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1
Q

In an anemic dog, a reticulocyte count of 5% is

a) high
b) low
c) normal
d) a sign of bone marrow depression

A

A) Low

2
Q

In testing for Equine infectious Anemia, the sample should be put in a:

a) green top
b) purple top
c) red top
d) gray top

A

C) Red Top

EIA = Coggins

Serum separator

Horse blood is red = red top

3
Q

A disease found primarily in sheep and goats, also known as ORF is:

a) hoof and mouth
b) blue tongue
c) scrapie
d) contagious ecthyma

A

D) Contagious ecthyma

ORF = Zoonotic Virus

4
Q

An animal with Haemonchus would exhibit

a) profuse diarrhea
b) pale mucous membranes
c) respiratory difficulty
d) hunched posture

A

A) Profuse diarrhea

Haem = Blood

Onchus = Stomach worm

5
Q

Ascaris suum found in the pig, is a

a) hookworm
b) whipworm
c) tapeworm
d) roundworm

A

D) Roundworm

As(s) for round

6
Q

Strongylus vulgaris causes

a) inflammatory arteritis leading possibly to abdominal crisis
b) blocked pancreatic duct
c) diarrhea
d) anemia

A

C) Diarrhea

Common horse nematode (roundworm) parasite

ne-ma-t”O”de

7
Q

The way to determine if lead aprons and gloves are still functioning correctly is

a) manual examination
b) radiographic imaging
c) visual examination
d) water test

A

B) Radiographic imaging

8
Q

The best way to maintain a lead apron is to

a) wipe it with a damp cloth
b) store in a dark closet
c) fold neatly in a drawer
d) hang it up straight on a hanger

A

D) Hang it up straight on hanger

9
Q

Radiographic screens should be cleaned with

a) a lint-free cloth
b) paper towels
c) tissues
d) Betadine

A

A) Lint free cloth

10
Q

In order to maintain the same radiographic density, if you halve the time on an exposure, you must

a) increase kVp by 10%
b) double the mA
c) halve the mA
d) reduce kVp by half

A

B) double the mA

Density = degree of blackness (kVp)

mA = greyness

11
Q

If you wish to take an AP view of a dog’s left shoulder, you position the dog

a) sternally, with left front leg extending
b) left laterally
c) dorsally, with left front leg retracted
d) right lateral recumbancy

A

A) sternally, with left front leg extending

12
Q

If the technician positions herself twice as far from the x-ray machine as usual, she has reduced her exposure to _____ of usual.

a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 1/8
d) 1/16

A

B) 1/4

Inverse sq law

13
Q

Blood is left sitting in a red top tube for one hour before RBCs are separated. What value might be artificially low?

a) SGPT
b) glucose
c) SGOT
d) ammonia

A

B) Glucose

RBC will eat up glucose

14
Q

All the following can be reversed by naloxone except

a) meperidine
b) oxymorphone
c) xylazine
d) morphine

A

C) Xylazine

Naloxone = morphine reversal

Yohimbine = Xylazine reversal

Meperidine is Demoral = morphine

15
Q

Metronidazole (Flagl®) is used to treat

a) roundworms
b) tapeworms
c) coccidia
d) giardia

A

D) Giardia

16
Q

A drug used to treat coccidiosis is

a) penicillin
b) methicillin
c) tetracycline
d) sulfadiazine

A

D) Sulfadiazine

17
Q

The best way to restrain a 4.5kg (10 lb.) pig is

a) put a bucket over its head and grab it by the tail
b) hold it upside down by its two hind legs
c) pig snare
d) nose twitch

A

B) hold it upside down by its two hind legs

18
Q

An owner says that his horse is chewing on its stall while sucking air. This is called

a) cribbing
b) wind-sucking
c) crooning
d) cantering

A

A) Cribbing

19
Q

A mare has a foal at her right side. The best way to approach is

a) directly in front
b) from the front and slightly to the near side
c) from the front and slightly to the far side
d) from behind

A

B) from the front and slightly to the near side

Near side = Left

Far side = Right

20
Q

A possible side effect of xylazine is

a) hyperventilation
b) bradycardia
c) hypoventilation
d) muscle rigidity

A

B) Bradycardia

Sedative

Muscle relaxation

Analgesia

Alpha2 - agonist

21
Q

The fastest way to refill a shrinking rebreather bag is

a) close the pop-off valve
b) increase the fresh gas flow
c) press the O2 flush button
d) shut off the vaporizer

A

C) Press the O2 flush button

But not when attached to the patient

22
Q

The purpose of filling the rebreather bag with O2 and providing one positive pressure ventilation in the middle of surgery (the “sigh”) is to

a) reduce excess pressure in the system
b) encourage O2 perfusion of the tissues
c) reinflate collapsed alveoli
d) encourage hypostatic pulmonary congestion

A

B) encourage O2 perfusion of the tissues

23
Q

An endotracheal tube placed in a main bronchus

a) produces easier respiration
b) allows more fresh gas to circulate
c) reduces damage to the trachea
d) can reduce patient vitality by at least 50%

A

d) can reduce patient vitality by at least 50%

24
Q

Increased difficulty in inhalation or exhalation by an anesthetized patient may be caused by

a) using an uncuffed endotracheal tube
b) using a Murphy endotracheal tube
c) using a cuffed endotracheal tube
d) using an endotracheal tube of too small an internal diameter

A

D) using an endotracheal tube of too small an internal diameter

25
Q

Hypoventilation under anesthesia can cause

a) metabolic acidosis
b) metabolic alkalosis
c) respiratory acidosis
d) respiratory alkalosis

A

C) respiratory acidosis

26
Q

A major risk of surgery on rodents and rabbits is

a) ineffectiveness of antibiotics for infection
b) hyperthermia and acidosis
c) hypothermia
d) alkalosis

A

C) Hypothermia

27
Q

What drug would not be found in the crash cart?

a) epinephrine
b) furosemide
c) gentamycin
d) dexamethasone

A

C) Gentamycin

Dexamethasone is a steriod which helps dilates vessels. It’s an anti-inflammatory

28
Q

In explaining the effect of entropion to a client, it is useful to know the anatomy of the

a) mouth and lips
b) eyelids
c) ear pinna
d) nose

A

B) Eyelids

29
Q

Under anesthesia, an animal with darkly pigmented gums can be monitored at the

a) ear pinna
b) conjunctiva
c) webbing between the toes
d) sclera

A

B) Conjunctiva

30
Q

Excessive watering of the eyes might be a result of

a) glaucoma
b) retinosis
c) ectropion
d) retinal detachment

A

C) Ectropion

31
Q

Tearing or perforation of the rectum in a mare could be caused by

a) passage of the foal through the uterus and vagina
b) diabetes insipidus
c) Cushing’s disease
d) hypoglycemia

