Proteins: Myoglobin And Hemoglobin and cytoskeleton 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Globular Proteins

A
  • most numerous proteins
  • distinguishable from fibrous proteins by the fact that they are soluble in aqueous media.
  • core consists of fixed 2’ structures.
  • Hydrophobic AA’s are oriented towards interior, Hydrophilic AA’s face the exterior.
  • Overall structure is stabilized by H bonds, ionic interactions and less often S-S bonds.
  • Because of the high degree of H bonding in the peptide backbone N-H and C=O are neutralized.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Myoglobin and Hemoglobin

A
  • most studied and best-understood globular proteins
  • crucial in conversion of anaerobic life to aerobic life
  • aerobic metabolism yields more energy than anaerobic
  • due to O limited solubility in water, myoglobin and hemoglobin have evolved to deliver O to tissues in sufficient quantities.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Myoglobin

A
  • Single polypeptide chain of 153 AA’s
  • contains a covalent lay bound heme group
  • is the oxygen storage protein of muscle.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hemoglobin

A
  • a2b2 tetramer, a subunit is 141 AA’s while b is 146 AA’s

- each polypeptide is structurally similar to myoglobin and each contains a heme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Heme prosthetic group

A

O does not bind well to any AA, but it binds to various metals, including Fe and Cu

  • Fe is frequently part of a complex with protoporhyrin IX
  • porphyrin is composed of 4 pyrrole rings liked by methane bridges
  • porphyrin is flat with two open sites for binding to Fe
  • porphyrin is a prosthetic group, which helps proteins employ their functions.
  • Protoporphyrin IX containing a bound Fe is called a heme
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Heme group binding

A
  • Fe atoms of hemes typically exist as either +2 or +3
  • O will only bind to +2 state when O binds the free heme it oxidizes it by one electron resulting in superoxide and ferric heme (+3)
  • O bound heme is red, while heme with no O is purple
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Methemoglobin

A

Hemoglobin that has been oxidized from ferrous to ferric state. Thus unable to bind O.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Effect of Protein Structure on O binding

A
  • binding is influenced by structure
  • cavity where O binds is created by Val (helix E) and Phe (located in the loop between helices C and D)
  • There is no clear pathway for O binding to heme. Molecular motions (breathing) of the protein create transient routes to allow O to bind or leave. Rotation of the distal histidine is one important molecular motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Role of the Protein Scaffold

A
  • heme cofactors is buried deep in the binding pocket composed primarily of alpha helix 2’ structure.
  • the heme is held by numerous binding interactions as well as covalent interaction between the Fe and N atom of the histidine side chain in one of the helices
  • coordination of the histidine to the heme completely blocks access of O to this face of the heme, forcing binding to the opposite face. This prevents oxidation of the heme by O and allows for simple reversible binding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

O binding to Heme

A
  • O binding alters myoglobin conformation
  • binding of O pulls the heme closer into the porphyrin ring. In turn, the histidine is pulled along, distorting the shape of the alpha helix.
  • in hemoglobin O binding has profound effects on the ability of other subunits to bind O.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T and R state of Hemoglobin

A
  • two major conformations of hemoglobin as predicted by the models for allosteric activation
  • O will bind to hemoglobin in either state, has higher affinity for R state
  • In the absence of O hemoglobin is more stable in the T state, and is therefore the predominant form of deoxyhemoglobin. R stands for relaxed, T for tense which is stabilized by the greater number of ion pairs.
  • transition of T to R causes rotation of alpha2beta2 pairs of subunits 15 degrees relative to the pair of alpha1beta1 subunits.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hill Plots for O2 binding to myoglobin and hemoglobin

A
  • if Hill coefficient is 1 there is no cooperativity
  • the maximum Hill coefficient is 3 which is less than the number of O binding sites in hemoglobin, which is normal for a protein that exhibits allosteric behavior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Allosteric Effects in hemoglobin

A
  • structure changes to oxygenation
  • Increase in H+ causes Hb to release O2 (Bohr effect)
  • 2,3-BPG binds to positively charged groups stabilizing deoxy Hb
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Carbonic anhydrase

A
  • catalyzes rapid interconversion of CO2 and water to bicarbonate and H+ (or vice versa)
  • Maintains the acid-base balance in blood and other tissues by transporting CO2 out of the tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bohr effect

A
  • more O2 is released in tissues with higher absolute and/or relative CO2 values.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2,3 - bisphosphoglycerate

A
  • dramatically affects Hb’s binding of O2
  • stabilizes deoxy Hb
  • added during the storage of blood
  • increased at high altitudes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CO poisoning

