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Neonate > PPt. 1-3 > Flashcards

PPt. 1-3 Flashcards

1
Q

Generally takes __ days for conceptus to migrate from fallopian tube into uterus

A

8

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2
Q

when is the fertilized egg independent of environment but not of genetics

A

pre-embyronic phase

8 days from fertilization to implant

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3
Q

when is the embryonic phase

A

weeks 3-8

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4
Q

the time when all of the tissues are specializing and organs are forming

A

Period of Organogenesis

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5
Q

when is the Period of Organogenesis

A

embryonic phase

weeks 3-8

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6
Q

-Time when malformations occur and greatest vulnerability to teratogens

A

Period of Organogenesis during the embryonic phase (weeks 3-8)

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7
Q

Embryonic development into what 3 germ layers

A
  1. Ectoderm will become skin and nervous system
  2. Mesoderm will become muscle and bone
  3. Endoderrm will become GI tract (alimentary canal), endocrine and respiratory systems
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8
Q

When can you start to see the heart beat

A

on 6 week ultrasound

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9
Q

When is the fetal phase

A

9 weeks until delivery

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10
Q

What happens during the fetal phase

A

Further growth, differentiation and maturation of organs

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11
Q

when do Pulmonary alveoli begin to develop

A

24 weeks

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12
Q

When does surfactant present in lungs

A

at 34 weeks

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13
Q

What is the importance of surfactant

A

it reduces the surface tension of lungs to keep the alveoli open so baby can breath

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14
Q

What happens if the baby is born before 24 weeks

A

pulmonary alveoli won’t be develooped and the fetus won’t be viable outside the womb

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15
Q

Fetal membranes and what do they do

A

Amnion is inner layer
Chorion is outer layer
Function: act to protect fetus from injury and infection

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16
Q

What happens when a mother’s water breaks

A

the fused chorion/aminion membrane ruptures and amniotic fluid poors out

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17
Q

PROM

A

prolonged rupture of membranes > 18 hr

*prior to delivery- makes you prone for infection

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18
Q

PPROM

A

premature, prolonged ROM

*breaks prior to 35 weeks of gestation

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19
Q

SROM

A

spontenous ROM

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20
Q

AROM

A

artificial ROM

*can have AROM that becomes PROM

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21
Q

What are the functions of amniotic fluid

A
  1. Acts as a cushion for fetus as mother moves
  2. Prevents membranes from sticking to baby
  3. Allows for fetal movement
  4. Necessary for lung development
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22
Q

How does the fetus contribute to the placenta

A

Chorionic villi

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23
Q

Finger-like projections of chorion which penetrate into the endometrium, the lining of the uterus

A

Chorionic villi

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24
Q

what does a chorionic villi contain

A
  1. fetal arteriole, venule, and capillary
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25
Q

What is the placenta made up of

A
  1. Chorionic villi- fetal contribution

2. Decidua Basalis- maternal contribution

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26
Q

What happens when c.villus invades the endometrium

A

it causes the maternal capillary beds to break down into sinusoids

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27
Q

blood flow in placenta

A

arteriole –> open space –> venule

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28
Q

Where is the fetal capillary

A

sits within the sinusoid and is bathed by maternal blood

*drug transfer occurs this way

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29
Q

Mother to fetus exchange across the placenta

A

oxygen, aminio acids, fats, glucose, some hormones, antibodies, most drugs, viruses

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30
Q

Fetus to mother exchange across the fetus

A

carbon dioxide, bilirubin, ammonia and other waste products

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31
Q

“crossing the placenta” refers to

A

the diffusion of molecules in either direction

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32
Q

What happens if mom has DM1 and has high blood sugars high throughout the pregnancy. Therefore baby see lots of maternal glucose in utero but what happens with insulin?