A

A) passage of the foal through the uterus and vagina

32
Q

A client presents a cat for euthanasia. You should

a) have them sign the euthanasia form
b) ask if they are certain they want anesthesia
c) put a toe-tag identification on
d) give them a appointment for the next day

A

A) have them sign the euthanasia form

33
Q

Involuntary regurgitation is a major risk in anesthetized

a) horses
b) cows
c) dogs
d) cats

A

A) Horses

34
Q

A statement that is true about autoclaving:

a) it will dull scalpel blades
b) it is safe for scalpel blades
c) it is safe for suture material
d) it works by using dry heat

A

A) it will dull scalpel blades

35
Q

The gas used in gas sterilization is

a) ethylene oxide
b) nitrogen
c) carbon dioxide
d) oxygen

A

A) Ethylene oxide

36
Q

Which is an appropriate surgical scrub?

a) phenol
b) chlorine
c) povodine iodine
d) ethyl alcohol

A

C) povodine iodine

37
Q

The total elimination if viable life forms is called

a) antisepsis
b) disinfection
c) sterilization
d) germicide

A

C) Sterilization

38
Q

The minimum requirements for sterilization of surgical equipment

a) 15 psi/100˚F/30 min.
b) 20 psi/150˚F/20 min.
c) 10 psi/100˚F/30 min.
d) 15 psi/121˚C/15-20 min.

A

D) 15 psi/121˚C/15-20 min.

39
Q

Types of dissolvable sutures include

a) nylon
b) silk
c) stainless steel
d) catgut and polyglycolic acid

A

D) catgut and polyglycolic acid

40
Q

The position for radiographing a dog for possible hip dysplasia

a) in the frog position
b) on the sternum with hind legs rotated laterally
c) on back with hind legs rotated laterally
d) on back with hind legs rotated medially

A

D) on back with hind legs rotated medially

41
Q

Liver cells store energy in the form of

a) protein
b) glycogen
c) fat
d) glucose

A

B) Glycogen

Glycogen = carbohydrate = energy

42
Q

Hepatitis is caused by a

a) fungus
b) virus
c) bacteria
d) protozoan

A

B) Virus

43
Q

Anthrax, brucellosis, and tuberculosis are communicated to humans by

a) horses
b) cattle
c) pigs
d) dogs

A

B) Cattle

44
Q

This can pass from animal to human:

a) Pasteurella multocida
b) streptococcus agalactia
c) streptococcus equi
d) Campylobacter jejeuni

A

D) Campylobacter jejeuni

Food poisioning

45
Q

Salmonella is found in

a) birds
b) farm animals
c) reptiles
d) all of the above

A

D) All of the above

46
Q

A sign to toxemia is

a) anisocytosis
b) Howell-Jolly bodies
c) fragments of reticulocytes
d) cytoplasmic basophilic of neutrophils

A

D) cytoplasmic basophilic of neutrophils

Howell-Jolly bodies occur in RBC. Remnants of nucleus within the RBC occuring during maturation.

47
Q

After the death of a pet

a) the body should be tagged and bagged
b) the client should be allowed time to accept the reality of the death
c) the client should immediately adopt another pet
d) a bill should be prepared

A

B) the client should be allowed time to accept the reality of the death

48
Q

A true statement about organophosphates

a) they are non-toxic to humans and animals
b) they are used for deworming
c) they are reversed by yohimbine
d) they should be used regularly in the cleaning of kennels

A

B) they are used for deworming

used as pesticides, insecticide

49
Q

An inexpensive way to monitor vital signs during surgery

a) EOG
b) pulse oximeter
c) esophageal stethoscope
d) palpation

A

C) Esophageal stethoscope

50
Q

As an anesthetist, the technician’s most important tools are

a) EOG
b) pulse oximeter
c) Doppler
d) Her/his own senses of sight, hearing, and touch

A

D) Her/his own senses of sight, hearing, and touch

51
Q

Organs of the small intestine in order:

a) cecum, duodenum, jejunum
b) duodenum, ileum, cecum
c) duodenum, jejunum, ileum
d) duodenum, ileum, jejunum

A

c) duodenum, jejunum, ileum

52
Q

The best site to take a bone marrow sample

a) crest of ileum
b) humerus
c) tibia
d) distal radius

A

A) Crest of ileum

53
Q

You give 825 mL of a 10% (dextrose) solution. How many g of (dextrose) are in that dose?

a) .825g
b) 8.25g
c) 82.5g
d) 825g

A

C) 82.5g

one zero to the left

54
Q

You must give 150mL of fluids over 8 hours. The drip chamber size is 60 drops/mL. Your drip rate is:

a) 13 drops/min
b) 19 drops/min
c) 48 drops/min
d) 240 drops/min

A

B) 19 gtt/min

55
Q

A drug to treat respiratory acidosis is:

a) epinephrine
b) atropine
c) sodium bicarbonate
d) naloxone

A

C) Sodium bicarbonate

it is an antacid

56
Q

A drug given sublingually to stimulate respiration in newborns is:

a) naloxone
b) yohimbine
c) doxapram
d) oxymorphone

A

B) Doxapram

57
Q

An orchiectomy is:

a) removal of one or both testes
b) removal of ovaries
c) removal of dewclaw
d) removal of uterus

A

a) removal of one or both testes

58
Q

Mannitol salt agar and eosin-methylene blue agar are example of.

a) nutritive media
b) enriched media
c) selective media
d) simple media

A

c) selective media

59
Q

Bacterial cultures should be incubated at:

a) 68˚ F
b) 72˚ F
c) 98.6˚ F
d) 105˚ F

A

C) 98.6 F

60
Q

The area without growth surrounding the antibiotic disc in a sensitivity test is called:

a) the blank
b) negative
c) zone inhibition
d) area of sensitivity

A

c) zone inhibition

61
Q

An anesthetic that can cause irregular heartbeat by (interacting) with the myocardium is:

a) methoxyflurane
b) halothane
c) Isoflurane
d) nitrous oxide

A

B) Halothane

62
Q

Which is not a preanesthetic?

a) atropine
b) Acepromazine
c) butorphanol
d) thiopental

A

C) Butorphanol

synthetic opiod

induction

sedative

analgesia

aka. torbugesic

63
Q

Which dog would have prolonged recovery from anesthesia with pentobarbital?