A
  • CO will bind to heme 20,000 times better than O, 200 times better when heme is bound to myoglobin
  • it binds the heme in a bent conformation and a histidine residue makes a favorable H bond with it
  • Preferred electronic configuration of CO binding to heme is in a linear conformation. The His residue at E7 steric ally hinders its binding to the heme, reducing its affinity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Binding of NO in hemoglobin

A
  • NO is a smooth muscle relaxing (hypotensive) agent
  • at the tissues, some Hb binds NO instead of one of the 4 O
  • NO is then transferred to Cys of beta subunit
  • Upon releasing O, Hb passes NO to GSH (as GSNO), stabilizing NO
  • NO transferred to receptors in vascular smooth muscle cells, relaxing them, facilitating O passage into tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Subunit Composition of Hemoglobin Tetramers

A

The P50 values for HbA and HbF are 26 and 20 mm Hg

  • in the placenta, this difference enables HbF to extract O from the HbA in the mother’s blood
  • HbF is suboptimal postpartum since its high affinity for O2 limit the quantity of O2 delivered to the tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Sickle cell anemia: HbS

A
  • single nucleotide change in beta-glob in gene, Glu—>Val
  • only if both genes are affected do you have sickle cell anemia
  • normal rbc 120 days; HbS rbc 20 days
  • sickling in low blood oxygen, or other conditions favoring deoxy Hb: low pH, high pCO2, high BPG
  • fatigue and shortness of breath
  • painful crisis
  • Possible treatment: Silencing BCL11A normally suppresses the production of fetal hemoglobin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hemoglobin C and SC diseases

A
  • Hemoglobin C: Glu6 —-> Lys6 in beta-globin gene
  • Homozygous have mild hemolytic anemia; no specific therapy needed
  • Hemoglobin SC - One beta-globin gene codes for HbS, and the other for HbC
  • Patients often have normal life, until they give birth or have surgery, when they can have infarctive crisis, possibly fatal
22
Q

Aggregation of HbS

A
  • DeoxyHbS
  • New hydrophobic patch Val6 interacts by Phe85 and Val88 of the beta chain of a neighboring molecule to initiate the aggregation process
23
Q

Methemoglobinemias

A
  • Hb with Fe(+3) instead of normal Fe 2+ resulting in a reduced ability to release O to tissues and thereby hypoxia
  • caused by benzocaine, dapsone, and nitrates
  • caused by reactive O intermediates and some inherited Hb defects
  • caused but deficiency in NADH-methemoglobin reductase
  • Brownish-blue skin due to tissue hypoxia
24
Q

Thalassemias

A
  • deficiency in synthesis of alpha or beta globin
  • low levels of alpha2beta2 and abnormal aggregates off alpha or beta globins in rbc
  • caused by gene deletion or substitution or deletion of nucleotides in DNA
25
Q

Alpha-thalassemias

A
  • normal people have 4 copies of alpha-globin gene
  • if 3 genes are defective: HbH, moderately severe hemolytic anemia, gamma Tetramers in newborn or beta tetramers bind oxygen too tightly to deliver to tissue
  • if all 4 genes are defective, hydrops fetalis and fetal death since alpha-globin is require for HbF
26
Q

Beta-Thalassemias

A
  • alpha-globin synthesis is normal
  • alpha-globin aggregates precipitate
  • premature death of rbc precursors
  • accumulation of HbF and Hb Bart’s
  • Causes problems after birth
  • minor cases don’t usually require treatment
  • major cases - severely anemic in first or second year, required blood transfusions, ion overload, premature death
  • marrow replacement helps
27
Q

Intermediate filaments

A

-important for cell structure and localization of cellular processes
-family of proteins
Structure: central rod domain, amino terminal domain and carboxy-terminal domain
Assembly:
1. Forms dimers
2. Two dimers form tetramer (antiparallel, dimers staggered)
3. tetramers form protofilaments
4. 8 protofilaments form a filament
5. Unlike actin, additional tetramers added to both ends of protofilament

28
Q

Intermediate filament organization

A
  1. Forms network in cell
  2. Associates with nucleus, plasma membrane, actin, and microtubules
  3. Anchors cells to each other and to ECM
29
Q

Epidermolysis bullosa simplex

A
  • most common IF disease, mildest EB
  • defective keratin
  • Skin splits in epidermis, causing blisters
30
Q

What type of IF is expressed only in epithelial cells?