A
  • insulin does not cross placenta because too big of a molecule, therefore baby’s pancreas produces its own insulin to take care of mother’s glucose
  • baby continues to produce insulin after birth and becomes hypoglycemic–> may require force feeding
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33
Q

What produces hCG

A

the chorion (or more generally the placenta)

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34
Q

What hormones maintain the lush endometrium necessary to sustain pregnancy

A

hCG and progesterone

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35
Q

When is there enough hormones for a pregnancy test to detect pregnancy

A

2 weeks post conception

maternal blood and urine

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36
Q

What hormone does a pregnancy test detect

A

hCG

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37
Q

when does ovulation occur

A

14 days before menstruation (regardless of cycle length)

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38
Q

How do you date pregnancy?

A

date pregnancy counting 40 weeks from first day of last menstrual period

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39
Q

When does pregnancy actually start occuring, when dating pregnancy

A

2 weeks before ovulation and fertilization

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40
Q

Whats the purpose of ultrasounds

A
  1. Dating pregnancy
  2. Evaluating anatomy
  3. Checking position of placenta (important for C-sectino and wanting a chorionic villi sample)
  4. Checking volume of amniotic fluid
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41
Q

Useful early on in pregnancy because can get closer to fetus and give more accurate images in first weeks

A

transvaginal u/s

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42
Q

Disadvantage of transvaginal u/s

A

uncomfortable for mother (its tucked under the cervix)

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43
Q

More standard u/s

A

transabdominal u/s

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44
Q

what do you measure with U/S dating in 1st trimester and what is its accuracy

A

Measure crown-rump length

Accurate +/- 3 days

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45
Q

what do you measure with U/S dating in 2nd trimester and what is its accuracy

A

Measure biparietal diameter

Accurate +/- 1 week

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46
Q

what do you measure with U/S dating in 3rd trimester and what is its accuracy

A

measure biparietal diameter

Accurate +/- 2 weeks

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47
Q

Why is it important to accurately date your pregnancy

A
  • Surfactant develops around 35 weeks

- know the development of other systems

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48
Q

Why is dating less accurate later on in the pregnancy?

A

genetics, environmental factors, difficult to visualize teh baby due to its position and limbs

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49
Q

What is considered the 1st trimester

A

weeks 1- 12

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50
Q

What is considered the 2nd trimester

A

weeks 13- 28

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51
Q

What is considered the 3rd trimester

A

weeks 29- delivery

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52
Q

what is considered the ideal term?

A

40 weeks, or 38-42 weeks

no later than 42 weeks bc placenta starts to die off and baby gets too big

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53
Q

Can maternal antibodies cross the placenta

A

yes

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54
Q

Rh incompatibilty

A

mismatch between maternal and fetal blood types that results in mother making anitbodies to fetus blood cells and results in hemolysis of fetus RBC

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55
Q

What can Rh incompatibilty cause

A 
jaundice
hydrops fetalis (total body edema)
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56
Q

Prenatal screening consists of:

A
  1. Rh compatibility
  2. u/s for anatomy
  3. Glucose tolerance test (16 weeks)
  4. option gentic screening
  5. Hep B*
  6. HIV*
  7. Syphilis, Gonorrhea, Chlamydia*
    * at first prenatal visit
  8. Immunity to Rubella (conferred by vaccine)
  9. GBS at 36- 37 weeks
  10. Alpha fetoprotein
  11. other disease specific to population
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57
Q

when is the best time to do an u/s for anatomic survey

A

18-20 weeks when all the organs have formed

later than that then baby is too large to see details bc of superimpsed body parts

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58
Q

what type of u/s do you do for an anatomic survey

A

transabdominal

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59
Q

Optional screening offered to patients deemed to be at increased risk of having baby with genetic problems:

A
  • Advanced maternal age (35 or older)
  • Abnormal findings on prenatal ultrasound
  • Family history of genetic disorder
  • Previous miscarriages
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60
Q

what are the 2 forms of genetic testing

A
  1. amniocentesis (go through abdomin)

2. chorionic villus sampling (go through abdomin or up vaginal canal)

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61
Q

pros and cons of amniocentesis

A

P: can do whenever during pregancny
C: 1. mom can have cramping
2. can introduce bacteria to baby
3. can nick the baby or the cord

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62
Q

pros and cons of chorionic villus sampling

A

P: less risk
C: can only perform in a certain time frame (11-14 weeks)

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63
Q

Fasting blood sugar provides a baseline for comparing other glucose values

A

glucose tolerance test, testing for maternal diabetes

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64
Q

Pregnant women drink ___ grams of glucose.