a) Golden Retriever
b) German Shepherd
c) Bulldog
d) Greyhound

A

D) Greyhounds

64
Q

Which drug has an action similar to atropine?

a) butorphanol
b) acepromazine
c) ketamine
d) glycopyrrolate

A

D) glycopyrrolate

65
Q

The best way to keep a horse from chewing at leg bandages is a

a) hobble
b) neck cradle
c) Elizabethan collar
d) cribbing strap

A

B) Neck cradle

66
Q

The main source of nutrients in carnivores and many omnivores

a) proteins and fats
b) water and vitamins
c) carbohydrates and vitamins
d) minerals and water

A

A) Protein and fat

67
Q

How many grams of dextrose are used to make 1L of 5% dextrose?

a) 0.05g
b) 0.5g
c) 50g
d) 500g

A

C) 50

5/100 x 1000ml

68
Q

Which parasite sheds packets of eggs in host feces?

a) Trichuris
b) Dipylidium
c) Ancylostoma
d) Taenia

A

B) Diplidium

tapeworm = progloddis

Ancylostoma = “ankle” hooks to the ankle (feet)

Taenia = in rodents and rabbits

69
Q

What is the intermediate host of Taenia pisiformis?

a) flea
b) tick
c) rabbit
d) snail

A

C) Rabbit

70
Q

The instrument used to break up a gingival plaque bridge is a

a) sound
b) elevator
c) dental forceps
d) sickle

A

C) Dental forcep

71
Q

The tooth most often removed from a horse at the owner’s request is

a) canine
b) P1
c) incisors
d) M4

A

B) P1

aka wolf tooth

72
Q

You should inform the client that a possible side effect of prednisone is

a) polyuria
b) anorexia
c) pruritis
d) alopecia

A

A) Polyuria

73
Q

The instruction S.I.G. means

a) once a day
b) every 4 hours
c) the directions to be printed on the label for the client
d) as needed

A

c) the directions to be printed on the label for the client

74
Q

A good analgesic for cats is

a) butorphanol
b) acetaminophen
c) fentanyl/droperidol
d) oxymorphone

A

A) butorphanol

75
Q

Which is the smallest suture size?

a) 2 - 0
b) 3 - 0
c) 5 – 0
d) 10 – 0

A

d) 10 – 0

76
Q

What is the most (humane? effective?) way to euthanize a mouse?

a) ether
b) chloroform
c) carbon monoxide
d) carbon dioxide

A

d) carbon dioxide

77
Q

Which is the surgical forceps with small, fine teeth that cause the least tissue trauma?

a) Carmalt
b) Kelly
c) Crile
d) Allis

A

D) Allis

78
Q

A cat is showing signs of post surgical pain. Which drug should be administered?

a) Butorphanol
b) Phenylbutazone
c) acetaminophen
d) ibuprofen

A

a) Butorphanol

79
Q

Which species does not get Sarcoptes sp. of mange?

a) dog
b) cat
c) sheep
d) pig

A

B) Cats

80
Q

The CAMP test is used to differentiate between.

a) Staph. sp
b) Strept. sp
c) Mycosporum
d) Actinobacter

A

B) Strept. sp

81
Q

Where does bloat occur in the cow?

a) lung
b) intestine
c) reticulum
d) rumen

A

D) Rumen

aka left paralumbar fossa

82
Q

To prepare a 10% solution of epinephrine, you would dilute:

a) 1 part solute to 9 parts diluent
b) 9 part solute to 1 part diluent
c) 1 part solute to 10 parts diluent
d) 10 parts solute to 1 part diluent

A

a) 1 part solute to 9 parts diluent

83
Q

Methylene blue is:

a) a supravital stain
b) used for differentials, reticulocyte counts
c) red blood cell counts
d) platelets and differentials

A

a) a supravital stain

84
Q

A dog presents toxic red blood cells from lead poisoning. The red blood cells shows:

a) Howell-Jolly bodies
b) basophilic stippling
c) Dohle bodies
d) none of the above

A

B) basophilic stippling

85
Q

Too much EDTA added to a blood sample causes:

a) hemolysis
b) crenation
c) no change
d) rouleaux formation

A

B) Crenation

86
Q

The calcaneous is located in the:

a) stifle
b) hock
c) spinal column
d) pelvis

A

B) Hock

87
Q
A
88
Q

A sheep presents with pustules on the skin. The sheep has?

a) contagious ecthymia
b) tuberculosis
c) mange
d) acne

A

a) contagious ecthymia

89
Q

A 16-week-old horse presents with swollen joints, weakness and fever. The horse most likely has:

a) Potomac Horse Fever
b) lack of colostrum
c) Equine encephalitis
d) rabies

A

b) lack of colostrum

90
Q
A
91
Q

You were previously on a farm call with a veterinarian where a cow was treated for parturient paresis. The doctor has taken himself off call for the evening. The farmer calls you to say that the cow is down again. You would:

a) go to the farm and evaluate the cow
b) go to the farm and treat the cow
c) refer the farmer to the doctor on call
d) tell the farmer that the doctor will be there in the morning

A

c) refer the farmer to the doctor on call

92
Q

Aminoglycocides can cause damage to the:

a) heart
b) lungs
c) liver
d) kidneys

A

D) Kidney

93
Q

Administration of IV fluids has what effect:

a) expands venal pressure and increases blood flow
b) increases platelet count
c) replaces red blood cells
d) increases white blood cells

A

A) expands venal pressure and increases blood flow

94
Q

A dog has started to vomit while under anesthesia. You would:

a) place the dog in lateral recumbency
b) raise the head above the shoulder
c) lower the head below the shoulder
d) place the dog in dorsal recumbency

A

c) lower the head below the shoulder

95
Q
  1. What views would you use to radiograph the shoulder of a horse?

a) PA & AP
b) DV & VD
c) PA & oblique
d) LM & ML

A

C) PA & oblique

96
Q
  1. Using air to expand the bladder (pneumocystogram) is a type of _____medium.

a) negative contrast
b) positive contrast
c) non-ionic contrast
d) ionic contrast

A

A) Negative

97
Q

The largest section of a ruminants stomach is:

a) reticulum
b) rumen
c) abomasum
d) omassum

A

B) Rumen

reticulum = hardware

abomasum = true stomach

omassum = grinds food

98
Q

What instrument you use to stop the bleeding from small veins during surgery?

a) mosquito forceps
b) Kelly forceps
c) Allis forceps
d) Blackhaus forceps

A

a) mosquito forceps

99
Q

What dog type must have special care taken when removing an endotracheal tube?

a) brachycephalics
b) dolichocephalics
c) mesocephalics
d) none of the above

A

a) brachycephalics

100
Q

What causes systemic mycoses?

a) Blastomycosis
b) Mycoplasma
c) Candida albicans
d) Dermatophytosis

A

A) Blastomycosis

Mycoses = fungal infection

Candida = Yeast infection

Mycolasma = bacteria

101
Q

Blood from the posterior vena cava empties into the:

a) R A
b) L A
c) R V
d) L V

A

A) R A

102
Q

When dehorning a calf, what nerve should be given a local?

a) facial
b) corneum
c) ocular
d) mandibular

A

b) corneum

103
Q

What effect does lincomycin have on a horse?

a) vomiting
b) increased salvation
c) diarrhea
d) all of the above

A

C) Diarrhea

104
Q

Which of the following is an “acid fast” bacteria?

a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Strept. sp.
c) Staph. sp
d) Actinomyces sp.