A

Keratin

31
Q

Microtubules

A
  • largest cytoskeletal protein
  • functions in: determining cell shape, cell locomotion, intracellular transport, organelle positioning, separation of chromosomes during mitosis
32
Q

Microtubule Assembly

A
  1. hollow tubes composed of dimers of alpha and beta tubulin
  2. Dimers polymerize to form microtubules that have a (+) and (-) end
  3. Tubulins bind GTP, which regulates polymerization
    - GTP-tubulin polymerizes at (+) end
    - GTP bound to beta-tubulin cleaved to GDP during or after polymerization
    - leads to depolymerization at minus end because GDP-tubulin does not bind to microtubule as well
    - (-) is protected to prevent rapid depolymerization
33
Q

Dynamic instability

A
  • individual microtubules alternate between growth and shrinkage, determined by rate of tubulin addition relative to GTP hydrolysis
  • If GTP-tubulin is added faster than GTP is cleaved, microtubules grow, if the opposite then GDP-tubulin builds at (+) end and microtubules shrink ( if this happens quickly it is a catastrophe)
  • growth and shrinkage important during cell division
  • drugs that affect microtubule assembly are important to cancer treatment by interfering with cell division
34
Q

Vincristine and vinblastine

A

Bind tubulin and inhibit microtubule polymerization

35
Q

Taxol

A

Stabilizes microtubules and prevents disassembly

36
Q

Centrosome

A
  • microtubule organizing center
  • initiates microtubule growth
  • binds (-) end of microtubule
  • microtubules grow toward plasma membrane
  • gamma-tubulin key protein for growth of microtubules
  • contain two centrioles which are not necessary for microtubule assembly but for formation of cilia and flagella
  • cancer cells have multiple cent roscoes, which will cluster
37
Q

Microtubule stability

A
  • inherently unstable

- stabilized by: post translational modifications of tubulin so, binding to MAPS

38
Q

MAP’s

A
  • cell and tissue specific
  • regulate behavior of microtubules
  • functions: cap microtubule ends and speed up microtubule assembly by increasing incorporation of GTP-bound tubulin at (+) end
  • speed up microtubule disassembly by dissociating GTP-tubulin from (+) end
  • Rescue microtubules from catastrophe by stopping disassembly and restarting growth at (+) end by using CLASP
  • connect microtubules to IF’s or plasma membrane
  • Bind to GTP-tubulin and move growing microtubules to different cellular locations
39
Q

Organization of microtubules in nerve cells

A

-two types: axons (send signals) and dendrites (receive signals)

40
Q

Axons

A
  • microtubules have (+) ends away from cell body
  • (-) end not anchored in centrosome
  • capped at both ends
  • contain tau which stabilizes microtubules
41
Q

Dendrites

A
  • microtubules oriented in both directions

- contain MAP-2 which crosslinks microtubules to IF’s

42
Q

Microtubule motor proteins

A
  1. Dynein
    - moves along microtubules towards (-) end
    - transports macromolecules, membrane vesicles and organelles towards center of cell away from periphery
  2. Kinesin
    - moves along microtubules towards (+)
    - transports macromolecules, membrane vesicles and organelles away from center of cell towards periphery
  3. ATP hydrolysis required for movement
43
Q

Cilia and Flagella

A
  1. Microtubule-based projection of plasma membrane

2. Cilia move fluid over cells, and flagella important for sperm movement

44
Q

Cilia and flagella axoneme structure

A
  1. Microtubules and associated proteins
  2. Microtubules arranged in 9+2 pattern
  3. Central pair of microtubules surrounded by 9 our microtubule doublets
  4. Doublet composed of A tubule (Complete microtubule) and B tubule (incomplete microtubule)
  5. Microtubule doublets connected to each other by nexin and to central pair of microtubules by radial spokes
  6. Each A tubule attached to dynein
45
Q

Cilia and flagella basal body structure

A

1) anchors (-) end of microtubules inside cell
2) modified centriole
3) contains 9 triplets of microtubules
4) initiates growth of axonemal microtubules
5) dictates position and orientation of cilia

46
Q

Cilia and Flagella movement

A
  • outer microtubule doublets slide relative to each other
  • powered by axonemal dyneins
  • dynein light chains bind to A tubules
  • dynein head groups bind to B tubule
  • head groups move towards (-) end which causes A tubule to slide towards the basal end of B tubule
  • because the doublets are connected by nexin they bend
47
Q

Microtubule diseases

A
  1. Microtubule dysfunction may be associated with Alzheimer’s or Parkinson’s
  2. MAP tau forms aggregates in Alzheimer’s
  3. Smoking damages cilia in trachea and bronchial tubes
  4. Primary ciliary dyskinesia - lack or or dysfunctional cilia, manifested as chronic respiratory distress shortly after birth
48
Q

Binding of which of the following to tubulin regulates microtubule assembly?

A

GTP

49
Q

A 47 yo man present with constant coughing. He has been a 3PPD smoker for 30 years. Which of the following cytoskeletal proteins is most likely to be damaged?

A

Microtubules

50
Q

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the anticancer drug taxol?

A

It stabilizes microtubules and thus inhibits disassembly