Blood samples will be collected at timed intervals of __ and ___ hours after patient drinks the glucose.

A

drink 75grams of glucose

collect at intervals of 1 and 3 hrs

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65
Q

when is the glucose tolerance test performed

A

16 weeks

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66
Q

when do you screen for GBS

A

36- 37 weeks

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67
Q

What does alpha fetoprotien screen for

A
  • high in neural tube defects

- low in down syndrome

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68
Q

“Ashchkinasi screen”

A

for diseases found in people of European Jewish descent

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69
Q

The process by which products of conception (baby, placenta, cord and membranes) are expelled from the uterus

A

labor

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70
Q

Requires progressive effacement (thinning) and dilation of the cervix, resulting from rhythmic contractions of the uterine muscles

A

labor

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71
Q

Dilatation in absence of contractions

A

cervical insufficiency

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72
Q

ways to decrase cesarean deliveries

A
  1. allow prolonged latent (early phase labor
  2. changing the definition of active labor to start at 6 cm (instead of 4cm)
  3. Allowing more time for labor to progress in the active phase
  4. Allowing women to push for at least two hours if they have delivered before, three hours if it’s their first delivery, and even longer in some situations, for example, with an epidural.
  5. Using techniques to assist with vaginal delivery, which is the preferred method when possible. This may include the use of forceps, for example
  6. Encouraging patients to avoid excessive weight gain during pregnancy.
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73
Q

Process whereby baby’s heart rate and its response to uterine contractions is monitored

A

fetal monitoring

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74
Q

what is a normal fetal heart rate

A

120-160 bpm and should show variability

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75
Q

Fetal heart rate usually _____ with contractions

A

increases

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76
Q

_______ after contraction or _________ are abnormal

A

decelerations

slow recovery to baseline

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77
Q

Decelerations after contraction can indicate

A
  1. stress

2. need for operative intervention

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78
Q

This type of monitoring uses a doppler to pick up the babies heart rate and tocodynamometer to measure the intensity of contractions

A

external monitor

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79
Q

cons on external fetal monitoring

A

sussceptible to artifact and requires that mom and baby remain relatively still

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80
Q

An electrode screwed to the babys scalp can accurately measure fetal heart rate including subtle variations

A

internal fetal monitoring

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81
Q

Cons of internal fetal monitoring

A

requires rupture of membranes leaving potential site of infection

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82
Q

Late decelerations are associated with

A

uteroplacental insufficiency or decreased uterine blood flow

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83
Q

The pain of labor and delivery is a result of

A

muscular contractions and pelvic pressure from organ distention

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84
Q

In what stage of labor does autonomic innervation of the visceral uterus senses pain from contractions and cervical dilation.

A

1st stage

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85
Q

In what stage of labor does somatic innervation of the vagina, vulva, and perineum sense pressure pain from the newborn passing through the birth canal

A

2nd stage

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86
Q

do narcotics cross the placenta

A

Yes, but only some cross the fetal blood-brain barrier

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87
Q

Fentanyl (an opiate) used for pain managment in pregnancy

A
  • drug of choice bc of short half-life
  • risks include include hypotension, nausea, vomiting, respiratory depression, depressed mental status, and decreased GI motility
  • make sure resuscitation medication and equipment for the newborn should be readily available
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88
Q

Epidurals provide ___ not _____

A

provide analgesia NOT anethesia

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89
Q

risks of epidurals

A
  1. short-term backache
  2. puncture headache,
  3. hypotension,
  4. maternal fever,
  5. prolonged labor, and
  6. increased rate of instrumental delivery
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90
Q

Do epidurals increase a mother’s risk of delivering by cesarean?