A

a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

105
Q

The CMT is used to detect:

a) acidosis
b) lead poisoning
c) subclinical signs of mastitis
d) naval ill

A

c) subclinical signs of mastitis

106
Q

The PVC is used to indicate hydration and

a) total solids
b) specific gravity
c) liver function
d) pH

A

A) Total solids

107
Q

Which is the reversible anesthetic used on sight hounds?

a) nalaxone
b) telazol
c) rompum
d) oxymorphone

A

c) rompum

aka xylazine

108
Q

Atropine causes:

a) decreased salivation, decreased gastric motility
b) increased salivation, increased gastric motility
c) decreased salivation, increased gastric motility
d) increased salivation, decreased gastric motility

A

a) decreased salivation, decreased gastric motility

109
Q

To detect Dermatophytes, which device is used?

a) Schiotz tonometer
b) Wood’s lamp
c) fluorescein dye
d) none of the above

A

b) Wood’s lamp

110
Q

What is the unit of measurement used to detect the amount of radiation to which a technician is exposed?

a) RAD
b) AMP
c) REM
d) KVP

A

C) REM

111
Q

An example of an absorbable suture material is:

a) prolene
b) ethicon
c) vetafil
d) chromic gut

A

d) chromic gut

112
Q

Yellow discharge from the nose is described as:

a) purulent
b) serous
c) fibrinous
d) catarrhal

A

a) purulent

113
Q

A cow in a stanchion and blood needs to be taken. Besides the jugular, where is the next favorable site?

a) facial vein
b) lateral saphenous
c) lateral cephalic
d) coccygeal

A

d) coccygeal

114
Q

If 1 ml = 60 drops and 500ml needs to be administered per hour, what should the drip rate be?

a) 8 drops/second
b) 80 drops/minute
c) 4 drops/second
d) 40 drops/minute

A

A) 8gtt/sec

115
Q

When administering CPR to a 34 lb. dog, how many compressions per minute?

a) 20 - 40
b) 40 - 60
c) 60 - 80
d) 80 - 120

A

D) 80-120

116
Q

A test used to determine kidney function is:

a) bile acids
b) creatnine
c) LDH
d) ALT

A

B) Creatnine

Bile acid = liver (gallbladder)

LDH (Lactate dehydrogenase) = tissue damage

ALT (alanine aminotransferas) = liver damage

117
Q

Why should a Guinea pig be moved and rotated every 20 to 30 minutes after surgery?

a) to prevent hyperthermia
b) to prevent pressure sores
c) to prevent kidney failure
d) to prevent hypostatic pulmonary congestion

A

d) to prevent hypostatic pulmonary congestion

118
Q

A castrated sheep is called.

a) barrow
b) wether
c) ram
d) stallion

A

b) wether

barrow = castrated pig

Ram = intact male sheep

119
Q

A barrow is a:

a) castrated pig
b) castrated sheep
c) surgical instrument
d) castrated horse

A

a) castrated pig

120
Q

Starch is broken down by which enzyme?

a) lipase
b) renin
c) amylase
d) pepsin

A

c) amylase

121
Q

What is the expected exhalation time on an animal in surgery when the inhalation time is 4 seconds?

a) 2 seconds
b) 3 seconds
c) 4 seconds
d) 6 seconds

A

d) 6 seconds

Exhalation is slightly longer than inhalation

122
Q

Leptospirosis is a:

a) bacteria
b) virus
c) fungus
d) protozoa

A

A) bacteria

123
Q

Leptospirosis is transmitted by:

a) saliva
b) urine
c) feces
d) blood

A

B) Urine

124
Q

Which laboratory animal needs Vitamin C in their diet?

a) rat
b) rabbit
c) Guinea pig
d) gerbil

A

C) Guinea pig

hypocalcemia = scurvys

125
Q

Radiographic density is adjusted by changing the setting of:

a) mAs
b) kvp
c) time
d) all of the above

A

D) All of the above

126
Q

A comminuted fracture is:

a) a greenstick fracture
b) bone shattered into many pieces
c) a compound fracture
d) a linear fracture

A

b) bone shattered into many pieces

Compound fracture = open fracture

Greenstick fracture = incomplete fracture

127
Q

A dog has ingested rat poison. What antidote should be administered?

a) Vitamin E
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin A
d) Vitamin K

A

d) Vitamin K

128
Q

What is usually the primary cause of mastitis?

a) antibiotics
b) viruses
c) poor nutrition
d) unsanitary milking equipment

A

d) unsanitary milking equipment

129
Q

Which feline leukocyte is not normally present in a blood sample?

a) band neutrophil
b) eosinophil
c) metamyelocyte
d) lymphocyte

A

c) metamyelocyte

130
Q

While intubating an animal, the technician must keep in mind that the trachea lies ______ to the esophagus.

a) ventral
b) dorsal
c) medial
d) lateral

A

a) ventral

131
Q

The internal thoracic cavity is completely covered by:

a) peritoneum
b) pericardium
c) pleura
d) mucosa

A

C) Pleura

132
Q

A dog goes into cardiac arrest during an examination. The first rule of CPR is:

a) establish a patent airway
b) start cardiac compression
c) start IV fluids
d) take an ECG

A

a) establish a patent airway

133
Q

The specific gravity on a urine sample tests very high. This may indicate:

a) diabetes insipidus
b) dehydration
c) kidney failure
d) kidney disease

A

B) dehydration

134
Q

Intussusception is:

a) a result of heartworm disease
b) pancreatitis
c) telescoping of the intestine
d) heart failure

