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J - PSYCO 239 > psych_239_20150123003517 (1/2) > Flashcards

psych_239_20150123003517 (1/2) Flashcards

1
Q

Abnormal Psychology

A

The branch of the science of psychology that addresses the description, causes, and treatment of abnormal behaviour patterns.

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2
Q

One of the questions that we need to ask in abnormal psychology is “Is the behaviour unusual?”. However, ___ can dictate what is usual/unusual.

A

Culture.

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3
Q

In abnormal psychology, we must ask if the behaviour ___ social norms.

A

Violates.

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4
Q

In abnormal psychology, we must ask if the behaviour involves a ___ sense of reality.

A

Faulty.

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5
Q

In abnormal psychology, we must ask if the behaviour causes ___ ___.

A

Personal distress.

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6
Q

In abnormal psychology, we must ask if the behaviour is maladaptive. What does maladaptive mean?

A

Cause interruption to your daily life.

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7
Q

In abnormal psychology, we must ask if the behaviour is dangerous. In what two ways can behaviour be dangerous?

A

Dangerous to self (suicidal) or others (homocidal).

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8
Q

What are the 4 descriptors of abnormality?

A

Deviant, different, disordered, and bizarre.

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9
Q

In terms of abnormal psychology, what is deviant?

A

Different from socially accepted. Violating social norms.

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10
Q

In terms of abnormal psychology, what is different?

A

Statistically different from what others do.

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11
Q

In terms of abnormal psychology, what is disordered?

A

Lacks integration, no unity in self.

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12
Q

In terms of abnormal psychology, what is bizarre?

A

Cannot focus, cannot survive in life.

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13
Q

What are the three main factors that affect our perceptions of what is abnormal?

A
  1. Culture (Aboriginal, Oriental). 2. Context (Sporting event). 3. Age.
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14
Q

Name the descriptors of abnormality in the order of least to most severe.

A

Deviant, different, disordered, then bizarre.

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15
Q

Why should we study abnormal psychology?

A

Everyone is affected by abnormal psychology in one way or another.

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16
Q

Psychological disorders

A

Abnormal behaviour patterns that involve a disturbance of psychological functioning or behaviour.

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17
Q

Comorbidity

A

Two or more disorders occurring at once.

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18
Q

What is the most common psychological disorder?

A

Anxiety.

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19
Q

What is the chance of being afflicted by any psychological disorder?

A

46%.

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20
Q

What are reasons that people do not get treatment?

A

Stigma and finances.

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21
Q

What are some risk factors for developing a psychological disorder?

A

Age, education, childhood trauma, current stress, life events, lack of social supports, gender, and physical health.

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22
Q

What method did the demonological model use to allow evil forces to leave the body?

A

Trephening.

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23
Q

What is trephening?

A

Cracking a head opening to let out evil forces.

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24
Q

Where did the Medical Model originate?

A

Hippocrates and the ‘ill humours’.

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25
Q

What did the medical model propose about abnormal behaviour?

A

That it was the result of underlying biological processes.

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26
Q

What was a technique used in the medieval times to expel demons in response to abnormal behaviour?

A

Exorcism.

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27
Q

What took place during an exorcism?

A

Beating, flogging, sprinkling of holy water, holding of cross.

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28
Q

What is the name of the book used to identify ‘witches’?

A

Malleus Maleficarum.

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29
Q

Where is there a famous asylum? (hint: UK)

A

Bedlam, London.

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30
Q

The Reform Movement was a movement towards ___ ___.

A

Moral therapy.

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31
Q

Who were the major proponents of the Reform Movement?

A

Philippe Pinel, William Tuke, and Dorothea Dix.

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32
Q

Who brought about the Reform Movement to Canada and the United States?

A

Dorothea Dix.

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33
Q

When treatment took a step backwards in Canada, mental institutions moved to ___ ___.

A

Custodial care.

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34
Q

The Community Mental Health Movement in Canada resulted in…

A

Deinstitutionalization, pharmacology and phenothiazines, and the Canadian Mental Health Association in 1963.

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35
Q

What are the three models for abnormal psychology used today?

A

Medical, psychological, and sociocultural.

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36
Q

Emil Kraepelm and dementia praecox are part of the ___ model.

A

Medical.

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37
Q

Charcot and hypnosis/hysteria and Freud and the psychodynamic model/catharsis are part of the ___ model.

A

Psychological.

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38
Q

Thomas Szasz and the Myth of Mental Illness/Failure of Society are part of the ___ model.

A

Sociocultural.

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39
Q

The biological perspective on abnormal behaviour maintains that one can adopt a biologically oriented perspective without using the terminology from the ___ model.

A

Medical.

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40
Q

What is acetylcholine used to treat?

A

Dementia.

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41
Q

What is dopamine used to treat?

A

Schizophrenia.

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42
Q

What is serotonin used to treat?

A

Anxiety and mood.

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43
Q

What are the three components of Freud’s psychodynamic model?

A

Id, Ego, and Superego.

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44
Q

The Id encompasses the ___ principle and ___ process thinking.

A

Pleasure, primary.

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45
Q

The Ego encompasses the ___ principle and ___ process thinking.

A

Reality, secondary.

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46
Q

The Superego encompasses ___ principle.

A

Moral.

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47
Q

What are the five stages of psychosexual development?

A

Oral, Anal, Phallic, Latency, Genital.

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48
Q

What is the Oedipus or Electra complex?

A

Kill your father/mother and marry your mother/father.

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49
Q

You start exploring your body during the ___ stage.

A

Latency.

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50
Q

What are the 8 defence mechanisms?

A

Repression, regression, displacement, denial, reaction formation, rationalization, projection, and sublimation.

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51
Q

Based on Pavlov’s conditioning apparatus, ___ is human nature and ___ is how we train ourselves.

A

Unconditioned, conditioned.

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52
Q

Operant conditioning is based on a system of ___ and ___.

A

Reinforcement and reward.

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53
Q

Operant conditioning can be conducted in 4 ways: what are they?

A

Positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, positive punishment, and negative punishment.

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54
Q

Who conducted research into the social cognitive theory?

A

Albert Bandura.

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55
Q

Albert Bandura’s ___ experiment came to the conclusion that we learn through…

A

Bobo doll, watching others.

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56
Q

Carl Rogers is known for his work in the ___ model.

A

Humanistic/existential.

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57
Q

The humanistic/existential model uses the idea of ___ ___.

A

Self-actualization.

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58
Q

According to Rodgers, what are the three conditions required for change?

A
  1. Unconditional positive regard. 2. Empathy. 3. Genuine/congruence.
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59
Q

Abraham Maslow came up with…

A

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs.

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60
Q

What is the general idea of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

A

One must satisfy basic needs before moving onto other needs.

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61
Q

Albert Ellis pioneered the ___ approach.

A

ABC.

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62
Q

Albert Ellis and the ABC approach are part of the ___ ___ ___.

A

Information Processing Approaches.

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63
Q

What are Beck’s four cognitive errors?

A
  1. Selective abstraction. 2. Overgeneralization. 3. Magnification. 4. Absolutist thinking
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64
Q

Donald Meichenbaum came up with…

A

Cognitive behavioural modification, which is a way to change behaviours, thoughts, and emotions.

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65
Q

What is selective abstraction?

A

Focusing exclusively on experiences that reflect their flaws, and ignoring evidence of their competencies.

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66
Q

Give an example of a “should” statement.

A

I should be doing better.

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67
Q

What is overgeneralization?

A

Over generalizing a few isolated experiences. E.g., thinking they will never marry because they were rejected by a partner.

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68
Q

What is magnification?