A

no

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91
Q

when can you do an epidural?

A

any time

placement of epidural at maternal request regardless of cervical dilatation

92
Q

amniorrhexis

A

rupture of membranes

93
Q

birth starts with

A

amniorrhexis

94
Q

Membrane ruptures when in relation to labor

A

before or during labor

Not related to specific stage

95
Q

What is the purpose of amniotic sac

A

cushions the fetus

guards it from infection

96
Q
  • Facilitates monitoring
  • Increases force of contractions
  • Risk of cord prolapse if head is not “engaged”
A

AROM

97
Q
  • Defined as rupture greater than 18 hours

- Increases the risk of ascending infection

A

PROM

98
Q

Rupture prior to 37 weeks

A

PPROM

99
Q

Baby delivered with membranes intact is said to be

A

delivered “en caul”
(Irish legend has it that the baby will be protected from drowning and It’s considered lucky and some believe increases psychic ability)

100
Q

forms of operative deliveries

A
  1. forceps
  2. vacuum
  3. cesarean section
101
Q

risks of using forceps

A
  1. skull fractures
  2. facial nerve palsy
    (affected side will not have creases and eye may remain open–> consider using artifical tears)
102
Q

risks of using a vaccum

A
  1. shearing forces on the scalp can cause subgaleal hemorrhage
  2. cephalohematoma
  3. damage to skin.
103
Q

risks of c-sections

A
  1. retained lung fluid
  2. lacteration of the fetus
  3. surgical complicaitons
  4. prolonged recovery for mom
104
Q

The most common presenting birth position

A

occiput anterior (OA): head first, face down

105
Q

occiput posterior (OA)

A

head first, face up

106
Q

transverse lie

A

baby is positioned horizontally, incompatible with vaginal delivery

107
Q

Breeching position

A

when the buttocks are delivered before the head

108
Q

Recommendations of breeched babyies

A
  1. attempt external cephalic version (an attempt to turn the baby by manipulated the fetus from the outside of the maternal abdomen)
  2. depends of physicians preferance/ experience
109
Q

when doe the transitional period for a newbord occur

A

first few hours after birth

110
Q

periodic breathing

A

bursts of rapid breaths, slowing, then rests for

111
Q

what is the cause of a newborns periodic breathing

A

immature CNS

*Not respiratory in origin

112
Q

normal axillary temperature for a new born in transition

A

36.5-37.5°C

113
Q

normal heart rate for a new born in transition

A

80-160 beats/min

114
Q

normal respirtory rate for a new born in transition

A

30-60 breaths/min

115
Q

normal BP for a newborn in transition

A

60/40

116
Q

Skin to Skin Care is associated with

A
  1. increased body temp (compared to those who used warmers)
  2. longer duration of breast feeding
  3. longer sleep periods
  4. better organization
117
Q

If baby is at ambient warmer, turn heat to ___ and then do what

A

100%

  • dry quickly to avoid evaporative loss
  • dress with a hat ASAP
118
Q

When should you bathe a newborn

A
  • after their temperature is stable and infant is acting well
  • adequate skin to skin and bonding with mom (6 hrs)
119
Q

Risks of hypothermia

A
  1. Breakdown of proteins and fats as fuel to create heat
  2. fatigue
  3. weight loss
120
Q

goal of temperature management of a newborn

A

prevent heat loss

121
Q

3 preventative interventions given within 2 hrs of delivery

A
  1. Eye prophylaxis with 0.5% erythromycin ophthalmic ointment
  2. HepB vaccine
  3. Vitamin K, 1mg IM
122
Q

why is 0.5% Eyrthromycin opthamlmic ointment is placed in both eyes

A

preventing gonorrhea and chlamydia infections of the eye

123
Q

Why is HepB given at birth

A

risk of chronic disease with congenital infection is high

124
Q

Approximately ____ of infants infected by HepB are infected from their mothers at birth, and between __ and __% of those infected before age ____, become chronic HBV carriers