A

c) telescoping of the intestine

135
Q

Acute septic inflammation would be indicated in a differential showing an increase in:

a) neutrophils
b) macrophages
c) basophils
d) eosinophils

A

B) Macrophages

136
Q

The most important component found in interstitial tissue fluid is:

a) potassium
b) iron
c) calcium
d) sodium

A

C) Sodium

137
Q

Which animal would be in the most danger if regurgitation took place while under anesthesia?

a) equine
b) ovine
c) bovine
d) canine

A

A) Equine

138
Q

Which of the following should be applied after reconstruction surgery for coxofemoral luxation?

a) Robert-Jordan bandage
b) Ehmer-sling
c) Valpeau sling
d) Schroeder-Thomas splint

A

B) Ehmer sling

139
Q

The amount of 10% Formalin used when sending a tissue sample is _____ the sample size.

a) 4 times
b) 10 times
c) 20 times
d) 100 times

A

B) 10 times

140
Q

The largest diameter of suture material listed below is:

a) 0
b) 1.0
c) 2.0
d) 3.0

A

A) 0

141
Q

Which is the smallest gauge needle?

a) 25
b) 20
c) 18
d) 14

A

A) 25

142
Q

dog is showing signs of aggression as you walk into the examination room to assist the doctor. Petting the dog on the shoulders would be interpreted as:

a) a friendly gesture
b) a sign of attack
c) a sign of submission
d) none of the above

A

B) Sign of attack

143
Q

What condition in the horse causes lameness due to the degeneration of the frog with a secondary bacterial infection resulting from the horse standing for long periods of time in a wet environment without regular foot care?

a) laminitis
b) navicular disease
c) thrush
d) quittor

A

C) Thrush

144
Q

A cat that is “blocked” usually has a diet that is too high in:

a) taurine
b) sodium
c) potassium
d) magnesium

A

D) Magnesium

145
Q

The amino acid taurine must be present in the _____ diet?

a) canine
b) feline
c) equine
d) avian

A

B) Feline

146
Q

A drug that has good analgesic properties is:

a) atropine
b) ketamine
c) butorphanol
d) phenbarbital

A

C) Butorphanol

147
Q

Where do you find the scent glands in a male goat?

a) in the inguinal region
b) in the axillary region
c) around the horns, especially rostrally
d) around the anus

A

c) around the horns, especially rostrally

148
Q

Where do you find the cruciate ligaments?

a) under the scapula
b) in the patella
c) between the femur and the tibia
d) around the tarsus

A

c) between the femur and the tibia

149
Q

What class of drugs is used to synchronize estrus in cattle?

a) prostaglandins
b) estrogens
c) androgens
d) adrenocorticosteroids

A

a) prostaglandins

150
Q

What temperature should the developer be at in manual processing?

a) 68 degrees F for 5 minutes
b) 70 degrees F for 4 minutes
c) 72 degrees F for 5 minutes
d) 74 degrees F for 4 minutes

A

a) 68 degrees F for 5 minutes

151
Q

What is the intermediate host for Yersina pestis (bubonic plague)?

a) lice of cats
b) tapeworms of fox
c) hookworms of dogs
d) fleas of rodents

A

d) fleas of rodents

152
Q

What “refractile” elements might you see in urine?

a) hyaline casts
b) granular casts
c) red blood cells
d) white blood cells

A

a) hyaline casts

153
Q

How long can you keep Methohexital once it is open?

a) 2 weeks
b) 1 day
c) 1 month
d) indefinitely

A

C) 1 month

154
Q

How do you intubate a horse?

a) blindly
b) palpate the larynx
c) visualization
d) use a laryngoscope

A

a) blindly

155
Q

What anesthetic would you use on a full-grown Holstein for a field delivery?

a) general anesthesia-ketamine/valium
b) general anesthesia-xylazine
c) 2% lidocaine nerve block in para lumbar fossa
d) 2% lidocaine nerve block in the caudal epidural space

A

d) 2% lidocaine nerve block in the caudal epidural space

156
Q

When you have a horse in lateral recumbency, what do you do with the underneath leg?

a) pull it forward
b) pull it backward
c) fold it
d) tie it to the other front leg

A

a) pull it forward

157
Q

What should you tell an owner to expect if a dog is taking furosemide?

a) polyuria/polydipsia
b) polyphagia
c) hypocalcemia
d) anuria

A

a) polyuria/polydipsia

158
Q

Under what conditions might furosemide be prescribed?

a) cardiac disease
b) seizure disorder
c) arthritis
d) atelectasis

A

a) cardiac disease

159
Q

What is the appropriate peak airway pressure for assisted ventilation of a small animal?

a) 5-10 cm. H2O
b) 15-20 cm. H2O
c) 20-25 cm. H2O
d) 25-305 cm. H2O

A

b) 15-20 cm. H2O

160
Q

The veterinarian asks you to reverse an opioid. What do you give?

a) Naloxone
b) Yohimbine
c) Atropine
d) Diazepam

A

a) Naloxone

161
Q

Which drug must be recorded as a scheduled drug?

a) Xylazine
b) Phenobarbital
c) Isoflurane
d) Diprivan

A

b) Phenobarbital

Diprivan = propofol

162
Q

Which tranquilizer will make a dog vomit?

a) acepromazine
b) atropine
c) valium
d) apomorphine

A

d) apomorphine

163
Q

What species is affected by Oestrus ovis?

a) horse
b) cattle
c) sheep
d) pig

A

C) Sheep

164
Q

Which species gets “bumblefoot”?

a) horse
b) cow
c) sheep
d) avian

A

D) Avian

165
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of Rhabdomyelitis?

a) facial paresis
b) radical paresis
c) azoturia
d) myoglobinuria

A

d) myoglobinuria

166
Q

Why would you give an older animal water before surgery?

a) they may have cardiac problems
b) to avoid respiratory problems
c) to avoid liver problems
d) they may have chronic nephritis

A

d) they may have chronic nephritis

167
Q

Which is a list of absorbable sutures?

a) PDS, vicryl, chromic gut
b) nylon, chromic gut, dexon
c) silk, PDS, vicryl
d) nylon, silk, cotton

A

a) PDS, vicryl, chromic gut

168
Q

What do you call the metacarpal/metatarsal-phalangeal joint or a horse?

a) pastern
b) fetlock
c) hock
d) stifle

A

B) Fetlock

169
Q

Which is the safest inhalant to be administered by a pregnant tech?

a) methoxyflurane
b) halothane
c) isoflurane
d) nitrous

A

C) Isoflurane

170
Q
  1. Which breed is most likely to experience dystocia?

a) Boston terrier
b) Greyhound
c) Brittany spaniel
d) Golden retriever

A

a) Boston terrier

171
Q

Which breed is at anesthetic risk because of an over long soft palate?

