate in a work center.

A

Subordinates
- who have been helped by a supervisor’s interpersonal skills can empathize with others in similar situations
- learn to be mutually supportive and embrace innovation
- often help coworkers in much the same way they were helped by managers with effective interpersonal skills
Peers
- By sharing ideas and recommendations, coworkers establish a network of cooperation
Others in the Chain of Command
- Superiors place trust in subordinates who are sincere in expressing their strengths, weaknesses, and goals
- Based upon the open and supportive relationship you have with your manager, other coworkers will seek to establish similar relationships with their managers

340
Q

TSgt Cho is the NCOIC of the optometry clinic and believes Airmen are the key to success. He establishes rapport with them, listens and values their viewpoint, and provides and accepts constructive feedback. He holds regular meetings to explain clinic goals and to discuss with his subordinates how to align their goals with organizational goals. At one of his meetings, Amn Jones says, “Because our patient questionnaire is several pages long, it delays patient in-processing. If we sent the questionnaire to our patients ahead of time, it would speed up in-processing.” Cho replies, “That is a great idea. Please implement it immediately.” Several weeks later Jones tells Cho, “Our new procedure has shortened patient in-processing an average of 15 minutes.”
TSgt Cho’s actions BEST illustrate effective _____________ skills and their impact on mission effectiveness.
a. feedback and counseling
b. interpersonal
c. basic interpersonal communication

A

CORRECT ANSWER: b
RATIONALE:
a. This answer is INCORRECT: According to the Interpersonal Communication chapter, the feedback process controls effectiveness through evaluations and judgments, whereas counseling works to maintain or improve effectiveness through guidance. There is no indication in the scenario that TSgt Cho is conducting feedback or counseling. See rationale for correct response for additional information.
b. This answer is CORRECT: In the scenario, TSgt Cho demonstrates effective interpersonal skills by listening and valuing his subordinates viewpoint (Working Relationships), providing and accepting constructive feedback (Working Relationships), and allowing subordinates to discuss their job (“Because our patient questionnaire is several pages long, it delays patient in-processing. If we sent the questionnaire to our patients ahead of time, it would speed up in-processing.”) (Working Relationships). According to the Interpersonal Communication chapter, one of the benefits of effective interpersonal skills on improving working relationships with subordinates was they are willing to share finer details of the job and their performance of it. Furthermore, his regular meetings to discuss the goals of the clinic and how the goals align with his subordinates personal goals demonstrates an understanding of the work center Climate (situational climate), which according to the Interpersonal Communication chapter, the situational climate contends that organizational and individual goals need not be at odds with one another; thus, this climate falls midway between the dehumanized and over humanized climates. The perception of similarity between personal and organizational goals should promote increased productivity, which, in turn, may increase the amount of intrinsic motivation and a greater sense of responsibility by subordinates.
c. This answer is INCORRECT: According to the Interpersonal Communication chapter, basic interpersonal skills can be broken down into three categories: Pre-session, Session, and Post-session skills. Pre-session activities include: diagnosing, and preparing. During the session, opening, attending, responding, resolving, and closing skills are used. Post-session activities include follow-up actions. There is no indication in the scenario that TSgt Cho performed these activities. See rationale for correct response for additional information.

341
Q

TSgt Johnson has been showing up late, doing poor work, and failing to fulfill his supervisory responsibilities. His supervisor, MSgt Bixby schedules a meeting with Johnson for the next day. When Johnson reports, Bixby welcomes him and says, “I have noticed that your work performance has dropped off and that you have been late for work several times. What is going on?” Noticing Johnson looks uncomfortable, Bixby encourages him, and after a few minutes, Johnson replies, “I rarely have enough money to make ends meet so I took a part time job. Now I work 16 hours a day and don’t have time for anything else.” Bixby asks, “Have you considered asking for help?” Johnson replies, “No! I don’t want anyone to know.” Bixby says, “I understand how you feel, but since your situation is interfering with your work here we need to get you some help.” Johnson agrees. Bixby immediately schedules an appointment for Johnson with a financial counselor and then schedules follow up meeting. After Johnson departs, Bixby documents the session.
MSgt Bixby’s effective use of ___________ will MOST LIKELY have a ____________ impact on TSgt Johnson:
a. feedback; positive
b. feedback; negative
c. basic interpersonal skills; positive
d. basic interpersonal skills; negative

A

CORRECT ANSWER: c RATIONALE:
a. This answer is INCORRECT: MSgt Bixby is conducting counseling, not feedback. According to the Interpersonal Communication chapter, feedback, is the active communication process for controlling effectiveness where you evaluate or judge subordinate performance (formal feedback and EPRs) and respond by either promoting a change in behavior or by reinforcing present performance and counseling is simply telling subordinates how they are doing. It is critical, especially when you first contact new Airmen. It works to maintain or improve effectiveness through verbal or written guidance that empowers subordinates to achieve goals. See rationale for correct response for additional information.
b. This answer is INCORRECT: See rationale for “a” and correct response.
c. This answer is CORRECT: MSgt Bixby used basic interpersonal skills effectively, which, according to the Interpersonal Communication chapter, basic interpersonal skills can be broken down into three sections: Pre-session, Session, and Post-session. Pre-session activities include: diagnosing, and preparing. During the session, opening, attending, responding, resolving, and closing skills are used. Post-session activities include follow-up actions. Bixby knows Johnson was showing up late, doing poor work, and failing to fulfill his supervisory responsibilities and schedules a meeting with Johnson for the next day (pre-session). He welcomes Johnson to the meeting and said, “I have noticed that your work performance has dropped off and you have been late for work several times. What is going on? (opening skills) Bixby notices Johnson looking uncomfortable, Bixby encouraged him. (attending skills) “What sort of problems?” Bixby replied. Johnson says, ““I rarely have enough money to make ends meet so I took a part time job. Now I work 16 hours a day and don’t have time for anything else.” Bixby asks, “Have you considered asking for help?” (responding/resolving skills) Johnson replies, “No! I didn’t want anyone to know.” Bixby said, “I understand how you feel, but since your situation is interfering with your work here we need to get you some help.” Johnson agreed. Bixby immediately schedules an appointment for Johnson with a financial counselor and then schedules follow up meeting. After Johnson departs, Bixby documents the session. (Closing Skills/follow up)
d. This answer is INCORRECT: MSgt Bixby used basic interpersonal skills effectively.
See rationale for correct response.