A

90%
30-50%
5

125
Q

Why is Vit. K given at birth

A

Prophylaxis against early and late Vitamin K Deficiency Bleeding (Endogenous Vitamin K levels low until eighth day of life)

126
Q

how is Vit. K administered orally

A

generally 2-3 doses but less studied in US

127
Q

how does vit. K prophylaxis prevent VKDB

A

Promotes hepatic synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

128
Q

facial nerve damage from forceps usually resolves when

A

within first 48 hrs

  • completely by 2 months
  • *there is risk though of long term paralysis
129
Q

collection of blood that does not cross suture lines and is taught (not fluidy), often occurs with caput

A

cephalhematoma

130
Q

large potential space where baby can bleed out.

A

subgaleal hemorrhage

131
Q

How do you treat GBS + moms

A

use penicillin (5 million units) 4.5 hrs prior to delivery and second bag (2.5 million units) just prior to delivery

132
Q

Normal respiration duirng transition

A

RR= 40-60
periodic breathing
pO2>85%

133
Q

a baby can be apnea for how long before it is considered abnormal

A

10 seconds

134
Q

tachypnea and retractions reflect what

A

increased work of breathing “WOB”

135
Q

what is considered tachypnea

A

RR >60 breaths/min

136
Q

Tachypnea is the most sensitive indicator of

A

Lower airway disease

137
Q

what an infant is found to be in any sort of respiratory distress, what is your first course of action

A

complete a cardiac and respiratory exam

138
Q

grunting or singing on exam reflects what

A

baby’s attempt to keep air in lungs to prevent collapse

139
Q

grunting or singing are on inspiration or expiration?

A

expiration

140
Q

is stridor inspiratory or expiratory?

A

inspiratory

141
Q

what does stridor indicate

A

obstruction of middle airway

142
Q

crackles or rales indicate

A

fluid in the air-spaces

143
Q

are crackles and rales inspiratory or expiratory

A

inspiratory

144
Q

are wheezing or rhonchi inspiratory or expiratory

A

expiration (inspiration when severe)

145
Q

wheezing or rhonchi indicate

A

air trying to escape past obstruction in middle airways

146
Q

auscultory noises

A
  1. crackles or rales

2. wheezing or rhonic

147
Q

audible noises

A
  1. grunting or singing

2. stridor

148
Q

what is the primary muscle of breathing

A

diaphragm

149
Q

look for “pulling” of these areas to look for respiratory distress

A
  1. suprasternal
  2. intercostal
  3. paradoxical movement of abdomen
150
Q

pallor indicates

A

early sign of hypoxia

151
Q

blue color of skin and muccous membranes, occurs O2 sat.

A

central cyanosis

152
Q

acral cyanosis reflects ___ rather than ____

A

reflects perfusion

rather than oxygenation

153
Q

is perioral cyanosis worrisome

A

usually not–> sign of acral cyanosis

-check mucous membrane color

154
Q

simple non-invasive technique to measure oxygen saturation of blood

A

Pulse oximetry

155
Q

90 on pulse ox means

A

90% of RBCs are carrying O2

156
Q

how does pulse work

A

by measuring the amount of light in an appropriate spectrum

157
Q 
acceptable O2 sats at birth
2 min-
3 min-
4 min-
5 min-
10 min-
A 
2 min- 60%
3 min- 70%
4 min- 80%
5 min- 85%
10 min-90%
158
Q

can tolerate O2 sats of ___-___% for the first few hours of life, if baby is otherwise asymtomatic

A

85-87%

159
Q

why might the % sats be different depending upon which hand you place the probe?