A

People blowing importance of unfortunate events out of proportion.

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69
Q

What is absolutist thinking?

A

Seeing the world in black and white terms rather than in shades of grey.

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70
Q

Assessment may be reliable and valid in one culture but…

A

Not another.

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71
Q

Interviewers may not be sensitive to the problems that arise when a client is not addressed…

A

In their mother tongue.

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72
Q

What are the three types of reliability?

A
  1. Internal consistency. 2. Temporal stability. 3. Inter-rater reliability.
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73
Q

What are the three types of validity?

A
  1. Content validity. 2. Criterion validity. 3. Construct validity.
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74
Q

What is internal consistency? Give an example.

A

Say that you like sweet things. By internal consistency, if you like candy, then you must like donuts as well.

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75
Q

What is temporal stability?

A

The interviewee is consistent over time.

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76
Q

What is inter-rater reliability?

A

The results of the interview are the same no matter who conducts it.

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77
Q

What is predictive validity?

A

Based on the ability of the diagnostic system to predict the course of the disorder is likely to follow or its response to treatment.

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78
Q

What are the three interview formats?

A
  1. Structured. 2. Semi-structured. 3. Unstructured.
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79
Q

What is the difference between a structured and unstructured interview?

A

Structured interviews occur when there is a set of questions that the interviewer asks, while unstructured interviews occur when the interviewer does not lead the conversation.

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80
Q

Is the following a closed ended or open ended question: Have you attempted suicide?

A

Closed ended.

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81
Q

Is the following a closed ended of open ended question? What makes you happy?

A

Open ended.

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82
Q

What are the 5 P’s of Method of Assessment?

A

Presenting issues, precipitating factors, perpetuating factors, predisposing factors, and protective factors.

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83
Q

What are presenting issues?

A

What cause the problems.

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84
Q

What are precipitating factors?

A

What triggers the problem.

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85
Q

What are perpetuating factors?

A

What keeps the problem going?

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86
Q

What are predisposing factors?

A

What led to the problems starting?

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87
Q

What are protective factors?

A

What are the person’s strengths?

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88
Q

What is IQ a ratio of?

A

Mental age and chronological age.

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89
Q

The IQ test was designed by and used for ___ countries.

A

Western.

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90
Q

/what is an example of a self report test?

A

The MMPI.

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91
Q

What does MMPI stand for?

A

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory.

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92
Q

What are some things that the MMPI measures?

A

Openness, patterns of behaviour, and introvertedness.

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93
Q

What are two examples of projective tests?

A

Rorschach Inkblot Test and Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).

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94
Q

What is the difference between a Rorschach Inkblot Test and a TAT?

A

The Rorschach Inkblot Test gives a set of ambiguous stimuli in order to get the client to project, and does not give a scenario. The TAT gives a scenario upon the client must then project.

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95
Q

Neuropsychological Assessment is used to evaluate…

A

Whether or not psychological problems reflect underlying neurological damage or brain defects.

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96
Q

What are two examples of Neuropsychological assesssment tests?

A

The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery and the Lurra Nebraska Test.

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97
Q

Behavioural Assessment focuses on the objective ___ and/or ___ of behaviour.

A

Recording, description.

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98
Q

Cognitive Assessment involvess the assessment of ___, which includes…

A

Cognitions. Thoughts, beliefs, and attitudes.

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99
Q

What are three methods of Cognitive Assessment?

A

Thought diaries, cognition checklist, and dysfunctional attitudes scale.

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100
Q

What does GSR stand for and what is it used for?

A

Galvanic Skin Response. Measures amount of sweat.

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101
Q

What does EEG stand for and what does it measure?

A

ElectroEncephloGraph. Measures electrical activity in brain.

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102
Q

What does EMG stand for, and what does it measure.

A

ElectroMyoGraph, measures how tense muscles are.

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103
Q

What does CT scans stand for, what does it record, and is the recording more like a picture or a video?

A

Computerized Tomography. Records the shape of the brain as a picture.

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104
Q

What does PET scans stand for, what does it record, and does it record it as a picture or a video?

A

Positron Emission Tomography records the brain over time as a video.

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105
Q

What do you call it when a scan records the brain as a video more than a picture?

A

Functional.

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106
Q

What does MRI stand for, and does it record as a picture or a video?

A

Magnetic Resonance Imaging, as a picture.

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107
Q

What does fMRI stand for, and does it record as a picture or a video?

A

Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging records as a video.

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108
Q

What does BEAM stand for?

A

Brain Electrical Activity Mapping.

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109
Q

What is the most modern version of the DSM?

A

V

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110
Q

What does DSM stand for?

A

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual

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111
Q

DSM V emerges from the work of ___ in the ___ century.

A

Kraeplin, 19th.

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112
Q

List the 4 important reasons for classification and explain them if necessary.

A
  1. Communication. 2. Treatment decisions. 3. Predict behaviour. 4. Identify populations.
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113
Q

Why is classification important as far as communication goes?

A

Researchers would not be able to communicate with one another without labelling and organizing patterns of abnormal behaviour.

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114
Q

Why is classification important as far as identifying populations go?

A

Can help identify common factors that explain origins of behaviour.

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115
Q

___ is classified, not people.

A

Disorder.

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116
Q

What is reliability?

A

Consistently correct over time, place, etc.

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117
Q

What is validity?

A

Based on research.

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118
Q

What is predictive validity?

A

Based on diagnosis, how patient will evolve.

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119
Q

What are four factors considered when evaluating the DSM system?

A

Reliability, validity, predictive validity, and cultural factors.

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120
Q

With DSM V, the classification of mental illnesses became more ___, rather than ___.

A

Dimensional, categorical.

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121
Q

DSM V diagnostic criteria are organized in order of the…

A

Similarity of diagnosis.

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122
Q

What are the 5 factors of the DSM V Dimensional Approach?

A
  1. Course. 2. Severity. 3. Frequency. 4. Duration. 5. Descriptive features.
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123
Q

Free Association is a ___ Therapy.

A

Psychodynamic.

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124
Q

Free Association

A

Sit behind the client and say nothing at all.

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125
Q

Transference

A

Client projecting emotion onto therapist. Can also work backwards.

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126
Q

What are four methods of Behaviour Therapy explored in class?

A
  1. Systematic desensitization. 2. Gradual exposure. 3. Token economics. 4. Modelling.
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127
Q

Both systematic desensitization and gradual exposure attempt to deal with fear or anxiety by exposing a client to the fear/anxiety. What is the difference between them?

A

Systematic desensitization involves thinking about the fear/anxiety, while gradual exposure involves doing what causes the fear/anxiety.

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128
Q

What is token economics?

A

Giving tokens out for positive behaviour. The tokens can later be traded in for a reward.

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129
Q

What is modelling?

A

Demonstrate how to do things.

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130
Q

In the case of Gloria, there were three clinical psychologists: Albert Ellis, Carl Rodgers, and Fitz Pearl. Which perspectives do these three clinical psychologists hold?

A

Albert Ellis holds a behaviouralist perspective. Carl Rodgers holds a humanistic perspective. Fitz Pearl holds an emotional perspective.

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131
Q

What are key features of the Behavioural perspective?

A

Most directed, and the psychologist acts like the expert. Homework is often prescribed, and psychologist talks a lot. There is an uneven dynamic.

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132
Q

What are key features of the Humanistic perspective?

A

The psychologist talks the least, and often repeats what the client says. There is a lot of paraphrasing and reflecting back, and relationships are key to this perspective.

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133
Q

Relationships are of utmost importance in which perspective?

A

Humanistic.

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134
Q

What are key features of the Emotional perspective?

