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Health assessment > Quiz 3 Thorax and Lungs A > Flashcards

Quiz 3 Thorax and Lungs A Flashcards

1
Q

a bony structure with a conical shape, which is narrower at the top

a. sternum
b. spinous process
c. scapula

A

Thoracic cage

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2
Q

how many pairs of ribs are there?

how many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

12

12

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3
Q 
a musculotendinous septum that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdomen.
A. diaphragm
B. apex
C. base
D. scalenus muscle
A

A. diaphragm

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4
Q

where are the first 7 ribs attached?
A. to the costal cartilages above them
b. directly to the sternum via their costal cartilages

A

b. directly to the sternum via their costal cartilages

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5
Q

where are ribs 8, 9, and 10 attached?
A. directly to the sternum via their costal cartilages
b. to the costal cartilages above them

A

b. to the costal cartilages above them

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6
Q

where are ribs 11 and 12 attached
A. to the costal cartilages above them
B. directly to the sternum via their costal cartilages
c. ribs 11 and 12 are floating ribs

A

c. ribs 11 and 12 are floating ribs

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7
Q

are the points at which the ribs join their cartilages.

a. costochondral junctions
b. ribs 11 and 12 are floating ribs

A

a. costochondral junctions

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8
Q

hollow U-shaped depression just above the sternum, in between the clavicles

a. sternum
b. vertebra promines
c. suprasternal notch
d. sternum

A

suprasternal notch

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9
Q

the sternum the breast bone has 3 parts

a. intercostal, manubrium, the body, and the xiphoid process
b. the manubrium, the body, and the xiphoid process
c. manubrium, body, clavicle
d. the scalenun, body, xiphoid

A

b. the manubrium, the body, and the xiphoid process.

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10
Q 
the "angle of Louis," this is the articulation of the manubrium and body of the sternum, and it is continuous with the second rib
acostal angle.
a. manubrium
b. vertebra prominens
c.spinous processess
d.sternal angle
A

d. sternal angle

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11
Q

the right and left costal margins form an angle where they meet at the xiphoid process.

a. vertebra prominens
b. spinous processess
c. costal angle
d. xiphoid process

A

.c. costal angle

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12
Q

the most prominent bony spur protruding at the base of the neck; this is the spinous process of C7

a. spinous process
b. vertebra prominens
c. inferior border of the scapula

A

b. vertebra prominens

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13
Q

knobs on the vertebrae which stack together to form the spinal column.
a vertebra prominens
b spinous process
c sternum

A

spinous processes

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14
Q

inferior border of the scapula is the

A

the lower tip is usually at the 7th or 8th rib

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15
Q

bisects the center of each clavicle at a point halfway between the palpated sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular joints.

A

midclavicular line

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16
Q

extends through the inferior angle of the scapula when the arms are at the sides of the body.

A

.scapular line

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17
Q

a line that extends down from the anterior axillary fold where the pectoralis major muscle inserts

A

anterior axillary

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18
Q

a line continues down from the the posterior axillary fold where the latissimus dorsi muscle inserts the

A

posterior axillary

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19
Q

a line runs down from the apex of the axilla and lies between and parallel to the other two

A

midaxillary line

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20
Q

the middle section of the thoracic cavity containing the esophagus, trachea, heart, and great vessels.

A

mediastinum

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21
Q

contain the lungs and are on either side of the mediastinumpleural

A

pleural cavities

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22
Q

the highest point of the lungs, is 3 to 4cm above the inner third of the clavicles

A

apex

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23
Q

the lower border, rests on the diaphragm at about the 6th rib in the midclavicular line

A

base

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24
Q

Which lung is shorter? r or l lung

why

A

the right lung because of the underlying liver.

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25
Q

Which lung is narrower? r or l lung

why

A

the left lung because the heart bulges to the left

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26
Q

How many lobes does the right lung have?How many lobes does the left lung have?

A

3 lobes

2 Lobes

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27
Q

crosses the 5th rib in the midaxillary line and terminates at the 6th rib in the midclavicular

A

oblique fissue

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28
Q

divides the right upper and middle lobes; it extends from the 5th rib in the right midaxillary line to the 3 intercostal space or 4 rib at the right sternal border

A

borderhorizontal fissure

29
Q

serous membranes that form an envelope between the lungs and the chest wall

A

.pleurae

30
Q

lines the outside of the lungs dipping down into the fissures

A

visceral pleura

31
Q

lining the inside of the chest wall and diaphragm

A

parietal pleura

32
Q

a potential space formed by the pleurae extending about 3cm below the level of the lungs

A

costodiaphragmatic recess

33
Q

lies anterior to the esophagus and is 10 to 11cm long in the adult; it begins at the level of the cricoid cartilage in the neck and bifurcates just below the sternal angle into the right and left main bronchi

A

trachea

34
Q

space that is filled with air but is not available for gaseous exchange

A

dead space

35
Q

a functional respiratory unit that consists of the bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and the alveoli. acinus