a) Chihuahua
b) Greyhound
c) Bulldog
d) Bouvier des Flandres

A

C) Bulldog

172
Q

Which will interact with live tissue?

a) gamma particles
b) alpha rays
c) beta rays
d) X-rays

A

D) X ray

173
Q

What is most seriously affected by X-rays?

a) bone marrow
b) cortical bone
c) cancellous bone
d) periosteum

A

A) Bone marrow

174
Q

Which part of the DNA carries the genetic material?

a) sugars
b) phosphates
c) purine and pyrimidine bases
d) deoxyriboses

A

d) deoxyriboses

175
Q

What is the cause of eclampsia in the bitch?

a) increased calcium
b) decreased calcium
c) increased sodium
d) decreased sodium

A

b) decreased calcium

176
Q

What causes “milk fever” in the cow?

a) increased calcium
b) decreased calcium
c) increased sodium
d) decreased sodium

A

b) decreased calcium

177
Q

What organism would you be most likely to culture from an infected surgical wound?

a) S. aureus
b) S. epidermidis
c) S. faecalis
d) S. pyogenes

A

b) S. epidermidis

Normal flora

178
Q

In beta hemolysis, what color will the ”zone” be?

a) red
b) green
c) clear
d) yellow

A

C) Clear

179
Q

Which is MacConkey’s medium NOT used for?

a) primary growth of Gram-enterics
b) selective for E. coli
c) to isolate Salmonella
d) to distinguish aerobic from anaerobic bacteria

A

d) to distinguish aerobic from anaerobic bacteria

180
Q

If a dermatologic assay from a cat turns red with white fungus on it within four (4) days, what does this indicate?

a) the test is expired and must be redone
b) there is probably a dermatophytosis
c) it next needs to be incubated at 39˚C for 4 more days
d) the sample is probably contaminated

A

b) there is probably a dermatophytosis

181
Q

Which list includes the names of the three primary systemic mycoses?

a) Blastomycosis, Cryptococcus, Histoplasma
b) Trichophyton, Histoplasma, Isospora
c) Cryptosporidium, Coccidiosis, Microsporum
d) Sporotrichosis, Blastomycosis, Microsporum
e) none of the above

A

a) Blastomycosis, Cryptococcus, Histoplasma

182
Q

Which of the following will give you an MAS of 10?

a) mA50, KVP 28, 1/5 of a second
b) mA50, KVP 30, 1/10 of a second
c) mA100, KVP 1/40 of a second
d) mA75, KVP 40, 1/5 of a second

A

a) mA50, KVP 28, 1/5 of a second

183
Q

In the cat, FIA causes what?

a) hemolytic anemia
b) parasitic anemia
c) hemorrhagic anemia
d) viral anemia

A

a) hemolytic anemia

184
Q

An anemia from large, acute blood loss would look like what 1 week later:

a) macrocytic, polychromatic
b) macrocytic, hypochromic
c) macrocytic, hypochromic
d) macrocytic, hypochromic

A

a) macrocytic, polychromatic

185
Q

What structures are normally included in an IVP?

a) kidney, urinary bladder, ureters
b) urinary bladder, urethra, prostate
c) urethra, ureters, vagina
d) kidneys, urinary bladder, testes

A

a) kidney, urinary bladder, ureters

186
Q

What part of the machine is not used in a non-rebreathing system?

a) oxygen supply
b) CO2 canister
c) vaporizer
d) Ayer’s T-piece

A

b) CO2 canister

187
Q

What removes excess gas from the system?

a) one-way inhalation valve
b) Y-piece
c) pressure relief valve
d) pressure reducing valve

A

c) pressure relief valve

188
Q

What vaccination has recently been approved for cats?

a) Lyme’s
b) FIA
c) FIP
d) FeLV

A

D) FeLV

189
Q

When doing a declaw, the surgeon removes the nail and:

a) first phalanx (P1)
b) second phalanx (P2)
c) third phalanx (P3)
d) fourth phalanx (P4)

A

c) third phalanx (P3)

190
Q

Capillaria plica in a dog is a:

a) lungworm
b) bladderworm
c) bloodworm
d) hookworm

A

b) bladderworm

191
Q

Which animal is a common reservoir for rabies?

a) rat
b) squirrel
c) skunk
d) snake
e) bats

A

E) Bats

192
Q

How far down should an endotracheal tube go?

a) esophagus
b) to the middle of the larynx
c) no further than the thoracic inlet
d) to the bifurcation of trachea

A

c) no further than the thoracic inlet

193
Q

If the endotracheal tube goes into one lung, what happens under anesthesia?

a) increase respiration
b) increase the uptake of anesthesia
c) only one lung is ventilated
d) respiratory arrest

A

c) only one lung is ventilated

194
Q

If a synthesized antigen stimulates an animals own antibodies to be produced, what kind of immunity does it confer?

a) active
b) passive
c) maternal
d) colostral

A

A) active

195
Q

What do you have when you spin down anticoagulated blood and collect the supernatant?

a) serum
b) plasma
c) platelets
d) clotting factors

A

B) Plasma

Serum is coagulated

196
Q

What breaks up starch?

a) pepsin
b) renin
c) amylase
d) lipase

A

C) amylase

197
Q

25 micrograms is equivalent to how many milligrams?

a) 0.0025
b) 0.025
c) 0.25
d) 2.5

A

b) 0.025

198
Q

You wish to give an 80-gram bird some ketamine at a dose rate of 88mg/kg. If the concentration of ketamine is 100 mg/ml. how many ml’s will you give?

a) 0.07
b) 0.7
c) 7.0
d) 70.0

A

a) 0.07

1g = 0.001kg

199
Q

What method of mechanical ventilation would best fill a large area in the lungs?

a) high pressure and low volume
b) low pressure and high volume
c) high pressure and high volume
d) equal setting for pressure and volume

A

b) low pressure and high volume

200
Q

If you changed from regular film to rare earth, what would you change?

a) KVP
b) mAs
c) time
d) FFD

A

A) KvP

201
Q

Why do you put an animal in frog position for an X-ray?

a) OFA radiographs for hip dysplasia
b) oblique view of femoral crest
c) non-OFA radiographs of pelvis
d) navicular shot

A

c) non-OFA radiographs of pelvis

202
Q

When taking an X-ray of the radius ulna, what views do you do?

a) lateral and A/P
b) lateral and V/D
c) lateral, V/D and oblique
d) lateral and D/V

A

a) lateral and A/P

203
Q

What grows fungi?