A

There is an attempt to access untapped emotion from the client, and looks at ways to heighten the client’s emotion.

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135
Q

A technique often used is talking to an empty chair. Which perspective is most likely going to use this technique?

A

Emotional.

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136
Q

What does the Interactionist perspective hold?

A

No one theoretical perspective can account for the complex forms of abnormal behaviour.

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137
Q

What are the four factors that Interactionists believe need to be taken into account?

A

Biological, psychological, sociocultural, and environmental domains.

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138
Q

The Interactionist perspective believes that there is an ___ between the four factors that explain abnormal behaviour.

A

Interaction.

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139
Q

Diathesis Stress Model

A

A theory that states that certain people are predisposed to certain psychological disorders that remain unexpressed until activated by stress.

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140
Q

Biopsychosocial (Systems) Model

A

A conceptual model that emphasizes that human behaviour is linked to complex interactions among biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors.

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141
Q

Epigenome

A

The idea that behaviour is linked to the epigenome; the sum total of inherited and acquired molecular variations to the genome that lead to changes in gene regulation without changing the DNA sequence of the genome itself.

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142
Q

Biopsychosocial Model contains three components: How are they separated into two groups, and what are the three components?

A

The two groups are internal and external. The internal components are biological and psychological, while the external components is sociocultural/environmental.

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143
Q

Psychotherapy is effective/ineffective.

A

Effective.

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144
Q

For psychotherapy, is short term treatment or long term treatment better?

A

Long term.

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145
Q

One mode of psychotherapy is clearly superior in all disorders. True or false?

A

False.

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146
Q

Which is better? Medications alone, psychotherapy alone, or both combined?

A

Combined is consistently better.

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147
Q

Which often leads to longer term curative effects? Medication or psychotherapy.

A

Psychotherapy.

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148
Q

The effective use of psychotherapy can reduce the costs of ___ ___.

A

Physical disorders.

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149
Q

Which is most effective? Psychologists, psychiatrists, or social workers?

A

There is no evidence suggesting that treatment effectiveness is higher for one than another.

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150
Q

Which is more effective? Psychologists/psychiatrists/social workers or counsellors/long term doctoring?

A

Psychologists/psychiatrists/social workers.

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151
Q

Client A has limits on the number of sessions limited as a result of insurance restrictions. Client B has no such limits. Who responded better to therapy?

A

Client B.

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152
Q

Approximately _% of persons who seek treatment get worse.

A

5.

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153
Q

What does IQ stand for?

A

Intelligence Quotient.

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154
Q

What is Intelligence Quotient a ratio of? Give the formula.

A

Mental age and chronological age. (MA/CA)*100=IQ

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155
Q

What is an example of a self-report test?

A

The MMPI.

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156
Q

What does MMPI stand for?

A

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory.

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157
Q

What are two examples of projective tests?

A

Rorschach Inkblot Test and Thematic Apperception Test.

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158
Q

Behavioural Assessment focuses on..

A

The objective recording and/or description of behaviour.

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159
Q

Cognitive Assessment involves the assessment of ___, which includes ___, ___, and ___.

A

Cognition. Thoughts, beliefs, and attitudes.

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160
Q

What are three methods used for cognitive assessment?

A

Thought diaries, cognition checklists, and dysfunctional attitudes scale.

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161
Q

Thought diaries

A

???

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162
Q

Cognition checklists

A

???

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163
Q

Dysfunctional attitudes scale.

A

???

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164
Q

DSM V diagnostic criteria are organized in order of…

A

The similarity of diagnosis.

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165
Q

What is the difference between a clinical psychologist, a psychiatrist, and a social worker?

A

A clinical psychologist can be research based, and usually conducts tests in addition to counselling. Psychiatrists can prescribe medicine, and social workers purely deal with counselling.

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166
Q

Who are the three figures associated with Cognitive Behavioural Therapies?

A

Ellis, Beck, and Miechenbaum.

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167
Q

What was Ellis’ Cognitive Behaviour Therapy called?

A

Rational-Emotive Behaviour Therapy.

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168
Q

What is the Rational-Emotive Behaviour Therapy?

A

???

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169
Q

What is Ellis’ ABC Therapy?

A

???

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170
Q

What is Beck’s Cognitive Therapy?

A

???

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171
Q

What is Miechenbaum’s Cognitive-Behavioural Therapy?

A

???

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172
Q

What is Miechenbaum’s CBT Triangle?

A

???

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173
Q

What is Eclectic Therapy?

A

Using a little bit of everything. Variety of techniques.

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174
Q

What is the ideal number of individuals for group therapy?

A

8.

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175
Q

What are some concerns associated with Computer-Assisted Therapy?

A

Ethical concerns. Is the person responding on the other end a real therapist?

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176
Q

What are common factors for treatment?

A

Things you need for treatment to be successful, regardless of which model you follow.

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177
Q

What are model-specific factors for treatment?

A

Things you need for a specific model to be successful in treatment.

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178
Q

What are therapist-specific factors for treatment?

A

What is unique about the therapist, and how can this make treatment successful?

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179
Q

Is Civil Commitment (Psychiatric Commitment) voluntary or non-voluntary?

A

Non-voluntary.

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180
Q

What are the three cases that fall under Civil Commitment?

A
  1. Harm to self. 2. Potential harm to others. 3. Severe psychiatric condition.
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181
Q

What are the three cases that fall under Legal (Criminal) Commitment?

A
  1. Clear evidence. 2. Imminent risk. 3. Limited time.
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182
Q

The time that you spend in Legal Commitment cannot be longer than…

A

The time that you would spend in jail.

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183
Q

What is Mental Illness and Social Deviance by Thomas Szasz.

A

No one should be deprived of liberty unless he is found guilty of a criminal offence. You should be able to refuse psychiatric treatment.

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184
Q

The Psychopathy Checklist is used in predicting ___.

A

Dangerousness.

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185
Q

There is an ___ of dangerousness due to inaccurate predictions in general.

A

Overprediction.

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186
Q

What is the Post Hoc Problem?

A

It is often difficult to tell if people are dangerous or not before they act dangerously: realizing people are dangerous after the fact.

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187
Q

What are the 3 patient’s rights discussed in class?

A
  1. Duty to warn. 2. Right to treatment. 3. Right to refuse treatment (if in right mind).
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188
Q

What is the duty to warn?

A

If someone is in harm’s way, they must be warned.

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189
Q

The legal basis for the insanity defense discussed in class comes from the ___ v. ___ court case in 1991.

A

R. v. Swan.

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190
Q

What are the 3 possible outcomes to the insanity defense?

A
  1. Absolute discharge. 2. Conditional discharge. 3. Detention in hospital.
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191
Q

In order for a person to be tried, they must demonstrate ___ to stand trial.

A

Competency.

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192
Q

What is Perspectives of the Insanity Defense by Thomas Szasz?

A

Testimony about the mental competence of an accused person should not be admissible.

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193
Q

Anxiety is ___ when it prompts us to seek medical attention, to study for an upcoming exam, or to avoid a dangerous situation.

A

Adaptive.

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194
Q

Anxiety is ___ when it is out of proportion, out of the blue, or not in response to environmental changes.

A

Maladaptive.

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195
Q

Approximately __% of people will experience an anxiety disorder.

A

20.

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196
Q

What are some physical features of anxiety disorders?

A

Physical jumpiness, jitters, increased perspiration and heart rate, shortness of breath, dizziness, and nausea.

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197
Q

What are some behavioural features of anxiety disorders?

A

The need to escape, agitation, clinginess, need for reassurance.

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198
Q

What are some cognitive features of anxiety disorders?