A

Left will be higher when the DA is still open (postductal)

160
Q

what hand is the preferred hand to take the SpO2 of a newborn

A 
right hand (preductal)
-more representative for brain oxygenation)
161
Q

Causes of increased WOB

A
  1. pulmonary disorder (upper airway obstruction, lower airway)
  2. cardiac disorders
  3. Infection
  4. Hematological disorders
  5. Metabolic disorders
162
Q

what is the most common cause of respiratory distress in newborns

A

Pulmonary disorder

-Lower airway is more common than upper airway

163
Q

causes of lower airway diseases

A
  1. aspiration, including mesconium
  2. Hyaline membrane disease/RDS
  3. pneumothorax
  4. TTN (transient tachypnea of newborn)
  5. pneumonia
164
Q

causes of upper airway obstruction

A
  1. nasal stuffiness
  2. choanal atresia
  3. masses
  4. micrognathia (gnath=jaw)
  5. laryngeal or tracheal obstruction (middle airway)
165
Q

complications associated nasal obstruction

A
  1. noisy breathing
  2. increased WOB
  3. feeding can be a challenge
166
Q

how to examine for nasal obstruction

A
  1. check nasal patency

2. try passing a small soft feeding tube through each nostril

167
Q

what is the most common cause nasal stuffiness

A

vernix, mucus or old blood blocking the airway

168
Q

causes of nasal stuffiness

A
  1. vernix
  2. mucus or blood blocking airway
  3. swelling of mucosal lining from enthusiastic suctioning (especially with DeLee catheter)
  4. Dry air (colorado)
169
Q

when the thin tissue separating the nose and mouth area during fetal development remains after birth

A

choanal atresia

170
Q

cause of choanal atresia

A

unknown

171
Q

Presents with a baby who is cyanotic at rest and pink with crying

A

choanal atresia

172
Q

how to treat choanal atresia

A

surgical intervention

173
Q

the middle airway is comprised of

A

larynx and trachea

174
Q

Causes of middle airway obstruction

A
  1. blockage within: voal cord paralysis
  2. compression from without: tumor
  3. floppy airway
175
Q

what is the most common middle airway obstruction

A

floppy airway

176
Q

how does floppy airway present

A

presents with stridor with each breath and deep retractions

-better when baby is placed on stomach (gravity opens airway)

177
Q

RFLL stands for

A

Respiratory fliud liquid in lungs

178
Q

RLL is the same as ___

A

TTN

transient tachypnea of newborn

179
Q

why are fetal lungs filled with fluid

A
  1. acts as a barrier to the passage of O2 from alveolous to bloodstream
  2. lungs are stiffer when filled (increase pulmonary pressure)
180
Q

How do fetal lungs clear fluid

A
  • hormonal changes associated with labor and 2-3 days prior to labor (40% fluid is cleared before NSVD)
  • neg. pressure in lungs with first breaths
181
Q

Why do c-section babys have risk of RFLLS

A

don’t experince the hormonal changes associated with labor that help clear fluid

182
Q

if you suspect Lower airway disease what test would be useful

A

chest xray

183
Q

how to read a chest xray

A

R-rotation (compare clavicles)
I-inspiration (count at least 9 ribs)
P-penetration (check intervertebral discs)
A-airway (trachea should be midline and see bronchi splitting)
B-bones (look for fractures/abnormalities)
C-cardiac silhouette (

184
Q

if blunted costophrenic angles on chest xray, think ___

A

pulmonary effusion

185
Q

pulmonary vasculature should fill ____ if it extends beyond this think ______

A

medial 1/3

if extends think heart failure

186
Q

when does RFLL resolve

A

symptoms resolve 1-5 days w/ minimal intervention

187
Q

tachypnea and hypoxia which resolve in 1-5 days

A

RFLL or TNN

188
Q

diagnosis is exclusion

A

RFLL or TNN

189
Q

CXR shows: ill-defined peri-hilar fluid*, hyperinflation, pleural effusions

A

RFLL

190
Q

“well silhouette” on CXR

A

RFLL

191
Q

causes of aspiration

A
  1. meconium
  2. amniotic fluid
  3. maternal blood
192
Q

how often is meconium present in amniotic fluid duirng deleiveries

A

12%

193
Q

what percent of deliverys are complicated by meconium aspiration

A

4-6%

194
Q

how the percentage of deliveries complicated by meconium aspiration, how many require mechanical ventilation