A

acinus

36
Q

1) supplying oxygen to the body for energy production 2) removing carbon dioxide as a waster product of energy reactions 3) maintaining homeostasis 4) maintaining heat exchange The four functions of the respiratory system

A

The four functions of the respiratory system

37
Q

slow, shallow breathing

A

hypoventilation

38
Q

rapid, deep breathing; an increase in both rate and depth

A

hyperventilation

39
Q

increase of carbon dioxide in the blood

A

hypercapnia

40
Q

decrease of oxygen in the blood

A

hypoxemia

41
Q

is the physical act of breathing

(inspiration, expiration or respiration)

A

respiration

42
Q

air rushes into the lungs as the chest size increases

(inspiration, expiration or respiration)

A

inspiration

43
Q

expelled from the lungs as the chest recoils

(inspiration, expiration or respiration)

A

expiration

44
Q

the complex lipid substance needed for sustained inflation of the air sacs, is present in adequate amounts

A

surfactant

45
Q

the maximum amount of air that a person can expel from the lungs after first filling the lungs to maximum
a. decrease vital capacity
b increased residual volume

A

a. decrease vital capacity

46
Q

the amount of air remaining in the lungs even after the most forceful expiration.

a. decreased vital capicity
b. increased residual volume

A

b. increased residual volume

47
Q

hemoptysis

A

coughing up blood

48
Q

difficulty breathing when supine orthopnea

A

orthopnea

49
Q

is awakening from sleep with SOB and needing to be upright to achieve comfort.

A

paroxysmal noctural dyspnea

50
Q

night sweats

A

diaphoresis

51
Q

occurs when anything obstructs transmission of vibrations

a. increased fremitus
b. rhonchal fremitus
c. decreased fremitus
d. pleural friction

A

c. decreased fremitus

52
Q

occurs with compression or consolidation of lung tissue

a. increased fremitus
b. rhonchal fremitus
c. pleural friction fremitus
d. rhonchal fremitus

A

a. increased fremitus

53
Q

is palpable with thick bronchial secretions

a. increased fremitus
b. rhonchal fremitus
c. decreased fremitus
d. pleural friction fremitus

A

b. rhonchal fremitus

54
Q

is palpable with inflammation of the parietal or visceral pleura causing a decrease in the normal lubricating fluid.

a. increased fremitus
b. pleural friction fremitus
c. decreased fremitus
d. rhonchial fremitus

A

pleural friction fremitus

55
Q 
a coarse, crackling sensation palpable over the skin surface.
a dull
b. resonance
c. hypersonance
d. crepitus
A

d. crepitus

56
Q 
is the low-pitched, clear, hollow sound that predominates in healthy lung tissue in the adult
a. dull
b hyperresonance
c. resonance
d. crepitus
A

resonance

57
Q

is a lower-pitched, booming sound found when too much air is present, such as in emphysema or pneumothorax

a. dull
b. hyperresonance
c. resonance
d. dull

A

b. hyperresonance

58
Q

soft, muffled thud

a. dull
b. hyperresonance
c. resonance
d. crepitus

A

soft, muffled thud dull

59
Q

a percussion to map out the lower lung border

a. increased breath sounds.
b. diaphragmatic excursion
c. adventitious sounds
d. atelectatic crackles

A

b. diaphragmatic excursion

60
Q

sounds are louder than they should be

a. atelectatic crackles
b. adventitious sounds
c. . diaphragmatic excursion
d. increased breath sounds

A

d. increased breath sounds

61
Q

added sounds that are not normally heard in the lungs

a. atelectatic crackles
b. diaphragmatic excursion
c. adventitious sounds
d. increased breath sounds

A

c. adventitious sounds

62
Q

short, popping, crackling sounds that sound like fine crackles but do not last beyond a few breaths a. atelectatic crackles

b. diaphragmatic excursion
c. adventitious sounds
d. increased breath sounds

A

breathsatelectatic crackles

63
Q

the number of seconds it takes for the person to exhale from total lung capacity to residual volume.
a. atelectasis
b. crackles
c forced expiratoy air

A

forced expiratory time

64
Q

measures lung health in chronic conditions such as asthma spirometer

A

spirometer

65
Q

forced vital capacity FVC

a. forced expiratory volume in 1 second FEV1
b. the total volume of air exhaled

A

b. the total volume of air exhaled

66
Q

forced expiratory volume in 1 second FEV1

a. the total volume of air exhaled
b. the volume exhaled in the first measured second

A

b. the volume exhaled in the first measured second

67
Q

pulse oximeter

A

a noninvasive method to assess arterial oxygen saturation

68
Q

a safer, simpler, inexpensive, clinical measure of functional status in aging adults.

A

6 minute distance 6MD walk

69
Q

measures the successful transition of extrauterine life

A

apgar scoring system

Health assessment (21 decks)

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