A

Excessive and prolonged worrying, jumbled or nagging thoughts, overly aware of bodily sensations.

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199
Q

Panic disorders reach a peak within ___ minutes and last for __ minutes or less.

A

10, 20.

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200
Q

Panic attacks can bring on symptoms such as…

A

A pounding heart, rapid respiration, shortness of breath, heavy perspiration, dizziness, weakness, feeling of terror/doom, and urge to escape.

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201
Q

Women/men are 2-3 times more likely than women/men to get panic attacks.

A

Women are more likely than men.

202
Q

What are some techniques for coping with anxiety?

A

Purposeful, breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, autogenic phrases.

203
Q

What does GAD stand for?

A

Generalized Anxiety Disorder.

204
Q

What is GAD?

A

A type of anxiety disorder characterized by general feelings of dread, foreboding, and heightened states of sympathetic arousal.

205
Q

Free floating anxiety is associated with ___.

A

GAD.

206
Q

GAD is often comorbid with ___ and ___.

A

Depression, OCD.

207
Q

GAD arises in the mid __’s, and continues…

A

20’s, throughout life.

208
Q

GAD is 2 times more likely in ___ than ___.

A

Women, men.

209
Q

What is a specific phobia?

A

A person experiences a high level of fear and physiological arousal when encountering the phobic object and has a strong urge to escape.

210
Q

Social phobia.

A

An excessive fear of negative evaluation from others.

211
Q

Social phobia may lead to ___ behaviour.

A

Avoidant.

212
Q

What are the 5 diagnostic types:

A
  1. Animal (spiders). 2. Natural environment (tornadoes). 3. Blood/injection/injury (needles). 4. Situational (claustrophobic). 5. Other (choking, contracting an illness).
213
Q

Free Association

A

A psychoanalytic technique in which a patient verbalizes the passing contents of his or her mind without reservation.

214
Q

PTSD can be brought on by exposure to actual or ___ death, serious injury, or sexual violence.

A

Threatened.

215
Q

Direct experience with ___ events can lead to PTSD.

A

Traumatic.

216
Q

___ in person the events as it occurred to others.

A

Witnessing.

217
Q

Learning of traumatic events occurred to a close family member or close friend can/can’t cause PTSD.

A

Can.

218
Q

Experiencing repeated or extreme exposure to aversive details of the ___ events can lead to PTSD, but does not apply to media that you ___ ___.

A

Traumatic, seek out.

219
Q

Recurrent, involuntary, and intense distressing ___ or ___ with the associated event can cause PTSD.

A

Memories, dreams.

220
Q

___ reactions (also known as ___) in which the individual feels or acts as if the traumatic events were occurring can cause PTSD.

A

Dissociative (flashbacks).

221
Q

Intense or prolonged psychological or physiological distress at exposure to internal or external cues that ___ aspects of the traumatic events can cause PTSD.

A

Symbolize.

222
Q

__ memories or external reminders about the traumatic events can lead to PTSD.

A

Avoiding.

223
Q

Acute stress disorder always leads to PTSD. True or false?

A

False.

224
Q

PTSD cannot be diagnosed until _ weeks.

A

4.

225
Q

Inability to ___ an important aspect of the traumatic event can signal PTSD.

A

Remember.

226
Q

Persistent and exaggerated ___ beliefs and expectations about oneself can signal PTSD.

A

Negative.

227
Q

Persistent negative emotional state, decreased participation in activities, detachment from others, and inability to experience happiness can all indicate…

A

PTSD.

228
Q

Irritable behaviour and angry outbursts, reckless or self-destructive behaviour, hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response, problems with concentration, and sleep disturbance are all marked alterations in arousal and reactivity associated with the traumatic events. True or false?

A

True.

229
Q

Dissociative symptoms

A

The individual experiences persistent or recurrent symptoms of depersonalization or de-realization.

230
Q

Depersonalization

A

Persistent or recurrent experiences of feeling detached from, as if one were an outside observer of one’s mental processes or body.

231
Q

Derealization

A

Persistent or recurrent experiences of unreality of surroundings.

232
Q

Delayed expression

A

If the full diagnostic criteria are not met until at least 6 months after the event.

233
Q

What are some techniques used for diagnosing PTSD?

A

Structured interview, trauma symptom inventory, personality assessment inventory, Beck anxiety inventory, and PTSD check-listing (PCL-S).

234
Q

The back of the brain is responsible for…

A

Detecting threat and responding, fight/flight/freeze response.

235
Q

The limbic system is the ___ of the brain, and is responsible for…

A

Middle, emotions and memories which can trigger the back of the brain if threatened.

236
Q

The frontal system is responsible for…

A

Concentration, decision making. Has little to do with traumatic events, and most therapy focuses here.

237
Q

What are three types of treatment used for PTSD?

A
  1. Prolonged exposure. 2. Cognitive Processing Therapy. 3. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing.
238
Q

For prolonged exposure, imaginal exposure and in vivo exposure are used. What is the difference?

A

Imaginal exposure is repeated retelling, while in vivo exposure is actual exposure to the feared stimulus.

239
Q

Cognitive Processing Therapy works by ___ thoughts.

A

Correcting.

240
Q

Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing works by reprocessing ___ thoughts to ___ thoughts.

A

Distressing, pleasant.

241
Q

Is OCD classified under anxiety in the DSM-V?

A

No.

242
Q

What is an obsession?

A

An intrusive, unwanted, and recurrent thought, image, or urge that seems beyond a person’s ability to control.

243
Q

What is a compulsion?

A

A repetitive behaviour or mental act that a person feels compelled or driven to perform.

244
Q

What is the prevalence of OCD, and which gender is it more likely to occur in?

A

2-3%, equally common in women and men.

245
Q

What are adjustment disorders?

A

Maladaptive reaction to identified stressor(s) that occur shortly following exposure to the stressor(s) and result in impaired functioning or signs of emotional distress that exceed what would normally be expected in the situation.

246
Q

How can an adjustment disorder reaction be resolved?

A

If the stressor is removed, or if the individual learns to adopt to it successfully.

247
Q

According to the psychodynamic perspective, anxiety is a danger signal that ___ impulses of a sexual or aggressive nature are nearing awareness.

A

Threatening.

248
Q

How does projection work within the psychodynamic perspective?

A

Projecting a person’s own threatening impulses onto a phobic object.

249
Q

How does displacement work within the psychodynamic perspective?

A

Moving unconscious fears to another object.

250
Q

The learning perspective on anxety contains the ___ factor model by O. Hobart Mourer.

A

Two.

251
Q

What are the two factors of the two factor model by O. Hobart Mourer?

A

Classical and operant conditioning.

252
Q

In the two factor model by O. Hobart Mourer, how do the two factors work together to perpetuate anxiety?

A

Classical conditioning is if you got attacked by a dog, and operant conditioning is avoiding dogs. Classical is the trigger, operant is the avoidance.

253
Q

What is prepared conditioning within the two factor model by O. Hobart Mourer?

A

Belief that people are genetically prepared to acquire fear responses to certain classes of stimuli.

254
Q

Based on the ___ perspective, anxiety can arise from self-defeating or irrational beliefs.

A

Cognitive.

255
Q

Women are more likely to have unwanted ___ related thoughts, while men are more likely to have unwanted ___ thoughts.

A

Harm, sexual.

256
Q

Based on the ___ perspective, genetic factors, neuroticism, the neurotransmitter GABA, and biological aspects can lead to anxiety disorders.

A

Biological.

257
Q

In the psychodynamic approach to treating anxiety, the client much reach a(n) ___ of inner sources of conflict.

A

Awareness.