a) blood agar
b) selenite broth
c) Sabaraud’s agar
d) Wright-Giemsa gel

A

c) Sabaraud’s agar

Blood agar = grows bacteria

Selenite broth = grows salmonella

204
Q

Strongyloides westeri in a horse is:

a) cecal worm
b) bloodworm
c) threadworm
d) whipworm

A

c) threadworm

205
Q

How do you detect occult blood in stool?

a) hematest
b) fecalizer
c) urinalysis
d) Elisa test

A

A) Hematest

Occult = hidden

206
Q

How do you determine how deep under a horse on _______ is?

a) arterial blood pressure
b) ocular pupil reflex
c) respiratory rate
d) heart rate

A

a) arterial blood pressure

207
Q

Which retractors remain open by themselves?

a) army-navy
b) Gelpi
c) Senn
d) Gemma

A

B) Gelpi

208
Q

What is the cause of white muscle disease in lambs?

a) Vitamin C/ Iron deficiency
b) Vitamin E/ Selenium deficiency
c) Vitamin K/ Iron deficiency
d) Vitamin K/ Selenium deficiency

A

b) Vitamin E/ Selenium deficiency

209
Q

What is the bony-like substance that underlies the enamel?

a) dentin
b) cementum
c) pulp
d) root

A

a) dentin

210
Q

What causes azoturia in a horse?

a) drinking water when they are hot
b) not responding to antibiotics
c) drinking too much water when exercising
d) decrease of AST

A

d) decrease of AST

211
Q

A 4 month old puppy comes in with a genetic defect. The owner wants to repair the defect and use the animal for breeding purposes. Ethically, what should be done?

a) always repair a genetic defect
b) never repair a genetic defect
c) repair whatever possible and hope the defeat may not be passed on
d) repair and try to convince owner to neuter

A

d) repair and try to convince owner to neuter

212
Q

Which is a hypertonic solution?

a) Lactated Ringers
b) 0.9% NaCl
c) 2 and ½ % dextrose in half strength saline
d) 50% dextrose

A

b) 0.9% NaCl

LRS = isotonic

Hypertonic = draws water out

213
Q

Interstitial tissues are bathed with fluid. Which is the most important component of this fluid?

a) sodium
b) potassium
c) calcium
d) iron

A

A) Sodium

214
Q

Mannitol salt agar is:

a) transport medium
b) simple medium
c) selective medium
d) specific medium

A

c) selective medium

215
Q

For what procedure would you empty out the colon?

a) gastrotomy
b) perianal hernia
c) cystotomy
d) umbilical hernia

A

b) perianal hernia

216
Q

A puppy come in with abdominal pain. He has an intussusception. What is that?

a) telescoping of intestine into itself
b) foreign body in jejunum
c) infection with roundworms
d) acute pancreatitis

A

a) telescoping of intestine into itself

217
Q

If you do an abdominal centesis on a horse and the fluid that comes out is brown and has ingested particles. What is wrong with this horse?

a) peritonitis
b) colic due to bowel rupture
c) aneurysm of the cranial mesenteric artery
d) infection with Strongylus vulgaris

A

b) colic due to bowel rupture

218
Q

MacConkey grows everything except:

a) E. coli
b) Enterobacters
c) anaerobic bacteria
d) aerobic bacteria

A

c) anaerobic bacteria

219
Q

What do you empty in a bird prior to surgery?

a) crop
b) air sac
c) cloaca
d) gizzard

A

d) gizzard

220
Q

Which conversion is the closet?

a) 30 ml – 1 ounce
b) 6 ml = 1 teaspoon
c) 30 ml = 1 tablespoon
d) 1 kg = 1 pound

A

a) 30 ml – 1 ounce

221
Q

What is a guttural pouch in a horse?

a) outpouching of the eustachian tube
b) part of the larynx
c) part of the esophagus
d) outpouching of the trachea

A

a) outpouching of the eustachian tube

222
Q

What substance is affected by iodine deficiency?

a) adrenalin
b) oxytocin
c) progesterone
d) thyroxin

A

d) thyroxin

223
Q

What is osmosis?

a) movement of water from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low solute concentration across a selectively permeable membrane
b) movement of water from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration across a selectively permeable membrane
c) movement of solute down its gradient
d) movement of solute and solvent across a selectively permeable membrane

A

b) movement of water from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration across a selectively permeable membrane

224
Q

What does atropine do?

a) decrease heart rate
b) increase respiratory rate
c) decrease respiratory rate
d) decrease salivation

A

d) decrease salivation

225
Q

What may happen when you give a horse excessive rich feed?

a) laminitis (foundering)
b) myositis
c) panosteitis
d) periodontal disease

A

a) laminitis (foundering)

226
Q
  1. What do you not clean the intensifying screens with?

a) diluted dial soap
b) alcohol
c) betadine
d) water

A

C) Betadine

227
Q

What is cause of Feline Infectious Anemia, FIA?

a) FeLV
b) FIP
c) FIV
d) Hemobartonella felis

A

d) Hemobartonella felis

228
Q

What is dental planning?

a) move the tooth
b) smoothing out the root
c) save the tooth
d) root canal

A

b) smoothing out the root

229
Q

What is the first thing you do to a first-degree burn?

a) pour peroxide on it
b) apply pressure bandage
c) apply gauze with Vaseline
d) clean it gently

A

c) apply gauze with Vaseline

230
Q

What class drug is Meperidine?

a) Schedule II
b) Schedule III
c) Schedule IV
d) Schedule I

A

a) Schedule II

231
Q

Which drug is a non-narcotic?

a) morphine
b) oxymorphone
c) meperidine
d) Xylazine

A

d) Xylazine

232
Q

When doing a vaginal smear, you find cornified epithelial cells and some red blood cells. What stage is the bitch in?

a) anestrus
b) estrus
c) proestrus
d) diestrus

A

C) Proestrus

233
Q

What does Atropine do to a horse?

a) decrease heart rate
b) decrease respiration rate
c) paralysis of ileum
d) hypermotility of ileum

A

c) paralysis of ileum

234
Q

What does rompum do to a dog?

a) decrease blood pressure
b) increase respiration
c) increase heart rate
d) increase blood pressure

A

a) decrease blood pressure

romum = xylazine

235
Q

What part of the brain controls breathing?

a) cerebral cortex
b) cerebellum
c) medulla oblongata
d) thalamus

A

c) medulla oblongata

236
Q

1g = ? mg

A

1mg = 0.001g

237
Q

Ileus means

A

bowel obstruction

238
Q

1 quart equals oz?