A

50%

195
Q

meconium aspiration is most common is who

A

term or near term infants

196
Q

passage of meconium is rare before ___

A

34 weeks

197
Q

why does MAS occur

A
  1. if fetus is stressed in utero and gasps in meconium from amniotic fluid
  2. thick, viscous meconium in the oropharynx at birth can contribute to postnatal aspiration
198
Q

3 serious outcomes of MAS

A
  1. persistent pulmonary hypertension of newborn (PPHN)
  2. blockage of small airways, over inflation and pneumothorax
  3. Pneumonia (inflammatory rather than infection)
199
Q

cause of PPHN

A

MAS

200
Q

how does meconium cause PPHN

A
  • Mec can inactivate surfactant
  • cause inflammation and a thick coating obstructing the airway
  • results in increased PVR
201
Q

what occurs when pulmonary vascular resistance remains elevated, resulting in right to left shunting of blood through fetal circulatory pathways

A

PPH

202
Q

Echo results: normal structural anatomy with flattened ventricular septum, right to left shunting through thte DA and/or FO

A

PPHN

203
Q

Gold standard diagnostic test for PPHN

A

echo

204
Q

treatment of PPHN

A
  1. supplemental oxygen
  2. surfactant infusion
  3. inhaled nictric oxide
  4. ventilation support
205
Q

Hyaline membrane disease/RDS occurs almost exclusively in

A

premature infants

206
Q

RDS is a result of

A

surfactant deficiency

207
Q

RDS can be seen in near term babys (34-37 weeks) if:

A
  1. mother is diabetic (hyperglycemia/hyperinsulinemia can delay lung maturation and surfactant production)
  2. Septic infant (inflammatory response causes “washout”)
208
Q

RDS is indishinguishable from ___

A

pneumonia

*therefore history is critical

209
Q

CXR: ground glass appearance or white out of lungs

A

RDS

210
Q

caused by microatelectasis of alveoli

A

RDS

211
Q

how is RDS treated

A

recombinant surfactant and ventilator support

212
Q

air leak outside of lung, within chest wall

A

pneumothorax

213
Q

progressive accumulation of air leakage outside of lung leads to

A

collapse of lung

214
Q

risk factors for what disease include:

  1. positive pressure ventilation
  2. stiff lungs
  3. aspiration
A

pneumothorax

215
Q

when does pneumothorax typically occur

A

at delivery (bc the first breath a baby takes is enormous)

216
Q

___% of all newborns have pneumothorax

A

1%

217
Q

T/F: all pneumothorax are symptomatic

A

F: some small pneumothoraces may be asymptomatic

218
Q

these signs indicate what disease:

  1. sudden cyanosis
  2. respiratory distress
  3. asymmetric breath sounds
  4. muffled heart tones
  5. poor perfusion/mottling/pallor
A

pneumothorax

219
Q

CXR: dark film on edges of lungs

A

pneumothorax

220
Q 
what do these pathogens typically cause:
GBS
E. coli
other gram neg. rods
Staph species
Listeria
A

pneumonia

221
Q 
what do these pathogens cause less commonly:
ureaplasma
chlamydia
herpes simplex
CMV
A

pneumonia

222
Q

pneumonia caused transplacental

A

bactermia

223
Q

pneumonia caused ascending

A

chorioamnionitis, PROM + GBS

224
Q

inflammatory exudates in the lungs interfere with surfactant function in what disease

A

pneumonia

225
Q

pleural effusin are common and PPHN can develop with

A

pneumonia

226
Q

CXR: fluffiness

A

pleural effusion/ pnuemonia

Neonate (4 decks)

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