258
Q

The humanistic approach to treating anxiety assumes that the anxiety is a result from social repression of…

A

Our own genuine self.

259
Q

What is used (biologically) to treat anxiety?

A

Benzodiazepines.

260
Q

Give examples of two techniques used by the cognitive approach in treating anxiety, and explain them.

A

Thought stopping (stopping thought), and cognitive restructuring (reframing thought).

261
Q

What is the most common treatment method for anxiety?

A

Cognitive behavioural therapy.

262
Q

Behavioural treatment of social phobia uses…

A

Exposure/role plays.

263
Q

Behavioural treatment of agoraphobia uses…

A

Gradual exposure.

264
Q

Behavioural treatment of OCD uses…

A

Exposure with response prevention (not being able to wash hands after touching washroom door).

265
Q

Give an example of a technique used in the cognitive behavioural therapy for generalized anxiety.

A

Relaxation.

266
Q

___ perpetuates anxiety.

A

Avoidance.

267
Q

Cognitive behavioural treatment for panic disorder uses…

A

Relaxation, thought stopping, exposure.

268
Q

The use of technology such as ___ ___ is also possible in treating anxiety disorders.

A

Virtual reality.

269
Q

What are some treatment options for anxiety?

A

-Muscle relaxation. -Breathing. -Visualization. -Meditation and yoga. -Mindfulness and acceptance. -Exercise and nutrition. -Autogenic phrases. -Distress tolerance.

270
Q

What is a mood disorder?

A

A type of disorder characterized by disturbances in mood.

271
Q

What are some types of mood disorders?

A

-Mood disorders. -Mood episodes. -Depressive disorders. -Bipolar disorders.

272
Q

What are mood episodes?

A

Short disturbances in mood.

273
Q

What does MDD stand for?

A

Major Depressive Disorder.

274
Q

What is Major Depressive Disorder?

A

Severe mood disorder characterized by the occurrence of major depressive episodes in the absence of a history of manic episodes.

275
Q

Symptoms of MDD include ___ mood or lack of interest or ___ for a period of 2 weeks.

A

Depressed, pleasure.

276
Q

Why does MDD often go untreated?

A

There is a false belief that having MDD is a sign of weakness, and that people should be able to just “snap out of it”.

277
Q

MDD affects __% of Canadians, and is the least/most common type of mood disorder.

A
  1. Most.
278
Q

Depressed mood, lack of interest or pleasure in usual activities, increased isolation, lack of energy or motivation, changes in appetite or sleep patterns, changes in weight, difficulty concentrating, and suicidal thoughts are all features of ___.

A

MDD.

279
Q

Changes in mood are normally considered normal. At what point do they start being considered abnormal?

A

Persistent or severe changes in mood or cycles of extreme elation and depression may suggest a mood disorder.

280
Q

Depressive disorders are most common in which stages of life?

A

Adolescence and early adulthood (15-24).

281
Q

What are some reasons that depressive disorders are most common in adolescents and young adults?

A

Puberty, life changes, relationships.

282
Q

___ have a higher prevalence of depressive disorders than ___. However, after 65, the numbers flatten out.

A

Women, men.

283
Q

What are some risk factors of MDD?

A

-Being adolescent places you at higher risk. -Lower socioeconomic status places you at higher risk.-Being unmarried puts you at higher risk. -Being a woman makes you 2 times more at risk.

284
Q

What does SAD stand for?

A

Seasonal Affective Disorder.

285
Q

What causes SAD?

A

The changing of the season from summer into fall and winter leads to seasonal affective disorder.

286
Q

What are some features of SAD?

A

-Fatigue. -Excessive sleep. -Craving for carbohydrates. -Weight gain.

287
Q

What is used to treat SAD?

A

Phototherapy.

288
Q

SAD affects ___ more than it affects ___.

A

Women, men.

289
Q

SAD is more common in younger/older adults?

A

Younger.

290
Q

Can SAD occur in children?

A

Possibly.

291
Q

What is postpartum depression?

A

Persistent and severe mood changes that occur following childbirth.

292
Q

Postpartum depression is often accompanied by…

A

-Disturbances in sleep and appetite. -Low self-esteem. -Difficulties maintaining concentration.

293
Q

Postpartum depression usually remits during the first _ months of childbirth, but could persist for years.

A

3.

294
Q

What are some risk factors for postpartum depression?

A

-Financial problems. -Troubled marriage. -Lack of social/emotional support. -History of depression. -Unwanted/sick baby.

295
Q

What is Persistent Depressive Disorder?

A

A milder form of depression, that seems to follow a chronic course of development that often begins in childhood or adolescence.

296
Q

When depression becomes a fixture of people’s lives, it can be mistaken as part of their ___.

A

Personality.

297
Q

Is it possible to have more than one type of depression at once?

A

Yes, it is called double depression.

298
Q

What does PDD stand for?

A

Premenstrual Dystrophic Disorder.

299
Q

What are some of the reasons that PDD was included in the DSM-V?

A

To have it gain recognition as a legitimate disorder that can be diagnosed. For example, women who miss work can have it diagnosed and they can receive sick pay.

300
Q

What is PDD?

A

A severe form of PMS characterized by changeable mood, irritability, dysphoria, and anxiety that occurs repeatedly in the final week before menses and remits in the post menses week.

301
Q

What is Bipolar Disorder?

A

A disorder characterized by mood swings between states of extreme elation and severe depression.

302
Q

What was bipolar disorder formerly called?

A

Manic depression.

303
Q

What is a manic episode?

A

Periods of unrealistically heightened euphoria, extreme restlessness, and excessive activity characterized by disorganized behaviour and impaired judgement.

304
Q

What is pressured speech?

A

Occurs during a manic episode, outpouring of speech in which words often surge urgently for expression.

305
Q

What is rapid flight of ideas?

A

Occurs during a manic episode, involves rapid speech and changes of topics.

306
Q

What is Bipolar 1?

A

Having one or more manic episodes.

307
Q

What is Bipolar 2?

A

More depressive.

308
Q

What is Cyclothymic Disorder?

A

A mood disorder characterized by a chronic pattern of mild mood swings between depression and mania that are not of sufficient severity to be classified as bipolar disorder.

309
Q

What are the 6 depression relapse risk factors?

A

Previous episodes, high depression on entry, family history, poor physical health, dissatisfaction in other life roles, clinical depression in childhood.

310
Q

What is the stress theory of depression?

A

When people are stressed and do not have the coping mechanism sot keep their spirits up, they may become depressed.

311
Q

What is the psychodynamic theory of depression?

A

When there is perceived loss, you get angry, the anger turns into rage, you feel guilty about all your rage, and the rage is then turned inwards.

312
Q

What is the humanistic perspective on depression?

A

Depression is caused by being unable to find meaning in life or reach self-actualization.

313
Q

What are the learning theories of depression?

A

Depression leads to isolation, which leads to more depression. This limits your opportunities to be reinforced in positive ways.

314
Q

What is the interactionist theory of depression?

A

If someone is in a relationship with a person who is depressed, then they will eventually begin to respond less positively towards the person.

315
Q

What is the cognitive perspective on depression?

A

People will focus on the negatives and not think about the positives. And that cognitive distortions will perpetuate depression.

316
Q

What is the depression triad?

A

Having a negative view of the self, world, and future.

317
Q

What is the biological perspective for depression?

A

It has underlying biological causes, such as chemical imbalances or genetic factors. It can be treated with antidepressants.

318
Q

What is the psychodynamic approach to treatment? How long does it take to treat?

A

Use of interpersonal therapy: talking about emotions, exploring ambivalent feelings, and catharsis. Takes about a year.