A

1 quart = 32 oz

239
Q

1 oz equals ? ml

A

1 oz = 29.57ml

240
Q

1 dram (dr) equals ? oz

A

i dr = 1/8 oz

241
Q

Enrofloxacin (baytril), Marbofloxacin (zeniquin), Orbifloxacin (orbax) belongs to what type of antibiotics?

A) Penicillin

B) Cephalosporins

C) Fluroquinolones

D) Animoglycosides

A

C) Fluroquinolones

242
Q

Which is not a factor influencing formation of exuberant granulation tissue?

A) Presence of infection

B) amount of missing tissue

C) depth of wound

D) Location of wound

A

C) Depth of wound

243
Q

Which is not true of an aural hematoma?

A) Must be drained

B) is repaired by trimming the pinna

C) is painful and bothersome

D) maybe drained and bandaged with ears folded back across top of head

A

B) repaired by trimming ear pinna

244
Q

Delayed hemolytic reaction is indicated by drop in PCV how many days postransfusion?

A) 2-20 days

B) immediately

C) 2-3 weeks

D) Years later

A

A) 2-20 days

245
Q

Radiographing distal extremity is ___ scale of contrast?

A) Long

B) Short

C) medium

D) Doesn’t matter

A

B) Short

246
Q

Soluble carbohydrate’

A) Lignin

B) Glucose

C) Cellulose

D) Pectin

A

B) Glucose

247
Q

Central venous pressure is high in which type of shock

A) Traumatic

B) Septic

C) Hypovolemic

D) Cardiogenic

A

D) Cardiogenic

248
Q

Which contrast study listed is for draining tract

A) Arthrography

B) Celiography

C) Fistulography

D) Myelography

A

C) Fistulography

249
Q

Ictotest is used to detect ___ in urine

A) Blood

B) Fat

C) Urobilinogen

D) Bilirubin

A

D) Bilirubin

250
Q

Jugular vein with normal distention time but protracted relaxation time indicates all except

A) Hypoolemia

B) Chronic right heart failure

C) Chronic liver disease

D) Acute heart failure

A

A) Hypovolemia

251
Q

Breed born with no tail

A) Old english sheepdog

B) Schipperke

C) Minature poodle

D) Minature schnauzer

A

B) Schipperke

252
Q

Noncuffed ET tube is used in

A) Newborn kittens

B) Calf

C) Lamb

D) newborn foal

A

A) Kittens

253
Q

Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin and amikacin) do not work well in deep puncture wounds or lumen of the colon because

A) they are anaerobic sites and bacteria needs oxygen to take up aminoglycosides

B) Sites often have gram positive bacterias and aminoglycosides are ineffective in gram postives

C) sites often have enzymes that inactives the drug

D) DNA of bacteria is resistentant

A

A) they are anaerobic sites and bacteria needs oxygen to take up aminoglycosides

254
Q

Cats should not be fed dog food because

A) Its unpalatable

B) Give them diarrhea

C) Fat content is too low

D) Amino acid content is too low

A

D) Aminoacide content is too low (Taurine)

255
Q

All crosses placental barrier in significant amounts except

A) Ace

B) Diazepam

C) Iso

D) Neuromusclar blocking agent

A

D) Neuromusclar blocking agent

256
Q

What causes vulval swelling in ferrets (Spayed)

A) Insulinoma

B) Hyperpituitarism

C) Hyperadrenocortism

D) Hyper thyroidism

A

C) Hyperadrenocorticism cuz it produces estrogen

257
Q

Villi are which lining structure

A) Esophagus

B) Large intestine

C) Small intestine

D) Stomach

A

C) Small intestine

258
Q

Tension pneumothorax occurs when

A) Pressure in the throacic cavity is less than atmospheric pressure

B) Pressure in the thoracic cavity is equal to atomspheric pressure

C) Pressure in the thoracic cavity is greater than atomspheric pressure

D) Pressure in the thoracic cavity is constant as animal breathes in and out

A

C) Pressure in the thoracic cavity is greater than atomspheric pressure

259
Q

What age does kitten fully able to control body temp?

A) 61 days

B) 45 days

C) 28 days

D) 12 Days

A

C) 28 days

260
Q

radiation monitoring film badge reports are submitted

A) Weekly

B) Monthly

C) Semiannual

D) Annual

A

B) Monthly

261
Q

Suppression of flow of saliva is

A) Sialoschesis

B) Sialogen

C) Sialoadenitis

D) Sialocele

A

A) Sialoschesis

262
Q

Which causes false positive results on feline leukemia test in test wells?

A) Reagent added in wrong order

B) Low sensitivity of the test

C) Overwashing

D) Underwashing

A

D) Underwashing

263
Q

Hyperesthesic is

A) Abnormal sensitivity to stimuli

B) Abnormal unresponsive to stimuli

C) Abnormal sensitive to anesthesia

D) Abnormal unresponsive to anesthesia

A

A) Abnormal sensitivity to stimuli

264
Q

which is proper dental term for tooth surface

A) Mesial - farthest from the midline

B) Mesial - nearest the front

C) Distal - nearest the midline

D) Distal - Farthest from the midline

A

D) Distal - Farthest from the midline

265
Q

Ace causes

A) Respiratory depression

B) Tachycardia

C) Hypotension

D) Reduces salvation

A

C) Hypotension

Causes vasodilation

266
Q

% means

A

g/100 ml

267
Q

Lidocaine is used to control

A) Atrial bradyarrthythmias

B) Ventricular tachyarrhythmias

C) Hypertension

D) Excessive urine output

A

B) ventricular tachyarrthymias

268
Q

What can you do to detect early signs of nephrotoxicity from aminglycosides?

A) Monitor BUN

B) Monitor CBC and TP

C) Monitor feces for change

D) Monitor urine for casts and protein

A

D) Monitor unrine for casts and protein

269
Q

Which enrofloxcin is safest for?

A) Rabbit

B) Puppy

C) Horse

D) Cat

A

A) Rabbit

Doesn’t kill normal gut flora

270
Q

Which is prone to trichobezoar fomation?

A) Rabbits

B) Crcetulus griseus

C) Gallus domesticus

D) Cavia porcellus

(Hairball formation)

A

A) Rabbits

271
Q

Postprandial lipemia is caused by

A) Proteins

B) Chylomicrons

C) Carbs

D) Fatty acid

A

B) Chylomicrons

272
Q

Hormone that regulates sodium resorption in nephron is

A) ADH
B) Estrogen

C) Progesterone

D) Aldosterone

A

D) Aldosterone

273
Q

which is master gland

A) Thyroid

B) Adrenal

C) Pituitary

D) Thymus

A

C) Pituitary

274
Q
A