319
Q

What is the behavioural approach to treatment?

A

Taking a Coping with Depression Course, which involves slowly reintegrating yourself into social life.

320
Q

What is the cognitive approach to treatment?

A

Cognitive therapy involving looking at thoughts, thought stopping, reframing thoughts and stopping automatic thinking.

321
Q

What is the biological approach to treatment?

A

Antidepressants, lithium for bipolar, ECT.

322
Q

What percentage of deaths in Canadians between 15-24 is suicide?

A

24%

323
Q

What percentage of men and women have contemplated suicide?

A

10% and 13%

324
Q

What percentage of men and women have attempted suicide?

A

2% and 6%

325
Q

Who is more likely to be successful at suicide? How much more likely? (Men or women?)

A

Men are 4 times more likely.

326
Q

What is the typical suicide attempt profile?

A

Unmarried white female, history of past or recent stressors, unstable childhood, few social supports, no close friend.

327
Q

What is the typical suicide completer profile?

A

Unmarried or divorced white male over the age of 45, lives alone, history of physical pain or emotional disorder, probably abuses alcohol.

328
Q

What are the 7 types of suicide?

A

Realistic, altruistic, inadvertent, spiteful, bizarre, anomic, negative self.

329
Q

What is realistic suicide?

A

When you have an impending death anyways (because of terminal disease)

330
Q

What is altruistic suicide?

A

Self sacrifice (e.g., jumping on a grenade)

331
Q

What is inadvertent suicide?

A

Accidental suicide

332
Q

What is spiteful suicide?

A

Suicide with the intent to hurt someone.

333
Q

What is bizarre suicide?

A

People experiencing hallucinations or delusions.

334
Q

What is anomic suicide?

A

Suicide resulting from loss of strength or social cohesion.

335
Q

What is negative self suicide?

A

Self-hatred, as seen in most depressive cases.

336
Q

What is the psychodynamic reasoning for suicide?

A

People have a death instinct.

337
Q

What is the sociocultural reasoning for suicide?

A

People feel socially isolated.

338
Q

What is the learning theorists’ reasoning for suicide?

A

Because of the reinforcement of prior suicide threats.

339
Q

What is the social cognitive reasoning for suicide?

A

They model themselves after others.

340
Q

What is the biological perspective’s reasoning for suicide?

A

Lack of serotonin.

341
Q

What are certain warning signs of suicide?

A

Hopelessness, giving things away, settling affairs, sudden relief.

342
Q

What are the 6 steps for preventing suicide?

A
  1. Draw the person out2. Be sympathetic3. Suggest that means other than suicide can be discovered to work out their problems4. Inquire as to how the person expects to commit suicide5. Propose that the person accompany you to see a professional right now6. Don’t degrade the individual (“You’re crazy”)
343
Q

What are the four factors to consider when determining suicide risk?

A

What’s their current plan? Do they have access to means? Have they made previous attempts? How much social support do they have?

344
Q

What is the process for dealing with suicide risk?

A

Ground the subject in the moment, assess where they are, and formulate a plan for them.

345
Q

What are the 2 categories of substance use-related and addictive disorders?

A
  1. Substance use disorders. 2. Substance induced disorders.
346
Q

What is a substance use disorder?

A

Patterns of maladaptive behaviour involving the use of a psychoactive substance. Includes substance abuse and substance dependance disorders.

347
Q

What is a substance induced disorder?

A

Disorders induced by the use of psychoactive substances, including intoxication, withdrawal symptoms, mood disorders, delirium, and amnesia.

348
Q

Substance use disorder involves the continued use of a psychoactive drug, despite the knowledge that it…

A

Contributes to problems.

349
Q

What is tolerance?

A

It takes more of the drug to get you back to the baseline from before.

350
Q

What is withdrawal syndrome?

A

Happens when you stop taking the drug, and you experience adverse effects.

351
Q

What is tachycardia?

A

Abnormally rapid heartbeat.

352
Q

What are some features of Delirium Tremens?

A

Sweating, hallucinations, tremors, jitters, and confusion. Occurs after you suddenly stop taking a drug.

353
Q

What is addiction?

A

Impaired control over the use of a chemical substance accompanied by physiological dependence.

354
Q

What is physiological dependence?

A

State of being physically dependent on a drug which the users’ body comes to depend on a steady supply.

355
Q

What is psychological dependence?

A

Reliance on a substance, although one may not be physically dependent.

356
Q

What are the top 3 commonly used drugs in North America?

A
  1. Tobacco. 2. Alcohol. 3. Marijuana.
357
Q

What are the 3 steps in the pathway to drug dependence?

A
  1. Experimentation. 2. Routine use. 3. Addiction/powerlessness.
358
Q

What is part of the experimentation step in the pathway to drug dependence?

A

Enjoying the experience. Can be the result of peer pressure. Still in control.

359
Q

What is part of the routine use step in the pathway to drug dependence?

A

In denial, have a hard time changing habits. Life changes to accommodate.

360
Q

What is part of the addiction/powerlessness step in the pathway to drug dependence?

A

Uncontrollable, physiological reactions.

361
Q

What are some risk factors for alcoholism?

A

-Gender (women start later, but catch up). -Age (prior to 40). -Antisocial personality disorder (increases risk). -Family history (modelling). -Sociodemographic factors.

362
Q

What are some conceptions of alcoholism?

A

Disease, moral deficit, or behaviour pattern.

363
Q

Some people believe that psychologically, alcohol can make you…

A

More calm, more social.

364
Q

What are some physical health risks associated with alcohol, and what do they cause?

A

Alcohol-induced persisting amnesia and Korsakoff’s Syndrome. Can be traced to a thiamine deficiency, can cause memories to be replaced with false/faulty ones.

365
Q

Moderate drinking can have positive effects on the ___.

A

Heart.

366
Q

How are different ethnic groups affected by alcohol?

A

First Nations are more likely to get addicted, while Jews are less likely. Asians tend to drink less.

367
Q

What are barbiturates?

A

Sedatives. They are relaxing, induce sleep, reduce stress and tension.

368
Q

What is the most common street drug?

A

Barbiturates.

369
Q

Barbiturates are less/more powerful when mixed with alcohol.

A

More.

370
Q

What are opiates?

A

Narcotics, analgesia, and endorphins. Used for pain relieving, can cause euphoria.

371
Q

What is withdrawal symptoms for opiates similar to?

A

Flu symptoms.

372
Q

What are stimulants?

A

“Uppers”. Amphetamines that get you super high and end in a crash.

373
Q

What is cocaine?

A

Includes crack cocaine. Cocaine is the most habit forming, and people are prone to binges.

374
Q

What is freebasing?

A

When cocaine users heat or freeze cocaine, then smoke it.

375
Q

Nicotine is sometimes taken because people believe…

A

It can lead to weight loss, or that it can reduce nervousness.

376
Q

Nicotine and cigarettes cause __% of lung cancer.

A

90.

377
Q

_ million people a year die from nicotine addictions.

A

3.

378
Q

___ cancer recently surpassed breast cancer as the leading cause of death for women.

A

Lung.

379
Q

What are hallucinogens?

A

Psychodialectics and LSD. Can result in flashbacks, which can be positive or negative.

380
Q

Flashbacks are not memories, they are…

A

Re-experiences.

381
Q

Which people smoke more?

A

Aboriginal and lower class.

382
Q

What is phencyclidine (PCP)?

A

A readily available and inexpensive drug that was originally used as an anaesthetic, can cause delirium, disorientation, and dissociation.

383
Q

Marijuana is also called ___ or ___, and its use is more common in…

A

THC, hashish, 18-30 year old males.

384
Q

What are inhalants?

A

Can include adhesives, aerosols, paint, markers, etc. Can lead to a sense of intoxication and euphoria. Dosing can lead to death.

385
Q

What is gambling disorder classified as under DSM-V?

A

A substance use disorder.

386
Q

Biological perspectives maintain that substance use disorders can be a result of:

A

-Neurotransmitters. -Brain’s reward centres (serotonin and cocaine). -Dopamine.

387
Q

Which substances can have effects on dopamine levels and lead to substance use disorders?

A
  1. Nicotine. 2. Alcohol. 3. Heroin. 4. Cocaine. 5. Marijuana.
388
Q

Learning perspectives maintain that substance use disorders can be a result of:

A

-Operant conditioning. -Alcohol and tension reduction. -Negative reinforcement and withdrawal (peer pressure). -Conditioning Model of Cravings. -Observational learning.

389
Q

What is the Conditioning Model of Cravings?

A

People are conditioned to crave certain things in certain situations. For example, craving popcorn in a movie theatre, but not in everyday life.

390
Q

Cognitive perspectives maintain that substance use disorders can be a result of:

A

-Outcome experiences and decision making. -Self Efficacy Experiment. -Does one slip cause people to go into binges?-What you believe is what you get.

391
Q

What is self-efficacy?

A

Self-efficacy is the extent or strength of one’s belief in one’s own ability to complete tasks and reach goals.

392
Q

According to the Psychodynamic Perspective and Freud, smoking is a result of…

A

Oral fixation.

393
Q

According to the sociocultural perspective, are there variations of addictions between different cultural groups?

A

Yes.

394
Q

What are some treatment methods used by the biological perspective?

A

-Detoxification. -Disulfiram. -Antidepressants. -Nicotine Replacement Therapy. -Methadone Maintenance Programs. -Naloxone and naltrexone.

395
Q

What is disulfiram?

A

A drug that discourages alcohol use.

396
Q

What are antidepressants used to treat?

A

Cocaine addictions.

397
Q

What are Methadone Maintenence Programs used to treat?

A

Heroin.

398
Q

What are Naloxone and Naltextrose used to treat, and how?

A

Blocks high produced by heroin and opiates.

399
Q

Give an example of a nonprofessional support group.

A

Alcoholics Anonymous

400
Q

What are some treatment methods used by the behavioural approach?

A

-Self-control strategies. -Aversive conditioning. -Social skills training (Raj from BBT). -Relapse Preventing Training.

401
Q

What percentage of patients relapse?

A

50-90%.

402
Q

What is the Abstinence Violation Effect?

A

If you slip up once, you go on a binge because you think that you already messed up and can’t make it worse.

403
Q

What are the Stages of Change?

A
  1. Precontemplation. 2. Contemplation. 3. Preparation. 4. Action. 5. Adaptation/Maintenence. 6. Evaluation.
404
Q

With respect to Stages of Change, what is precontemplation?

A

No intention to change, and unaware of problem.

405
Q

With respect to Stages of Change, what is contemplation?

A

Aware problem exists and serious evaluation of options, but not committed to taking action.

406
Q

With respect to Stages of Change, what is preparation?

A

Intends to take action and makes small changes- needs to set goals and priorities.

407
Q

With respect to Stages of Change, what is action?

A

Dedicates considerable time and energy, make overt and viable changes, develops strategies to deal with barriers.

408
Q

With respect to Stages of Change, what is adaptation/maintenence?

A

Works to adapt and adjust to facilitate maintenance of change.

409
Q

With respect to Stages of Change, what is evaluation?

A

Assessment and feedback to continue dynamic change process.

410
Q

Deciding to, or not deciding to take drugs is called ___.

A

Compliance.

411
Q

What are the key features of delerium tremens and delerium?

A

Delerium tremens is mainly hallucinations, while delerium is confusion.

412
Q

Eating disorders often affect people of ___ ___ or ___ age, especially young ___.

A

High school, college, women.

413
Q

What is Anorexia Nervosa?

A

An eating disorder primarily affecting young women, characterized by maintenence of an abnormally low body weight, distortions of body image, and intense fears of gaining weight. Can also be accompanied by amenorrhea in women.

414
Q

What is the mental feature of Anorexia Nervosa?

A

The intense fear of gaining weight.

415
Q

What is Bulimia Nervosa?

A

An eating disorder characterized by a recurrent pattern of binge eating followed by self-induced purging and accompanied by persistent over concern with body weight and image.

416
Q

What are the two subtypes of anorexia?

A
  1. Binge-eating and purging subtype. 2. Restrictive type.
417
Q

What are some medical complications of anorexia?

A

Amenorrhea, osteoperosis, cardiovascular problems, digestive problems, and higher risks of health problems.

418
Q

What is amenorrhea?

A

Missing periods.

419
Q

What is osteoperosis?

A

Losing bone density.

420
Q

When does anorexia mainly develop?

A

Ages 12-18.

421
Q

What are some causes of anorexia?

A

Puberty and hormonal changes, social media, and transitions.

422
Q

Who is at risk of anorexia?

A

Competitive athletes, such as runners, wrestlers, swimmers, and dancers.

423
Q

What are some medical complications of bulimia nervosa?

A

Blockage of salivary ducts, decay of tooth enamel and dental cavities, pancreatis, potassium deficiency, muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and even sudden death.

424
Q

What is binging?

A

Consuming many calories at once.

425
Q

How do sociological factors cause eating disorders?

A

Media plays a role, and eating disorders occur more in Western countries.

426
Q

How do psychosocial factors cause eating disorders?

A

???

427
Q

How do family factors cause eating disorders?

A

If mothers have own concerns about body image, it reflects onto the children.

428
Q

What is the systems perspective?

A

How the family unit interacts with and affects people.

429
Q

How do biological factors cause eating disorders?

A

Use of Prozac increases risk. Eating disorders have been linked to serotonin, as well as a genetics. Type 1 diabetes also increases your risk.

430
Q

What are some treatments of eating disorders?

A

Hospitalization, cognitive analytic therapy, family therapy, CBT, interpersonal psychotherpy.

431
Q

What is pica?

A

Eating rocks, dirt, etc.

432
Q

What is rumination disorder?

A

Regurgitating foor and eating it again.

433
Q

What is feeding disorder of infancy?

A

Failure to gain weight.

434
Q

What is Prader-Willi Syndrome?

A

Loss of muscle tone, have sensational appetite, leads to obesity. Result of chromosomal deficiency.

435
Q

What is Cyclic Vomiting Syndrome?

A

Chronic functional condition characterized by attacks of intense nausea, vomiting, and sometimes abdominal or head pain.

436
Q

What is anorexia athletica?

A

Overexercising.

437
Q

What is muscle dysmorphia (bigorexia)?

A

Peroccupation with muscle mass gaining. Feeling like you don’t have enough muscle mass.

438
Q

What is orthexia nervosa?

A

Overly occupied with food going into body.

439
Q

What is night eating syndrome?

A

Consuming all your calories at night.

440
Q

What is gourmand syndrome?

A

Prepare food ritually.

441
Q

The diagnostic category of sleep-wake disorders represents what?

A

Persistent or recurrent sleep related problems that cause significant personal distress or impaired functioning.

442
Q

What are the two broad categories of sleep-wake disorders?

A

Dyssomnias and parasomnias.

443
Q

What are the two newest additions to the DSM-V dyssomnia category?

A

Rapid Eye Movement Sleep Behaviour Disorder and Restless Leg Syndrome.

444
Q

What is primary insomnia?

A

Having difficulty falling asleep, remaining asleep, or achieving restorative sleep for a period of a month or longer.

445
Q

What is the most common form of sleep disorder?

A

Insomnia.

446
Q

How does insomnia differ when it comes to old and young people?

A

Young people take a long time to fall asleep, older people wake up frequently during the night.

447
Q

What demographic is affected the most by insomnia?

A

Older people.

448
Q

What factors can increase the chance of insomnia? (7)

A

High levels of life stress, shift work, heavy drinking or cannabis use, obesity, divorce/separation/widowed, being female, lower levels of education and income.

449
Q

What is hypersomnia?

A

Patterns of excessive sleepiness during the day or difficulty awakening after prolonged sleep periods that continues for a period of a month or longer.

450
Q

What disorder is hypersomnia often associated with?

A

Depression.

451
Q

What percentage of the population will experience hypersomnia?

A

0.25%

452
Q

What can primary hypersomnia not be accounted for by? (4)

A

Inadequate amount of sleep during the night due to insomnia, another psychological or physical disorder, drug or medical use, or other factors such as noises.

453
Q

What is narcolepsy?

A

Experiencing sleep attacks in which the subject suddenly falls asleep without warning at various times throughout the day.

454
Q

What is the average length of a narcoleptic sleep attack?

A

15 minutes.

455
Q

When can a diagnosis of narcolepsy be made?

A

When sleep attacks occur daily for a period of three months or longer and are combined with either cataplexy and/or intrusions of rapid eye movement.

456
Q

What is cataplexy?

A

Sudden loss of muscular control.

457
Q

What is the most common breathing related dyssomnia?

A

Sleep apnea.

458
Q

What is apnea?

A

Repeated episodes of either complete or partial obstruction of breathing during sleep.

459
Q

What causes apnea’s obstruction?

A

Blockage of airflow in the upper airways, often due to structural defect.

460
Q

How long and how does an apnea sufferer stop breathing?

A

15-90 seconds at at time, up to 30 times per hour.

461
Q

What may happen when apnea lapses in breathing occur?

A

The sleeper may suddenly sit up, gasp for air, take deep breaths, and then fall back asleep without being conscious.

462
Q

What pattern of snoring can be indicative of apnea?

A

Loud snoring alternating with momentary silences.

463
Q

Whom is sleep apnea most common in?

A

Younger men (compared to young women), obese people, drug addicts.

464
Q

What percentage of people will experience sleep apnea?

A

2-4%.

465
Q

At what age does the prevalence of sleep apnea become evenly distributed among genders?

A

Over the age of 50.

466
Q

What is circadian rhythm sleep disorder characterized by?

A

Disruption of sleep due to a mismatch in sleep schedules between the body’s internal sleep-wake cycle and the demands of the environment.

467
Q

How severe must circadian rhythm sleep disorder be in order to be diagnosed?

A

It must cause significant levels of distress or impact one’s functioning.

468
Q

What might treatment for circadian rhythm sleep disorder involve?

A

Gradual adjustments in the sleep schedule to allow for the person’s circadian rhythm to become aligned with changes in the sleep wake cycle.

469
Q

Dyssomnias include which 7 disorders? (including the 2 new additions).

A

Insomnia, hypersomnia, sleep apnea, narcolepsy, circadian rhythm sleep disorder, REM sleep behaviour disorder, restless leg syndrome.

470
Q

Parasomnias include which 3 disorders?

A

Nightmare disorder, sleep terror disorder, and sleepwalking disorder.

471
Q

What does nightmare disorder involve?

A

Recurrent awakening from sleep because of frightening, vivid dreams.

472
Q

What do the nightmares in nightmare disorder typically consist of?

A

Lengthy, story-like dreams that involve threats of imminent danger physical danger to the individual, such as being chased, attacked, or injured.

473
Q

Who typically suffers from sleep terror disorder?

A

Young boys.

474
Q

How do sleep terror attacks generally progress?

A

It begins with a loud scream or cry, the child then may sit up and show signs of extreme arousal, the child may start talking incoherently or thrash about while remaining asleep, and after a few minutes the child will fall back asleep and remember nothing.

475
Q

What section of the night do sleep terror attacks generally occur?

A

The first third of the night.

476
Q

What does sleepwalking disorder involve?

A

Repeated episodes in which the sleeper arises from bed and walks around while remaining fully asleep.

477
Q

Is it harmful to awaken sleepwalkers?

A

Not at all.

478
Q

What are 9 consequences of sleepiness?

A
  • Causes accidents and injuries- Dumbs you down- Sleep deprivation can lead to serious health problems- Kills sex drive- Depressing- Ages your skin- Makes you forgetful- Makes you gain weight- Impairs judgement
479
Q

What are anxiolytics?

A

Sleeping pills.

480
Q

What are examples of anxiolytics?

A

Sedatives or benzodiazepines and anaesthetics.

481
Q

What proportion of people will use sleeping pills in their lives?

A

1 in 10.

482
Q

What is narcolepsy treated with?

A

Psychostimulants.

483
Q

What is sleep apnea treated with?

A

Positive airways masks (Darth Vader).

484
Q

What are sleep terrors and sleepwalking treated with?

A

Benzodiazepines and antidepressants.

485
Q

What are some cognitive-behavioural approaches to treating sleep-wake disorders?

A

Modifying sleeping habits, changing dysfunctional thoughts, stimulus control, relaxation training, anxiety management.

486
Q

What are the 10 sleep strategy steps?

A
  1. Retire to bed only when you feel 2. Limit bed activities to sleeping3. If after 20 minutes you are unable to fall asleep, get out of bed & relax4. Establish a regular routine5. Avoid naps during the daytime6. Avoid ruminating in bed7. Relax before sleeping8. Establish a regular daytime exercise schedule.9. Avoid caffeinated beverages10. Practice rational restructuring for self-defeating thoughts
487
Q

Who do eating disorders most often affect?

A

Young women of high school or college age.

488
Q

What is anorexia nervosa?

A

An eating disorder characterized by maintenance of abnormally low body weigh, distortions of body image, amenorrhea in women, and most importantly: intense fear of gaining weight.

489
Q

What is amenorrhea?

A

Absence of menstruation.

490
Q

What is bulimia nervosa?

A

An eating disorder characterized by a recurrent pattern of binge eating followed by self-induced purging and accompanied by persistent concern with body weight.

491
Q

What is the difference between the attitudes of weight gain in sufferers of anorexia and bulimia?

A

Anorexics have an intense fear, bulimics are just concerned and want to be average.

492
Q

What differentiates the binge-eating/purging type of anorexia nervosa from bulimia nervosa?

A

They have an intense fear of weight gain.

493
Q

What is the restrictive type of anorexia nervosa characterized by?

A

They do not eat.

494
Q

What are 8 medical complications of anorexia?

A

Amenorrhea, osteoporosis, dry skin, jaundice, more hair growth, cardiovascular distress, digestive problems, and gastrointestinal problems.

495
Q

How much more likely is death if someone has anorexia?

A

6 times.

496
Q

What age range does anorexia normally develop?

A

Between 12 and 18.

497
Q

What causes anorexia to develop in the age range it does?

A

Puberty and body changes, as well as media exposure.

498
Q

Other than the onset of puberty, when is another developmental time for anorexia?

A

The transition to college.

499
Q

What are 4 medical complications of bulimia nervosa?

A

Blockage of salivary ducts, decay of tooth enamel and cavities, pancreatitis, potassium deficiency.

500
Q

What can potassium deficiency associated with bulimia lead to?

A

Muscular weakness, cardiac irregularities, and sudden death.

J - PSYCO 239 (2 decks)

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